2013 B Flashcards

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1
Q

Arnold, a 25 year old medical student, developed papulovesicular and crusted lesions that were generalized, starting from the head and trunk and accompanied by fever. He probably has

a. Rubella
b. Rubeola
c. Varicella
d. Variola
e. Viral Influenza

A

C

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2
Q

His classmates were concerned that they might have been infected. The infectious stage of the patient’s condition begins during the

a. Vesicular stage
b. Prodromal stage
c. Papular stage
d. Crusting stage
e. Resolution

A

B

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3
Q

He continued to have cough and rashes for over 2 weeks. The most likely complication is

a. Sepsis syndrome
b. Pneumonia
c. Progressive varicella
d. Secondary bacterial infection
e. Ramsey-Hunt syndrome

A

B

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4
Q

The most effective oral antifungal agent for dermatophytes is

a. Ketoconazole
b. Itraconazole
c. Terbinafine
d. Griseofulvin
e. Flucytosine

A

C

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5
Q

A 25 year old stevedore complained of a spreading plaque on his groin. On P.E., the lesions were serpiginous with central clearing. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Tinea cruris
b. Granuloma annulare
c. Inverse psoriasis
d. Allergic contact dermatitis

A

A

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6
Q

An 80 year old diabetic developed tingling and shooting pains on his forehead followed vesicular rashes that involved the tip of his nose. On examination, the lesions were mostly crusted. Your diagnosis is Herpes Zoster resolving. You will

a. Give ACV/VCV
b. Refer to ophthalmologist
c. Give antibiotics instead
d. Assure patient he is on way to recovery

A

B

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7
Q

Acyclovir/Valacyclovir (ACV/VCV) to be effective must be converted to a triphosphate form by viral enzyme:

a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Purinase
c. Carboxylase
d. Thymidine kinase

A

D

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8
Q

A 40 year old diabetic developed multiple erythematous papules and vesicles on his L trunk circling around his nipple that were painful. He also noticed some vesicles on his L thigh. He took NSAID for the pain. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Herpes zoster
b. Allergic contact dermatitis
c. Bullous drug eruptions
d. Dermatitis herpetiformis

A

A

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9
Q

How many vesicles on his thigh should be present before a disseminated form is entertained?

a. 20 or more
b. 30 or more
c. 10 or more
d. 40 or more

A

A

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10
Q

The most effective topical antifungal agent for Candida albicans is

a. Acyclovir
b. Imidazoles
c. Terbinafine
d. Griseofulvin
e. Flucytosine

A

B

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11
Q

Mang Paul, 75 year old male, consulted the clinic because of a rough, black nodule ‘stucked-on’ his lower back for almost 5 years. He would try reaching for the lesion, carefully scraping the surface with his fingernails, but only able to succeed superficially in some portions. Nodule is now growing in size. Mang Juan probably has:

a. Seborrheic keratosis
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Melanoma
d. Dermatofibroma

A

A

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12
Q

Tricia stayed up all night reviewing for an exam in her groupmate’s dormitory. In the pm of the next day, she noticed several itchy papules noted on the extensors of her arms, around her legs and feet. Some lesions have wheals and some have ‘halos’. You would think these are:

a. Scabies
b. Mosquito bites
c. Arthropod mites
d. Flea bites

A

B

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13
Q

Ms. Santos, 54 year old social worker doing community fieldwork, consulted the clinic for multiple rough dry reddish-brown plaques noted on her nose, front of left ear, upper back and upper arms. Lesions are non pruritic. On close PE of her plaques, noted are adherent scales with central atrophy. What would be your initial impression?

a. Hansen’s Disease
b. Photosensitivity reactions
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Discoid lupus erythematosus

A

A

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14
Q

BJ and friends decided to go to a nearby ‘pub’ after their medical board exams. They took their dinner prior to ordering beer and side dishes of calamares, crispy squid and shrimps. The next day, BJ noted multiple warm transient wheals and hives appearing on his face, body, and becoming generalized. He is developing:

a. Hypersensitivity reactions to insect bites
b. Acute urticaria
c. Contact urticaria
d. Airborne allergy to molds/mites

