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[OS 212] Dermatology > 2012 > Flashcards

2012 Flashcards

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Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following characterize Hansen’s TT?
A. Diffuse infiltration of the face and leonine facies
B. Several erythematous plaques with central clearing
C. Several hypopigmented hyposthetic patches with indistinct outer borders
D. Large peripheral nerve with no skin lesion

A

B

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2
Q 
A patient with Hansen’s disease is being treated with multi-drug therapy for 6 months, when suddenly he had fever and appearance of erythematous, inflamed, edematous lesions. The patient has:
A.	Reversal reaction
B.	Poor response to medication
C.	Erythema nodosum leprosum
D.	Serum sickness
A

C

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3
Q 
Leprosy patients with hyposthetic annular plaques with indistinct borders may take Rifmapicin, Clofazamine and Dapsone for a period of:
A.	6 months
B.	12 months
C.	18 months
D.	24 months
A

B

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4
Q 
Mycobacterium leprae transmission is through
A.	Skin to skin contact
B.	Nasal droplet infection
C.	Saliva
D.	Wound contact
A

B

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5
Q 
Mycobacterium leprae will grow best in the following except:
A.	Peripheral nerves
B.	Axillary skin
C.	Upper respiratory tract
D.	Testes
A

C

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6
Q

Mitsuda reaction > 5 mm induration is used to:
A. Monitor progress of disease
B. Determine bacillary load
C. Diagnose Hansen’s disease
D. Determine intact CMI to Mycobacterium leprae

A

D

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7
Q 
A patient with solitary hyposthetic and hypopigmented patch on the face was diagnosed with Hansen’s disease. The lepromin test and acid fast bacilli is expected to be:
A.	Lepromin (-), AFB (+)
B.	Lepromin (+), AFB (-)
C.	Lepromin (-), AFB (-)
D.	Lepromin (+), AFB (+)
A

B

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8
Q 
Acid fast bacilli are sparse or absent in:
	A.	Hansens I
	B.	Hansens TT
	C.	Hansens LL
	D.	AOTA
A

B

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9
Q 
Contacts of patients with leprosy are advised:
A.	Prophylaxis with Rifampicin
B.	BCG vaccination
C.	Examination for cutaneous lesions
D.	Treatment with Dapsone
A

C

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10
Q 
Which of the following is used for reversal reaction of Hansen’s disease?
A.	Prednisone
B.	Ofloxacin
C.	Minolycin
D.	Rifampicin
A

A

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11
Q 
A 23-year old female in her 6 weeks age of gestation (AOG) developed fever and maculopapular rash accompanied by post-auricular lymphadenopathy. She probably has:
A.	Rubella
B.	Rubeola
C.	Varicella
D.	Variola
E. 	Viral influenza
A

A

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12
Q 
If the above patient’s baby would be affected, the organ that would most likely be involved is the:
A.	Brain
B.	Lungs
C.	Bones
D.	Heart
E.	Skin
A

D

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13
Q 
Arnold, a 25-year old medical student, developed papulovesicular and crusted lesions that were generalized, starting from the head and trunk and accompanied by fever. He probably has:
A.	Rubella
B.	Rubeola
C.	Varicella
D.	Variola
E. 	Viral influenza
A

C

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14
Q 
His classmates were concerned that they might have been infected. The infectious stage of the patient’s condition begins during the:
A.	Vesicular stage
B.	Prodromal stage
C.	Papular stage
D.	Crusting stage
E.	Resolution
A

B

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15
Q 
He continued to have cough and rashes for over 2 weeks. The most likely complication is:
A.	Sepsis syndrome
B.	Pneumonia
C.	Progressive Varicella
D.	Secondary bacterial infection
E.	Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
A

B

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16
Q 
A 30-year old seaman developed painful vesicles on the penile shaft. He had unprotected contact with a commercial sex worker a month ago but did not notice any lesions/discharge on her genital area. He recalled wearing new denim on the day he developed the lesions. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.	Allergic contact dermatitis
B.	Herpes simplex infection
C.	Becet’s disease
D.	Chancroid
E.	Chancre
A

