Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[OS 212] Dermatology > 2014 A > Flashcards

2014 A Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q 
Irene complained of flu-like symptoms 3 days prior to appearance of an erythematous patch on her left pectoral area. The next day, 4-5 tiny vesicles appeared on the site with subsequent appearance of other grouped vesicles. Lesion rotated to the left upper back area. Lesions were slightly pruritic but more painful especially when touched. What is your primary impression of this case?
A.	Herpes Simples lateralis
B.	Herpes Zoster pectoralis
C.	Dermatitis herpetiformis
D.	Impetigo Bullosa
E.	Varicella
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
Jess consulted the clinic because of multiple urticarial wheals which appeared the next day after their “batch outing”. You would think this is acute urticaria because it has the following characteristic of the lesions:
A.	Erythematous
B.	Map-like
C.	Infiltrates
D.	Transient
E.	Pruritic
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
“Bloody Mary” was a cook in one of the provincial pub. She was of huge muscular built. Erythematous pruritic patches would develop beneath her big breasts every time she cooked in her hot humid kitchen. The patches would improve when she stayed in cooler places. What would be your initial impression?
A.	Moniliasis
B.	Contact Dermatitis
C.	 Intertrigo
D.	Tinea corporis
E.	Pressure urticaria
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Ester brought her 4 year-old grandchild to the clinic because of hyperpigmented patches appearing on her shoulder areas. Lesions were not pruritic and had been there for 2 months.
A.	Pityriasis versicolor
B.	Pytiriasis alba
C.	Hansen’s indeterminate
D.	Pityriasis rosea
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
12 year old Cherry was brought by her Mom to the clinic because of 2 growing smooth shiny nodules on her left cheek. On close examination, one of the nodules seemed to have a central umbilication. Similar papules/nodules were also distributed on her body and right upper arm areas. What would be your initial impression?
A.	Milia
B.	Close comedone
C.	Juvenile warts
D.	Molluscum contagiosum
E.	Dermatofibroma
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Ted kept scratching his inguinal areas. When he examined these areas, he saw erythematous plaques growing on both sides. The plaque had distinct advancing borders with fine scaling and central clearing. What would be your initial imprerssion?
A.	Intertrigo
B.	Moniliasis
C.	Tinea Cruris
D.	Erythema
E.	LSC?
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Mr. Santos was brought to the Emergency Room because of high fever and generalized edema and tender skin. His Nicolsky sign was positive. His conjunctiva and buccal mucosa were also eroded. He had been taking Allopurinol for a week before the appearance of skin problems because of his high uric acid. What would be your initial impression?
A.	Erythema multiforme
B.	Steven’s Johnson Syndrome
C.	Transepidermal necrolysis
D.	Drug hypersensitivity reaction
E.	Suppurative erythroderma
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
60-year old Mrs. Cruz had been bedridden for 4-5 years because of a ‘CVA’ stroke. Despite the frequent ‘turning to the sides’ by the care takers and supported by her pillows, she developed an erythematous ‘ulcer’ on her mid-sacral area. What type of ulcer did she have?
A.	Tropic ulcer
B.	Diabetic ulcer
C.	Stasis ulcer
D.	Decubitus ulcer
E.	Venous ulcer
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dr. Capito, an OB-Gyne consultant, referred her 35 year old patient confined for ovarian new growth because of skin problems and inability to ‘lift her right arm to comb her hair’. Gottron’s papules were also observed. On PE, blood chemistries and muscle enzyme studies were requested. You would search for the following skin concerns:
A. Scaly plaques on scalp areas
B. Purplish hue of eyelids
C. Vasculitic lesions on the legs
D. Erythematous multiple discrete papules on the elbows

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

18 year old Jane presenting with falling hair and malar rash 2 months PTC. Her doctor diagnosed her with lupus erythematosus. Skin biopsy showed non-specific results. What other tests should be requested?
A. CBC
B. Thyroid function test
C. ANA (antinuclear antibody) determination
D. Urine albumin
E. Muscle enzyme test