A

B

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15
Q

Aling Nilda, our manicurist, travels daily from her home in Pasig to PGH to do ‘nail service’ to residents and interns of PGH. Two months ago, she noticed itchy, erythematous to lichenified plaques on the extensor surfaces of both her arms. She could only recall application of a new St. Yves lotion given to her by her ‘balikbayan’ niece, which she applied on arms, legs, and body. Your initial impression is:

a. Allergic type of Contact Dermatitis
b. Photocontact Dermatitis
c. Phototoxic reaction
d. Irritant type of Contact Dermatitis

A

A

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16
Q

Mon, a community co-worker of the previous patient, developed reddish brown smooth dry plaques and nodules, noted on the bilateral lobes of her ears, side of the left face, infiltrated, non-pruritic, ‘feels thickened’. For months, she had not been bothered by them except that at present, the lesions are becoming more conspicuous. Your initial impression would be:

a. Contact dermatitis
b. Hansen’s disease
c. Photosensitivity reaction
d. Lupus erythematosus

A

B

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17
Q

Ange, an LU4 medical student, just completed her community rotation. She was assigned to make a community and physical diagnosis of a group of families staying in the shanties near the railway. There were stray dogs and cats loitering the area. She noticed the appearance of pruritic papules on her wrists, finger webs, buttocks, and thighs during the last week of her rotation. She cannot sleep at night because of the itchiness. Your initial impression is:

a. Dyshidrotic eczemas
b. Arthropod bite reactions
c. Scabies
d. Insect bites

A

C

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18
Q

Dr. Capito, an OB-Gyne consultant, referred her 35 year old patient confined for ovarian newgrowth because of skin problems and inability to ‘lift her right arm to comb her hair’. On PE, blood chemistries and muscle enzyme studies were requested. You would search for the following skin concerns:

a. Scaly plaques on scalp areas
b. Purplish hue of eyelids
c. Vasculitic lesions on the legs
d. Erythematous multiple discrete papules on the elbows

A

B

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19
Q

Last weekend, Joni was brought to the clinic for multiple pearly papules and nodules noted by her mom since 2 months ago. Lesions were distributed on her forehead, face and chest. On close examination, some nodules were umbilicated, some were excoriated. The lesions were

a. Multiple milia
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Verruca plana
d. Closed comedones

A

B

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20
Q

Jackie, a 6 year old kid, was brought to the clinic because of “impetigo”. Her lesions were wet, covered with honey colored crust, located beneath her nasal area. Her doctor advised topical corticosteroid which was applied on the area for 2 weeks. Lesions were initially suppressed but later progressed to involve upper and lower eyelids. Lesions worsened because ‘impetigo’ is caused by:

a. Parasites
b. Viruses
c. Fungi
d. Bacteria

A

D

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21
Q

Besides the skin, itch can also be evoked from the following areas:

a. Hair
b. Adipose tissue
c. Cornea
d. Nails

A

C

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22
Q

Itch cannot be produced from the following skin disease:

a. Psoriasis
b. Pityriasis versicolor
c. Leprosy
d. Acne

A

C

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23
Q

Anxious and depressed individuals manifest their conditions with complaints of pruritus usually located in which areas of the body?

a. Nose and lips
b. Palm and soles
c. Throat
d. Anogenital

A

D

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24
Q
  1. If one is under stress as manifested by his sweaty hands and feet, tell him to rest and sleep because of the following fact while asleep:
    a. Metabolism slows down
    b. Thermal sweating ceases
    c. Emotional sweating ceases
    d. Problems are forgotten.
A

C

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25
Q

A 16 year old high school senior was brought to the ER because of breathing difficulty and appearance of multiple wheals and hives on face and body. These occurred less than an hour after scouting activities in Mt. Makiling. Of the various mechanism causing urticaria, you would think this is:

a. Immune complex induced
b. IgE dependent
c. Non immunological
d. Immunoglobulin/complement deposition

A

B

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26
Q

[T/F] Approximately 20% of patients present with arthritis without psoriatic skin lesions.

A

F

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27
Q

[T/F] Psoriasis vulgaris affects more males than females.

A

F

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28
Q

[T/F] Oil spots and nail pitting are pathognomonic of psoriasis vulgaris.

A

F

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29
Q

[T/F] Munro’s microabscesses are collections of neutrophils in the epidermis.