B

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17
Q 
The most effective oral antifungal agent for dermatophytes is:
A.	Ketoconazole
B.	Itraconazole
C.	Terbinafine
D.	Griseofulvin
E.	Flucytosine
A

C

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18
Q 
A 25-year old stevedore complained of a spreading plaque on his groin. On PE, the lesions were speriginous with central clearing. The most likely diagnosis is:
A.	Tinea cruris
B.	Granuloma annulare
C.	Inverse psoriasis
D.	Allergic contact dermatitis
A

A

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19
Q

An 80-year old diabetic developed tingling and shooting pains on his forehead followed by vesicular rashes that involved the tip of his nose. On examination, the lesions were mostly crusted. Your diagnosis is Herpes Zoster resolving. You will:
A. Give ACV/VCV
B. Refer to Ophthalmologist
C. Give antibiotics instead
D. Assure patient he is on the way to recovery

A

B

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20
Q 
Acyclovir/Valacyclovir (ACV/VCV) to be effective must be converted to triphosphate form by viral enzyme:
A.	Pyruvate kinase
B.	Purinase
C.	Carboxylase
D.	Thymidine kinase
A

D

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21
Q

[T/F] The hallmark for primary lesions in psoriasis are the thick silvery white scales.

A

F

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22
Q

[T/F] The most common causative agent for psoriasis vulgaris is S. aureus

A

F

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23
Q

[T/F] Biologic agents, such as Infliximab, are given to psoriasis patients to boost the immune system.

A

T

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24
Q

[T/F] Punch biopsy is a requirement to diagnose psoriasis vulgaris.

A

F

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25
Q

[T/F] Auspitz sign and Koebner phenomenon are clinical signs pathognomonic for psoriasis vulgaris.

A

F

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26
Q

[T/F] Cultures from lesions in patients with pustular psoriasis yield Streptococcus.

A

F

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27
Q

[T/F] Psoriasis vulgaris affects both sexes equally.

A

T

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28
Q

[T/F] Munro’s microabscesses are collections of neutrophils in the dermis.

A

F

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29
Q

[T/F] Oil spots and nail pitting are pathognomonic of psoriasis vulgaris.

A

F

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30
Q

[T/F] All patients with nail psoriasis have psoriatic infection.

A

F

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31
Q 
This condition is caused by Gram-negative bacterial infection:
A.	Impetigo
B.	Cellulitis
C.	Erythrasma
D.	Ecthyma Gangrenosum
A

D

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32
Q

The following statements are true regarding Impetigo EXCEPT:
A. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
B. There are two forms of Impetigo: the bullous and the non-bullous type
C. Histologically, the split in bullae in bullous Impetigo is below the basal layer of the epidermis.
D. Honey-colored crust is observed in lesions of Impetigo.

A

C

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33
Q

Which statement is TRUE?
A. In some cases of Impetigo, local care and topical antibiotic therapy is sufficient.
B. Ecthyma is an extremely rare disease
C. Ecthyma and Ecthyma gangrenosum are one and the same.
D. Treatment of Ecthyma is very much different from the treatment of Impetigo

A

A

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34
Q

Cellulitis may sometimes be distinguished from Erysipelas by noting that:
A. Lesions of Cellulitis usually have poorly demarcated borders while Erysipelas have distinct borders.
B. Cellulitis is warmer to touch than Erysipelas
C. Bullae and vesicles may be present in Erysipelas but never in Cellulitis
D. Cellulitis responds even by just using topical antibiotics while Erysipelas requires treatment with systemic antibiotics.

A

A

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35
Q

The following statements are true about Folliculitis EXCEPT:
A. Folliculitis can be classified as either superficial or deep folliculitis
B. Superficial Folliculitis presents as small, fragile dome-shaped pustules at the follicular ostium
C. Bockhart’s impetigo is an example of superficial folliculitis
D. Sycosis barbae is another example of superficial folliculitis

A

D

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36
Q

Which statement is NOT true?
A. Furuncles are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Furuncles tend to occur in hair-bearing areas that are subject to friction, occlusion and perspriration.
C. One can develop a furuncle on the palmar aspect of the hand.
D. Furuncles are tender

A

C

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37
Q

Carbuncles or furuncles on the nose or upper lip are “special”
A. Because they would interfere with the feeding of the patient
B. Because manipulation of such lesions may facilitate spread of infection via blood stream possibly to the cavernous sinus
C. Because they rarely affect these areas
D. They are NOT special.