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
For almost a month now, Mrs. Tan, an 87 years old housewife, had been developing tense bullous lesions and hemorrhagic blisters distributed on her upper and lower extremities. Lesions were also pruritic. Her routine labs were all normal. What is your initial impression?
A.	Bullous pemphigus
B.	Insect bite hypersensitivity
C.	Dermatitis herpetiformis
D.	Bullous lupus erythematosus
E.	Pemphigus vulgaris
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
The Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is indicative of pathology in which organ?
A.	Liver
B.	Colon
C.	Heart
D.	Thyroid
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Mrs. Jones, a 45 y.o. female, complained of itching in the anogenital area and generalized pruritus. However all her lab results were normal and your PE showed no abnormal findings. What will you diagnose her with?
A.	Psychological
B.	Sexual
C.	Malignant
D.	Malingering
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
In dermatological cases, the pattern of distribution or predilection sites give clues on diagnosis. Of the following dermatoses, which of the following DO NOT exhibit this?
A.	Psoriasis
B.	Photocontact dermatitis
C.	Scabies
D.	Urticaria
E.	Seborrheic dermatitis
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Dr. Reyes has rough, black nodule with well defined borders on his right gluteal area, it is asymptomatic with a stuck on appearance. He wants to have it removed since it easily gets injured when he sits on it. What does Dr. Reyes have?
A.	Melanoma
B.	Seborrheic Keratosis
C.	Dermatofibrosis
D.	Squamous cell carcinoma
E.	Basal cell carcinoma
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which of the following can increase skin penetration to topical drugs?
A.	Moist skin
B.	Abraded skin
C.	Intact stratum corneum
D.	Dry skin
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Which of the following has the least skin penetration 
A.	Upper arms and thigh
B.	Lower arms and legs
C.	Dorsa of the hands and feet
D.	Chest and back
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
What are the characteristics of an ideal vehicle of a drug?
A.	Affordable
B.	Convenient to use
C.	Pleasant smell
D.	Smooth texture
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
A 5 y.o. boy has weeping crusted plaques on his face. The appropriate topical treatment is in the form of a:
A.	Cream
B.	Ointment
C.	Compress
D.	Powder
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
A 2-month old baby has a diaper rash. Which topical treatment is most suited for this problem? 
A.	Antibiotic treatment
B.	Zinc oxide ointment + powder
C.	Burrow's solution compress
D.	Zinc oxide gel
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
After a long bike trip in Tagaytay, you developed painful red patches on your inner thighs. What is the appropriate topical remedy?
A.	Cold compress
B.	Hot compress
C.	Zinc oxide powder
D.	Salt solution
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
A classmate complains of sweaty palms. You will recommend the topical therapy:
A.	Antibacterial gel
B.	Talc powder
C.	HCl solution
D.	Cream
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
A 65 y.o. male developed pressure ulcers over the sacral area. Ulcer has pink granulation tissue with no exudates. What will you recommend for better wound healing?
A.	Antibiotic ointment
B.	Saline compress
C.	Shake solution
D.	Antibiotic cream
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
30 y.o female with chronic plaque psoriasis, applying potent topical steroid for the past year. What will be the possible side effect of steroid?
A.	Pruritus
B.	Stinging
C.	Striae
D.	Allergy
A

D (Not Sure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
A patient with solitary hyposthetic and hypopigmented patch on the face was diagnosed with Hansen’s disease. The lepromin test and acid fast bacilli is expected to be:
A.	Lepromin (-), AFB (+)
B.	Lepromin (+), AFB (-)
C.	Lepromin (-), AFB (-)
D.	Lepromin (+), AFB (+)
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

56 y.o man developed a red indurated plaque with 50% loss of sensation on pin prick. What is true?
A. Histopathology of the lesion shows well defined granuloma with Langerhan’s giant cell
B. Patient has cell mediated anergy resulting to the development of the lesion
C. Patient is highly infectious and needs to be isolated
D. Sensory deficit is due to nerve damage by the bacilli

A

NA [Bonus daw]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Both cutaneous TB and leprosy show tuberculoid granuloma. What is pathognomonic for leprosy?
A. Epitheloid histiocytes and caseous necrosis
B. Acid fast bacilli in biopsy of skin lesion
C. Granulomatous infection within the nerve
D. Foamy macrophages within the granuloma