A

T

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30
Q

[T/F] The most common causative agent for psoriasis vulgaris is S. aureus.

A

F

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31
Q

[T/F] The most cost-effective diagnostic tool for differentiating psoriasis vulgaris from a dermatophyte infection is the potassium hydroxide test.

A

T [previous Cheers]

F [explanation in 2013 B]

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32
Q

[T/F] Koebner’s phenomenon is a clinical sign pathognomonic for psoriasis vulgaris.

A

F

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33
Q

[T/F] Cultures from pustular lesions in patients with generalized psoriasis of von Zumbusch yield Streptococcus.

A

F

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34
Q

[T/F] Oral steroids are one of the treatment options for psoriasis vulgaris.

A

F

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35
Q

[T/F] Alefacept and other biologic agents are given to psoriasis patients to boost the immune system.

A

F

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36
Q

During the late phase of wound healing, the following processes take place, EXCEPT:

a. Collagen synthesis
b. Wound contraction
c. Wound remodeling
d. Synthesis of matrix proteins

A

C

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37
Q

Which of the following statements is true of neutrophils:

a. It does not appear to have a role in the subsequent events of healing in an uncomplicated wound.
b. Its major function is as an immunoreactant.
c. It releases the neutrophil activating protein.
d. It secretes collagenases and elastases.

A

A

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38
Q

The most important inflammatory cell in normal wound healing is:

a. Eosinophil
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophil

A

B

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39
Q

Angiogenesis is stimulated by the following EXCEPT:

a. High lactase levels
b. High pH
c. Low pH
d. Low oxygen tension

A

B

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40
Q

The following statements are true of epithelialization, EXCEPT:

a. The process proceeds sequentially as follows: cellular detachment, migration, proliferation, and differentiation.
b. Regenerated epithelium DOES NOT retain all the functional advantages of normal epithelium.
c. Epithelium becomes thicker at the wound edge, compared to the mid portion of the re-epithelialized area.
d. The most important processes of epithelialization are proliferation, endothelial cell migration, and tube formation.

A

D

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41
Q

The following statement is true of collagen synthesis:

a. After 4 weeks, collagen homeostasis occurs.
b. Occurs 2-4 days after wounding
c. Begins 7 days after injury
d. Continues at an accelerated rate for 6 weeks

A

A

42
Q

The following statement is true of wound contraction:

a. Begins approximately 4-5 days after wounding.
b. There is centrifugal movement of the wound edge toward the center of the wound.
c. This process lasts 15-18 days
d. Contraction occurs at a rate of 0.75-0.80 mm/day.

A

A

43
Q

The following processes occur during the maturation phase:

a. Increase of type III collagen
b. Increase of water and glycosaminoglycans in matrix
c. Increase in cellularity of wound
d. Increase in crosslinks between collagen fibers

A

D

44
Q

Which of the following has a negative effect on wound healing?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K

A

C

45
Q

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents do not negatively affect wound healing?

a. Thio-TEPA and chloroquine mustard
b. Etoposide and Vinblastine
c. Nitrogen mustard and Thio-TEPA
d. Etoposide and Chloroquine phosphate

A

A

46
Q

Premenstrual acne is characterized by:

a. Spontaneous resolution in most cases
b. More common occurrences in patients with irregular menstrual cycles
c. Purely comedonal lesions
d. Indication that acne will be more aggressive

A

A

47
Q

True about pathogenesis of acne:

a. Hyperproliferation of keratinocytes is secondary to P. acnes
b. DHT promotes both seborrhea and keratinocyte hyperproliferation
c. Adaptive but not innate immunity plays a role
d. There is early perifollicular infiltration of eosinophils

A

B

48
Q

Hyperandrogenic disease states should be highly suspected in this group of acne patients

a. Female teenagers with partial response to topical antibiotics
b. Teenagers with cystic acne lesions on the chest and back but not on the face
c. Males aged 25-30 years with comedonal acne
d. Infants 6 months to 2 years old

A

D

49
Q

Neonatal acne may be seen in what percentage of newborns?

a. 7%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 30%

A

C

50
Q

Which of the following sets of drugs may induce acneiform eruptions?

a. Iodides, Rifampicin, Aspirin
b. Diazepam, Vitamin K, and Penicillin
c. Corticosteroids, Isoniazid, Phenytoin
d. High doses of Vitamin B5, Streptomycin, Mefenamic Acid