A

C

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38
Q

Which statement is NOT true about erythrasma?
A. It is caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum.
B. The lesions appear as reddish-brown, well-demarcated, irregularly shaped patches.
C. Common sites include the axillae and the groin.
D. Wood’s lamp examination would reveal a greenish fluorescence

A

D

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39
Q

Which statement is NOT true about scabies?
A. It is caused by Sarcoptei scabei
B. The wrist, interdigital areas, scrotum and penis are sites of predilection
C. Pruritus particularly at night is a prominent complaint.
D. The mite cannot survive outside the body of the host.

A

D

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40
Q

The following are true about treatment of scabies EXCEPT:
A. Permethrin cream and Lindane lotion are examples of scabicides
B. Neurotoxicity is a concern with the use of Lindane.
C. Ivermectin is an oral preparation that can be used in treating scabies
D. Sulfur lotion needs to be applied for seven consecutive nights

A

D

41
Q

Other important measures that should be done in the treatment of scabies include:
A. Clothes, towels, beddings should be washed and dried at high heat when treatment is administered.
B. Other members of the household/close personal contacts of the patient should be treated as well.
C. Treatment may need to be repeated (for some agents) after a few days.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

D

42
Q

Which statement is NOT true about pediculosis capitis?
A. It is caused by the louse Pediculus humanus var capitis
B. It is also called vagabond’s disease
C. Patients usually present with intense pruritus of the scalp, often with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
D. Children are usually affected

A

B

43
Q

Which statement is FALSE about pediculosis corporis?
A. Pediculus humanus var corporis
B. In contrast to scabies, hands and feet are usually spared in pediculosis corporis
C. The body lice lay their eggs in the seams of clothing
D. NOTA

A

D

44
Q

Which statement is FALSE about pediculosis pubis ore crab louse infestation?
A. It is caused by Phthyrus pubis.
B. The crab louse affects the pubic area only.
C. Fomite transmission is possible.
D. Maculae cerulae are bluish gray macules that are sometimes seen in men with pediculosis pubis

A

B

45
Q

Which statement is TRUE about ecthyma gangrenosum?
A. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus
B. It usually involves the anogenital region or the axilla
C. It always occurs in the setting of Pseudomonas bacteremia
D. Cloxacillin and Cephalexin are the antibiotics of choice in the treatment of this condition

A

B

46
Q 
Mang Juan, a 75-year old male, consulted the clinic because of a rough, black nodule “stuck-on” his lower back for almost 5 years. He would try reaching for the lesion, carefully scraping the surface with his finglernails, but only able to succeed superficially in some portions. Nodule is now growing in size. Mang Juan probably has:
A.	Melanoma
B.	Squamous cell carcinoma
C.	Seborrheic keratosis
D.	Dermatofibroma
A

C

47
Q 
Tess stayed up all night reviewing for an exam in her groupmate’s dormitory. In the PM of the next day, she noticed several itchy papules noted on the extensors of her arms, around her legs and feet. Some lesions have wheals and some have ‘halos’. You would think these are:
A.	Flea bites
B.	Mosquito bites
C.	Scabies
D.	Arthropod bites
A

B

48
Q 
Aling Pat, our manicurist, daily travels from her home in Pasig to PGH to do ‘nail service’ to residents and interns of PGH. Two months ago, she noticed itchy, erythematous to lichenified plaques on the extensor surfaces of both her arms. She could only recall application of a new St. Yves lotion given to her by her ‘balikbayan’ niece, which she applied on arms, legs and body. Your initial impression is:
A.	Contact dermatitis
B.	Photocontact dermatitis
C.	Phototoxic reaction
D.	Irritant type of Contact dermatitis
A