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Definite diagnosis of leprosy
A.	Lepromin test should be positive
B.	Cutaneous lesions present
C.	Perineural infiltrates on biopsy
D.	Acid fast bacillus in Fite Faraco Stain
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cell-mediated immunity in a lepromatous patient is manifested by:
A. 6mm induration on lerpromatin
B. > 10 acid fast bacilli per 100 oil immersion field
C. granulomatous infiltrates with langhan’s giant cells
D. hyposthesia or anesthesia noted early on

A

C (Not sure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Premenstrual acne is characterized by:
A. Spontaneous resolution in most cases
B. More common occurrences in patients with irregular menstrual cycles
C. Purely comedonal lesions
D. Indication that acne will be more aggressive

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True about pathogenesis of acne:
A. Hyperproliferation of keratinocytes is secondary to P. acnes
B. DHT promotes both seborrhea and keratinocyte hyperproliferation
C. Adaptive but not innate immunity plays a role
D. There is early perifollicular infiltration of eosinophils

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hyperandrogenic disease states should be highly suspected in this group of acne patients
A. Female teenagers with partial response to topical antibiotics
B. Teenagers with cystic acne lesions on the chest and back but not on the face
C. Males aged 25-30 years with comedonal acne
D. Infants 6 months to 2 years old

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
Neonatal acne may be seen in what percentage of newborns?
A.	7%
B.	15%
C.	20%
D.	30%
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following sets of drugs may induce acneiform eruptions?
A. Iodides, Rifampicin, Aspirin
B. Diazepam, Vitamin K, and Penicillin
C. Corticosteroids, Isoniazid, Phenytoin
D. High doses of Vitamin B5, Streptomycin, Mefenamic Acid

A

C

35
Q

In contrast to acne vulgaris, acneiform eruption is characterized by these features:
A. More common in females
B. Absence of pustules
C. Absence of comedones
D. Highly inflammatory facial polymorphic lesions

A

NA

36
Q 
What is the most common lesion of acne in adrenarche?
A.	Comedone
B.	Pustule
C.	Papule
D.	Cyst
A

A

37
Q

Which of the following cytokines promote follicular hyperkeratinization?

a. IL-1
b. IL-10
c. IL-17
d. TNF-α

A

A

38
Q 
Abnormal keratinization in acne:
A.	It is not always present
B.	Occurs in the deepest segment of the follicular duct
C.	Directly produces inflammation
D.	Is an effect of androgen
A

D

39
Q 
Abnormal follicular keratinization is caused by lack of:
A. Methionine
B. Cysteine
C. Linolenic acid
D. Linoleic acid
A

D

40
Q 
Which of the following drugs may cause acneiform erruptions? 
A. Paracetamol 
B. Amoxicillin 
C. Phenytoin 
D. Mefenamic acid
A

C

41
Q 
Indication of severe acne
A. Premenstrual acne flare
B. Comedones on the trunk
C. History of infantile or neonatal acne
D. Nodulocystic lesions
A

D

42
Q 
Sign used to diagnose psoriasis
A. Apple Jelly Sign
B. Desier Sign
C. Koebner Sign
D. Auspitz Sign
A

D

43
Q 
The possibility that a person will develop psoriasis when both parents are affected
A. 8%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 60%
A

C

44
Q 
Where are neutrophils located in spongiform pustules?
A. stratum corneum
B. stratum spinosum
C. reticular dermis
D. papillary dermis
A

B

45
Q 
A 30-year old patient recently diagnosed with psoriasis. When will the psoriatic arthritis occur?
A. 10 years before appearance of lesion
B. same time as the lesion
C. 10 years after appearance of lesion
D. 20 years after appearance of lesion
A

C

46
Q 
Which of the following binds to CD11, thus preventing psoriasis?
A. Alefacept
B. Efalizumab
C. Etanercept
D. Infliximab
A

B

47
Q 
Which of the following medications blocks dihydrofolate reductase?
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclosporine
C. Retinoids
D. Hydroxyurea
A

B

48
Q 
19 y.o. presented with psoriatic lesions and fever, history of sore throat 2 weeks prior to consult.
A. Guttate
B. Von Zumbusch
C. Barber
D. Acrodermatitis continua
A