A

C

51
Q

In contrast to acne vulgaris, acneiform eruption is characterized by these features:

a. More common in females
b. Absence of pustules
c. Absence of comedones
d. Highly inflammatory facial polymorphic lesions

A

C

52
Q

The most common acne lesion appearing during adrenarche/menarche is:

a. Comedone
b. Papule
c. Pustule
d. Cyst

A

A

53
Q

Abnormal keratinization in acne:

a. It is not always present
b. Occurs in the deepest segment of the follicular duct
c. Directly produces inflammation
d. Is an effect of androgen

A

D

54
Q

Which of the following cytokines promote follicular hyperkeratinization?

a. IL-1
b. IL-10
c. IL-17
d. TNF-α

A

A

55
Q

Systemic treatment of acne is indicated in which of the following?

a. Cystic acne on the face of a 16 year old female
b. Comedones on the forehead in a 10 year old male
c. Papules on the face of a 14 year old female allergic to tretinoin
d. Pustules, comedones, and papules on the face of a 29 year old lady

A

A

56
Q

A week old female infant presented with multiple erythematous papules with a “flea bite” appearance over her trunk. What do you expect to see on biopsy?

a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Eosinophils
d. Mixed infiltrate

A

C

57
Q

A week old female infant presented with multiple erythematous papules with a “flea bite” appearance over her trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Transient neonatal pustular melanosis
b. Erythema toxicum neonatorum
c. Miliaria
d. Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis

A

A

58
Q

An infant presented with a papulosquamous rash with desquamation over palms and soles. Which one is the most likely cause of his condition?

a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. Treponema pallidum

A

D

59
Q

An infant presented with an erythematous patch on the right half of the body. What do you think the infant has?

a. Miliaria Rubra
b. Lymphatic Malformation
c. Harlequin Color Change
d. All of the above

A

C

60
Q

A well looking baby boy developed a firm, reddish violet subcutaneous nodule on the buttock. What should you check for?

a. Hypernatremia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hyponatremia

A

B

61
Q

Which is characteristic of lesions of impetigo contangiosa?

a. Vesicles in a dermatomal distribution
b. Formation of pustules
c. Painful blisters
d. Honeycomb crusting

A

D

62
Q

A 3 month old baby girl presented with a diaper rash. In your examination, you noted the presence of blisters and yellow crusting. What would you advise the mother?

a. Rash is due to diaper allergy.
b. Rash has no consequence on the child’s health.
c. Prompt antibiotic therapy is necessary.
d. Change diaper more frequently.

A

C

63
Q

In acute atopic dermatitis, what type of T cell proliferates?

a. TH1
b. TH2
c. TH3
d. A and B only

A

B

64
Q

What is the most common cause of napkin dermatitis?

a. Bullous Impetigo
b. Allergic Contact Napkin Dermatitis
c. Irritant Contact Napkin Dermatits
d. Seborrheic Dermatitis

A

C

65
Q

The following are included in the simplest criteria for diagnosing atopic dermatitis except:

a. Co-existing bronchial asthma
b. Pruritus
c. Eczematous rashes
d. Dryness of the skin

A

A

66
Q

Which of the following characterize Hansen’s TT?

a. Diffuse infiltration of the face and hyperemia
b. Anesthetic erythematous plaques with central clearing
c. Solitary well defined hyposthetic erythematous plaques
d. Erythematous nodules on earlobes

A

B OR C

67
Q

A patient with Hansen’s LL is being treated with multi-drug therapy for 6 months, when suddenly he had fever, red eyes and appearance of erythematous nodular lesions. The patient has

a. Serum sickness
b. Reversal reaction
c. Down grading reaction
d. Erythema nodosum leprosum

A

D

68
Q

Leprosy patients with solitary lesions and intact cell mediated immunity may take Rifampicin and Dapsone for a period of

a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

A

A

69
Q

Mycobacterium leprae transmission is through

a. Saliva
b. Wound contact
c. Nasal secretions
d. Skin to skin contact

A

C

70
Q

Mycobacterium leprae will grow best in the following except

a. Scalp
b. Testes
c. Peripheral nerves
d. Upper respiratory tract

A

A

71
Q

Mitsuda reaction is used to

a. Monitor progress of disease
b. Determine baciliary load
c. Diagnose Hansen’s disease
d. Determine status of CMI

A

D

72
Q

A patient with a solitary hyposthetic and hypopigmented patch on the face was diagnosed with Hansen’s disease. The lepromin test and acid fast bacilli is expected to be:

a. Lepromin (-), AFB (-)
b. Lepromin (+), AFB (-)
c. Lepromin (-), AFB (+)
d. Lepromin (+), AFB (+)

A

B

73
Q

Foamy histiocytes are found in

a. Hansen’s Indeterminate
b. Hansen’s Tuberculoid
c. Hansen’s Lepromatous
d. Neural Leprosy

A

C

74
Q

Contacts of patients with leprosy are advised

a. Prophylaxis with Dapsone
b. BCG vaccination
c. Observation for cutaneous lesions
d. Treatment with multidrug therapy regimen

A

C

75
Q

Which of the following is a bactericidal drug in the multidrug therapy for Hansen’s disease?

a. Clarithromycin
b. Dapsone
c. Minocyclin
d. Rifampicin

A

D

76
Q

[T/F] Topical medications frequently applied will increase its overall efficacy.

A

F

77
Q

[T/F] For lesions which are thick, dry, and rough, the best type of vehicle to use would be the cream.

A

T

78
Q

[T/F] An eroded skin would cause easy penetration of medications.

A

T

79
Q

[T/F] The thinnest skin of the entire body is found on the lips.

A

T/F

80
Q

[T/F] Hydrocortisone is poorly absorbed after topical application.

A

T

81
Q

[T/F] If the topical medication has low absorption, its efficacy is also low.

A

F

82
Q

[T/F] Topical medications get better skin penetration if occluded.

A

T

83
Q

[T/F] Eczematous skin presents a better barrier to percutaneous drug delivery.

A

F

84
Q

[T/F] Topical medications can easily penetrate the scrotal area more than the face.

A

T

85
Q

[T/F] Placing the skin on occlusive dressings can cause folliculitis and miliaria.

A

T

86
Q

Echthyma gangrenosum

A. The characteristic lesions are well-demarcated, chronic ulcers beneath crusts. They heal with scarring.
B. Warm, tender, erythematous plaque that progressively spreads. The lesion typically has clearly demarcated borders.
C. Reddish-brown, well-demarcated, irregularly shaped patches located in the crural areas like the axillae or the groin.
D. A moist plaque with golden yellow or honey-colored crust.
E. Red or purpuric macule, that evolves into hemorrhagic bulla which ruptures to form a gangrenous, suppurative ulcer with black eschar and erythematous rim. Frequently occurs in the anogenital or axillary region.

A

E

87
Q

Erythrasma

A. The characteristic lesions are well-demarcated, chronic ulcers beneath crusts. They heal with scarring.
B. Warm, tender, erythematous plaque that progressively spreads. The lesion typically has clearly demarcated borders.
C. Reddish-brown, well-demarcated, irregularly shaped patches located in the crural areas like the axillae or the groin.
D. A moist plaque with golden yellow or honey-colored crust.
E. Red or purpuric macule, that evolves into hemorrhagic bulla which ruptures to form a gangrenous, suppurative ulcer with black eschar and erythematous rim. Frequently occurs in the anogenital or axillary region.

A

C

88
Q

Impetigo

A. The characteristic lesions are well-demarcated, chronic ulcers beneath crusts. They heal with scarring.
B. Warm, tender, erythematous plaque that progressively spreads. The lesion typically has clearly demarcated borders.
C. Reddish-brown, well-demarcated, irregularly shaped patches located in the crural areas like the axillae or the groin.
D. A moist plaque with golden yellow or honey-colored crust.
E. Red or purpuric macule, that evolves into hemorrhagic bulla which ruptures to form a gangrenous, suppurative ulcer with black eschar and erythematous rim. Frequently occurs in the anogenital or axillary region.