A

49
Q

BJ and friends decided to go to a nearby ‘pub’ after their medical board exams. They took their dinner prior to ordering beer ad side dishes of calamares, crispy squid and shrimps. The next day, BJ noticed multiple warm transient wheals and hives appearing on his face, body, and becoming generalized. He is developing:
A. Hypersensitivity reactions to insect bites
B. Acute urticaria
C. Contact urticaria
D. Airborne allergy to molds/bites

A

D

50
Q 
Mrs. Santos, a 54-year old social worker doing community fieldwork, consulted the clinic for multiple rough dry reddish-brown plaques noted on her nose, front of left ear, upper back and upper arms. Lesions are non-pruritic. On close PE of her plaques, noted are adherent scales with central atrophy. What would be your initial impression?
A.	Hansen’s disease
B.	Phtosensitivity reactions
C.	Contact dermatitis
D.	Discoid lupus erythematosus
A

A

51
Q 
Jane, a community co-worker of the previous patient, developed reddish-brown smooth dry plaques and nodules, noted on the bilateral lobes of her ears, side of the left face, infiltrated, non-pruritic, ‘feels thickened’. For months, she had not been bothered by them except that at present, the lesions are becoming more conspicuous. Your initial impression would be:
A.	Hansen’s disease
B.	Photosensitivity reaction
C.	Lupus erythematosus
D.	Contact dermatitis
A

A

52
Q 
Anna, an LU4 medical student, just completed her community rotation. She was assigned to make a community and physical diagnosis of a group of families staying in the shanties near the railway. There were stray dogs and cats loitering the area. She noticed the appearance of pruritic papules on her wrists, finger webs, buttocks and thighs during the last week of her rotation. She can not sleep at night because of the itchiness. Your initial impression is:
A.	Scabies
B.	Arthropod bite reactions
C.	Dyshidrotic eczemas
D.	Insect bites
A

A

53
Q

Dr. Capito, an OB-GYN consultant, referred her 35-year old patient confined for ovarian newgrowth because of skin problems and inability to ‘lift her arm to comb her hair’. On PE, blood chemistries and muscle enzyme studies were requested. You would search for the following skin concerns:
A. Scaly plaques on scalp areas
B. Purplish hue of eyelids
C. Vasculitic lesions on the legs
D. Erythematous multiple discrete papules on the elbows

A

B

54
Q 
Last weekend, Cheska was brought to the clinic for multiple pearly papules and nodules noted by her mom since 2 months ago. Lesions were distributed on her forehead, face, and chest. On close examination, some nodules were umblicated, some were excoriated. The lesions were:
A.	Multiple milia
B.	Molluscum contagiosum
C.	Verruca Plana
D.	Close comedones
A

B

55
Q 
Lucy, a 6-year old kid, was brought to the clinic because of “impetigo”. Her lesions were wet, covered with honey-colored crust, located beneath her nasal area. Her doctor advised topical corticosteroid which was applied on the area for 2 weeks. Lesions were initially suppressed but later progressed to involve upper and lower eyelids. Lesions worsened because “impetigo” is caused by:
A.	Parasites
B.	Viruses
C.	Bacteria
D.	Fungi
A

C

56
Q 
Besides the skin, itch can also be evoked from the following areas:
A.	Hair
B.	Adipose tissue
C.	Cornea
D.	Nails
A

C

57
Q 
Itch cannot be produced from the following skin disease:
A.	Psoriasis
B.	Pityriasis versicolor
C.	Leprosy
D.	Acne
A

C

58
Q 
Anxious and depressed individuals manifest their condition with complaints of pruritus usually located in which areas of the body?
A.	Nose and lips
B.	Palm and soles
C.	Throat
D.	Anogenital
A

D

59
Q 
If one is under stress as manifested by his sweaty hands and feet, tell him to rest and sleep because of the following fact while asleep:
A.	emotional sweating ceases
B.	thermal sweating ceases
C.	metabolism slows down
D.	problems are forgotten
A

A

60
Q 
A 16-year old highschool senior was brought to the ER because of breathing difficulty and appearance of multiple wheals and hives on face and body. These occurred less than an hour after scouting activities in Mt. Makiling. Of the various mechanism causing urticaria, you would think this is:
A.	Immune complex induced
B.	Ig-E dependent
C.	Non-immunological
D.	Immunoglobulin/complement deposition
A

B

61
Q

[T/F] Compounds that remain on the skin for longer periods of time undergo significantly more metabolism.