A

49
Q

Case summary: chief complaint-itchiness on the area with plucked hair on the head, presented with round scaly 2x3cm plaques which the patient noticed several days after he wore a borrowed cap from his team mate. What would be the best laboratory diagnostic for this case?
A. Gram stain
B. Giemsa stain
C. KOH stain

A

A

50
Q 
The lab results show branching structures. This indicates:
A. Alopecia areata
B. Tinea capitis
C. Scalp psoriasis
D. Nummular eczema
A

B

51
Q

Which of the following will be used as treatment regimen?
A. Ketoconazole cream, Terbinafine tablet, Itraconazole capsule
B. Terbinafine tablet, Fluconazole tablet
C. Ketoconazole cream
D. Zinc pyrithione shampoo, Ketoconazole cream, Terbinafine tablet

A

NA

52
Q 
Most potent antifungal agent against dermatophyte infections:
A. Azoles
B. Allylamines
C. Griseofulvin
D. Flucytosine
A

B

53
Q 
How many vesicles should be in his thigh before disseminated form is entertained? 
A.	20
B.	39
C.	10
D.	40
A

A

54
Q 
At 25th week AOG, mother was diagnosed with Herpes simplex. What can you advise her?
A.	Vaginal delivery
B.	Forceps delivery
C.	Therapeutic abortion
D.	Caesarean section
A

A

55
Q 
A pregnant woman in labor had vesicular lesions on vulva 6 days before delivery what can you advise her?
A.	Vaginal delivery
B.	Forceps delivery
C.	Therapeutic abortion
D.	Caesarian section
A

D

56
Q 
Arnold 25 y/o medical student developed papulovesicular and crusted lesions that were generalized starting from the head and trunk and accompanied by fever.
A.	Rubeola
B.	Rubella
C.	Varicella
D.	Variola
E.	Viral influenza
A

C

57
Q 
He continued to have cough and rashes for over 2 weeks. The most likely complication is:
A.	Sepsis syndrome
B.	Pneumonia
C.	Progressive varicella
D.	Secondary bacterial infection
E.	Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
A

B

58
Q 
A week old female infant presented with multiple erythematous papules with multiple erythematous papules with a “flea-bite” appearance over the trunk. What do you expect in biopsy?
A.	Neutrophils
B.	Eosinophils
C.	Macrophage
D.	Mixed infiltrate
A

B

59
Q 
From the above, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A.	Transient neonatal pustular necrosis
B.	Miliaria
C.	Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis
D.	Erythema toxicum neonatorum
A

D

60
Q 
An infant presents with papulosquamous lesions and desquamation. What is the condition?
A.	Syphilis
B.	Eczema
C.	Exfoliative dermatitis
D.	Ecthyma
A

A

61
Q 
An infant presented with an erythematous patch on the right half of the body. What do you think the infant has?
A.	Harlequin color change
B.	Lymphatic malformation
C.	Miliaria rubra
D.	All of the above
A

A

62
Q 
A well looking baby boy developed a firm violet nodule in the buttock. You test for:
A.	Hypernatremia
B.	Hypercalcemia
C.	Hypocalcemia
D.	Hyponatremia
A

C

63
Q 
Which of the following is the characteristic lesion of impetigo contagiosa?
A.	Dermatomal distribution
B.	Painful blisters
C.	Formation of papules
D.	Honey colored crusts
A

D

64
Q 
A 5-year old consulted with his mom to the OPD because of honey colored crusted plaques noted on her scalp, beneath nasal areas, and right lower eyelid. The mom claims that the child has been scratching the lesions, thus spreading to the face, and became wet and infected. What would your primary impression be?
A.	Contact dermatitis
B.	Atopic eczema
C.	Multiple folliculitis
D.	Impetigo contagiosa
A

D

65
Q 
Acute atopic dermatitis has this type of T-cell:
A.	Th1
B.	Th2
C.	Th3
D.	A and B
A

B

66
Q 
What is the most common cause of napkin dermatitis?
A.	Bullousa impetigo
B.	Allergic contact napkin dermatitis
C.	Irritant contact napkin dermatitis
D.	Seborrheic dermatitis
A