A

D

89
Q

Ecthyma

A. The characteristic lesions are well-demarcated, chronic ulcers beneath crusts. They heal with scarring.
B. Warm, tender, erythematous plaque that progressively spreads. The lesion typically has clearly demarcated borders.
C. Reddish-brown, well-demarcated, irregularly shaped patches located in the crural areas like the axillae or the groin.
D. A moist plaque with golden yellow or honey-colored crust.
E. Red or purpuric macule, that evolves into hemorrhagic bulla which ruptures to form a gangrenous, suppurative ulcer with black eschar and erythematous rim. Frequently occurs in the anogenital or axillary region.

A

A

90
Q

Erysipelas

A. The characteristic lesions are well-demarcated, chronic ulcers beneath crusts. They heal with scarring.
B. Warm, tender, erythematous plaque that progressively spreads. The lesion typically has clearly demarcated borders.
C. Reddish-brown, well-demarcated, irregularly shaped patches located in the crural areas like the axillae or the groin.
D. A moist plaque with golden yellow or honey-colored crust.
E. Red or purpuric macule, that evolves into hemorrhagic bulla which ruptures to form a gangrenous, suppurative ulcer with black eschar and erythematous rim. Frequently occurs in the anogenital or axillary region.

A

B

91
Q

Bockhart’s Impetigo
A. The characteristic distribution of lesions on the trunk in scabies.
B. Pediculosis corporis.
C. An example of deep folliculitis.
D. An example of superficial folliculitis.
E. Histologically, the level of split is subcorneal.

A

D

92
Q

Sycosis Barbae
A. The characteristic distribution of lesions on the trunk in scabies.
B. Pediculosis corporis.
C. An example of deep folliculitis.
D. An example of superficial folliculitis.
E. Histologically, the level of split is subcorneal.

A

C

93
Q

Bullous Impetigo
A. The characteristic distribution of lesions on the trunk in scabies.
B. Pediculosis corporis.
C. An example of deep folliculitis.
D. An example of superficial folliculitis.
E. Histologically, the level of split is subcorneal.

A

E

94
Q

Vagabond’s disease
A. The characteristic distribution of lesions on the trunk in scabies.
B. Pediculosis corporis.
C. An example of deep folliculitis.
D. An example of superficial folliculitis.
E. Histologically, the level of split is subcorneal.

A

B

95
Q

Circle of Hebra
A. The characteristic distribution of lesions on the trunk in scabies.
B. Pediculosis corporis.
C. An example of deep folliculitis.
D. An example of superficial folliculitis.
E. Histologically, the level of split is subcorneal.

A

A

96
Q

Crusted Scabies
A. Slate gray to bluish, irregular-shaped macules, 0.5 to 1.0 cm. Seen in pediculosis pubis.
B. May sometimes be considered a sexually transmitted disease.
C. Lice lay their eggs in the seams of clothing.
D. A diagnostic lesion is a burrow.
E. A highly contagious variant with thousands of mites on skin surface.

A

E

97
Q

Scabies
A. Slate gray to bluish, irregular-shaped macules, 0.5 to 1.0 cm. Seen in pediculosis pubis.
B. May sometimes be considered a sexually transmitted disease.
C. Lice lay their eggs in the seams of clothing.
D. A diagnostic lesion is a burrow.
E. A highly contagious variant with thousands of mites on skin surface.

A

D

98
Q

Maculae Cerulae
A. Slate gray to bluish, irregular-shaped macules, 0.5 to 1.0 cm. Seen in pediculosis pubis.
B. May sometimes be considered a sexually transmitted disease.
C. Lice lay their eggs in the seams of clothing.
D. A diagnostic lesion is a burrow.
E. A highly contagious variant with thousands of mites on skin surface.

A

A

99
Q

Pediculosis Pubis
A. Slate gray to bluish, irregular-shaped macules, 0.5 to 1.0 cm. Seen in pediculosis pubis.
B. May sometimes be considered a sexually transmitted disease.
C. Lice lay their eggs in the seams of clothing.
D. A diagnostic lesion is a burrow.
E. A highly contagious variant with thousands of mites on skin surface.

A

B

100
Q

Pediculosis Corporis
A. Slate gray to bluish, irregular-shaped macules, 0.5 to 1.0 cm. Seen in pediculosis pubis.
B. May sometimes be considered a sexually transmitted disease.
C. Lice lay their eggs in the seams of clothing.
D. A diagnostic lesion is a burrow.
E. A highly contagious variant with thousands of mites on skin surface.

A

C