A

T

62
Q

[T/F] There are no significant regional variations in the various barrier properties of the skin.

A

F

63
Q

[T/F] Massaging topically applied formulations into the skin will hasten its absorption.

A

T

64
Q

[T/F] Sweat glands serve as efficient reservoir which results in increased absorption of topically applied substances.

A

F

65
Q

[T/F] Accelerating the division of keratinocytes in the underlying layer of the skin will lead to disruption of the barrier.

A

T

66
Q

[T/F] Transepidermal water loss barrier activity varies according to gender, ethnicity and age

A

F

67
Q

[T/F] For skin concerns which are thick, dry and rough, the best vehicle preparation to use are ointments of topical drugs.

A

T

68
Q

[T/F] An elevation in ambient temperature during strenuous exercise will cause and increase in resorption of topical drugs.

A

T

69
Q

[T/F] Further damage on skin may occur even after a topical drug has been discontinued.

A

T

70
Q

[T/F] To produce and irritant type of reaction, percutaneous penetration of the drug must be at the level of interaction with immune effector cells.

A

T

71
Q

Premenstrual acne is characterized by:
A. Lesions developing 2 weeks before the first day ofmenses
B. Spontaneous resolution in most cases
C. More common occurrence in patients with irregular menstrual cycles
D. Purely comedonal lesions

A

B

72
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the pathogenesis of acne?
A. Adaptive but not innate immunity plays a role
B. Neutrophil chemotaxis is brought about by IL-8 secretion by keratinocytes
C. Eosinophils are early infiltrates perifollicularly
D. Without P.acnes, inflammation can still occur

A

B

73
Q

In which group of acne patients should hyperandrogenic disease states be highly suspected?
A. Males between 20-30 years old
B. Infants 8 months to 1.5 years old
C. Female teenagers with partial response to oral antibiotics
D. Teenagers with acne lesions on the chest and back but not on the face

A

B

74
Q 
What percentage of newborns may suffer from neonatal acne?
A.	5%
B.	10%
C.	15%
D.	20%
A

D

75
Q

Which of the following sets of drugs may induce acneiform eruptions?
A. Iodides, Vitamin K, Streptomycin
B. Diazepam, Penicillin, Aspirin
C. Corticosteroids, Isoniazid, Phenytoin
D. High doses of Vitamin B5, Rifampicin, Mefenamic acid

A

C

76
Q 
Which of the following drugs may cause acneiform eruptions?
A.	Paracetamol
B.	Amoxicillin
C.	Phenytoin
D.	Mefenamic acid
A

C

77
Q 
Which among the following is a feature which differentiates acneiform eruption from acne vulgaris?
A.	More frequent facial involvement
B.	Absence of comedones
C.	Absence of pustules
D.	More common in females
A

B

78
Q 
The most common acne lesion appearing at adrenarche/menarche is:
A.	Comedone
B.	Papule
C.	Pustule
D.	Cyst
A

A

79
Q 
Abnormal keratinization in acne:
A.	Occurs in the deepest segment of the follicular duct
B.	Is not always present
C.	Is an effect of androgens
D.	Directly perpetuates inflammation
A

C

80
Q 
Which cytokine is known to promote follicular hyperkeratinization?
A.	IL-1
B.	IL-8
C.	IL-10
D.	TNF-a
A

A

81
Q

An infant is born with a generalized, glistening, taut, yellowish film. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding this condition?
A. There is increased water loss
B. There is frequent hyponatremia
C. Hypothermia may quickly develop
D. Infected erosions and fissures will increase risk for bacterial sepsis

A

B

82
Q 
Which is characteristic of lesions of impetigo contagiosa?
A.	honeycomb crusting 
B.	formation of pustules
C.	painful blisters
D.	vesicles in a dermatomal distribution
A

A

83
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of atopic dermatitis in children around 7 years of age?
A. involvement of the face
B. involvement of the limb folds and hands
C. involvement of the wrist and ankles
D. involvement of the buttocks

A

D

84
Q

A 2-month old boy presented with a rapidly growing bright red mass on the right forearm. What should you advise the parent?
A. Your child has a hemangioma and this will need regular follow-up
B. Your child has a hemangioma and the lesion should completely resolve
C. Your child has a vascular malformation and this will require surgical intervention
D. A and B only

A

D

85
Q 
What is the most common cause of napkin dermatitis?
A.	Irritant contact napkin dermatitis
B.	Allergic contact napkin dermatitis
C.	Bullous impetigo
D.	Seborrheic dermatitis
A

A

86
Q 
An infant presented with and erythematous patch on the right half of the body. What do you think the infant has?
A.	Miliaria rubra
B.	Lymphatic malformation
C.	Harlequin color change
D. 	AOTA
A

C

87
Q 
A 1-week old adorable baby girl presented with multiple erythematous papules with a “flea-bite” appearance over her trunk. What do you expect to see on biopsy?
A.	Neutrophils
B.	Eosinophils
C.	Macrophages
D.	Mixed infiltrate
A

B

88
Q 
From case #87, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A.	Transient neonatal pustular melanosis
B.	Miliaria
C.	Erythema toxicum neonatorum
D.	Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis
A

C

89
Q 
The following are included in the simplest criteria for diagnosis atopic dermatitis, except:
A.	Dryness of the skin
B.	Pruritus
C.	Eczematous rashes
D.	Co-existing bronchial asthma
A

D

90
Q

A 3-month old baby girl presented with a diaper rash. In your examination, you noted the presence of blisters and yellow crusting. What would you advise the mother?
A. Rash is due to diaper allergy
B. Rash has no consequence on the child’s health
C. Change diaper more frequently
D. Prompt antibiotic therapy is necessary

A

C or D

91
Q

Cytokines play a very important role in wound healing. They are characterized by one of the following:
A. They are proteoglycans that mediate cellular function by binding receptors on cell membranes
B. The most critical among them as a stimulant of wound healing is platelet-derived growth factor
C. These proteins allow various processes in healing to occur at predictable time points
D. Each of them has a distinct function in the processes of wound healing

A

C

92
Q

The following is TRUE of the 4 phases of wound healing
A. The LATE PHASE is characterized by mesenchymal cell proliferation and collagen synthesis
B. In the EARLY PHASE, synthesis of matrix proteins occurs at a much more rapid rate
C. In the INTERMEDIATE PHASE, wound remodeling occurs because of the influx of neutrophils
D. The FINAL PHASE is characterized by decreased wound cellularity due to apoptosis of endothelial cells

A

D

93
Q 
The most important component of the cellular immune system in the processes of wound healing is the:
A.	Neutrophil
B.	Lymphocyte
C.	Monocyte
D.	Eosinophil
A

C

94
Q 
Angiogenesis, an important part of wound healing is stimulated by which of the following:
A.	Low lactate levels
B.	Acidic pH
C.	Increased oxygen tension
D.	Vitamin C
A

B

95
Q 
In the INTERMEDIATE PHASE of wound healing, the most important mesenchymal cell is the:
A.	Macrophage
B.	Fibroblast
C.	Stem cell
D.	Basal cell
A

B

96
Q

The following is true of the process of EPITHELIALIZATION:
A. It is a major contributor in the healing of incisional wounds
B. It plays a bigger role in partial thickness injuries such as burn
C. Epithelial cells are secreted by fibroblasts
D. Sebaceous glands are found not to play a role in this process

A

B

97
Q

Compound to normal epithelium, regenerated epithelium
A. Has a greater number of basal cells
B. Has a normal interface with the dermis
C. Has an increased number of rete pegs
D. Is thicker at the wound edge than in the midportion of re-epithelialized area

A

D

98
Q 
The following exerts a positive/favorable effect on wound healing
A.	Systemic corticosteroids
B.	Infection
C.	Nicotine in cigarette smoking
D.	A well-hydrated wound environment
A

D

99
Q 
The following exerts a negative/unfavorable effect on wound healing:
	A.	Vitamin A
	B.	Hydration
	C.	Vitamin E
	D.	Nitric Oxide
A

C

[OS 212] Dermatology (7 decks)

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