C

67
Q 
The following is the simplest criteria for diagnosis of atopic dermatitis, except
A.	Concurrent bronchial asthma
B.	Pruritus
C.	Eczematous lesions
D.	Dryness
A

A

68
Q

The following is/are true of impetigo except
A. Can be caused by either Staphylococcus or Streptococcus
B. Lesions commonly arise on skin or face or extremities
C. Lesion is a transient vesicle that eventually develops into a plaque with honey colored crust
D. The bullous type is more common than the non-bullous form

A

D

69
Q

Which of the following statements below about bullous impetigo is true?
A. Caused by Streptococcus
B. With blisters that are due to a toxin called exfoliatin
C. Split is below the epidermis
D. Treatment is with systemic antibiotics

A

B

70
Q

The following is/are true of superficial folliculitis except
A. Bockhart’s impetigo is an example
B. It starts as a small fragile papule at the infundibulum/opening of the hair follicle
C. They are often seen in the scalp of children or beard area, axillae, and buttocks of adults
D. Heals with prominent scarring

A

D

71
Q

Which of the following is true regarding deep folliculitis?
A. It does not scar
B. Exemplified by Bockhart’s impetigo
C. Treated with warm compress and local antibiotics
D. Cannot be clinically differentiated from dermatophytic folliculitis

A

D

72
Q

The following are true about furuncles except
A. Usually occurs in hair bearing areas subjected to friction
B. It starts out as a folliculocentric nodule
C. Occasionally, furuncles may develop on the palms and soles
D. After the lesion ruptures and discharges pus, pain and swelling gradually subside

A

C

73
Q

The following is/are true of Pediculosis pubis, except:
A. The etiologic agent is Phthirus pubis
B. The lice can live outside the body for up to 10 days without feeding
C. It can also affect the eyelashes
D. It can be transmitted through sexual contact

A

B

74
Q 
During the late phase of wound healing, the following processes take place, EXCEPT:
A. Collagen synthesis
B. Wound contraction
C. Wound remodeling
D. Synthesis of matrix proteins
A

C

75
Q

Which of the following statements is true of neutrophils:
A. It does not appear to have a role in the subsequent events of healing in an uncomplicated wound.
B. Its major function is as an immunoreactant.
C. It releases the neutrophil activating protein.
D. It secretes collagenases and elastases

A

A

76
Q 
The most important inflammatory cell in normal wound healing is:
A. Eosinophil
B. Monocyte
C. Lymphocyte
D. Neutrophil
A

B

77
Q 
Angiogenesis is stimulated by the following EXCEPT:
A. High lactate levels
B. High pH
C. Low pH
D. Low oxygen tension
A

B

78
Q

The following statements are true of epithelialization, EXCEPT:
A. The process proceeds sequentially as follows: cellular detachment, migration, proliferation, and differentiation.
B. Regenerated epithelium DOES NOT retain all the functional advantages of normal epithelium.
C. Epithelium becomes thicker at the wound edge, compared to the mid portion of the re-epithelialized area.
D. The most important processes of epithelialization are proliferation, endothelial cell migration, and tube formation.

A

D

79
Q

The following statement is true of collagen synthesis:
A. After 4 weeks, collagen homeostasis occurs.
B. Occurs 2-4 days after wounding
C. Begins 7 days after injury
D. Continues at an accelerated rate for 6 weeks

A

A

80
Q

The following statement is true of wound contraction:
A. Begins approximately 4-5 days after wounding
B. There is centrifugal movement of the wound edge toward the center of the wound.
C. This process lasts 15-18 days.
D. Contraction occurs at a rate of 0.75-0.80 mm/day.

A

A

81
Q

The following processes occur during the maturation phase:
A. Increase of type III collagen
B. Increase of water and glycosaminoglycans in matrix
C. Increase in cellularity of wound
D. Increase in crosslinks between collagen fibers

A

D

82
Q 
Which of the following has a negative effect on wound healing?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
A

C

83
Q 
Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents do not negatively affect wound healing?
A. Thio-TEPA and chloroquine mustard
B. Etoposide and Vinblastine
C. Nitrogen mustard and Thio-TEPA
D. Etoposide and Chloroquine phosphate
A

A

[OS 212] Dermatology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions