20 a Day (3) Flashcards

1
Q

The main reason why rides and forest edges host a variety of rare species is because…

A

They have many different microclimates available due to differing levels of sunlight and shelter.

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2
Q

Why are forest edges so species rich? (3 Points)

Both habitats, specialised, migration

A
  • They contain species from both the forest itself and the adjacent habitat.
  • They’re home to specialised species that like the various different microclimates that edges offer.
  • Many species also use forest edges for migration and dispersal.
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3
Q

Does the UK have a lot of edge habitats? Why?

A

Yes, because it has a long history of deforestation and woodland management. In fact, the UK has some of the most fragmented woodlands in the world.

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4
Q

Woodlands consist of edge habitats and interior habitats. How large does a forest have to be to prevent edge habitats from dominating?

A

At least 5 hectares.

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5
Q

What does the UK have more of: woodland edge habitats or woodland interior habitats?

A

It has considerably more woodland edge habitats because of how fragmented our woodlands are.

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6
Q

What silvicultural management system creates woodland edge habitats?

A

Coppicing!

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7
Q

Traditional management (e.g., coppicing) resulted in unnaturally high populations of what broad group of species?

A

Species adapted to woodland edge habitats.

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8
Q

What’s the main reason as to why coniferous plantations are so species poor?

A

Because the ground within plantations receives such little solar radiation.

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9
Q

What are the most species-rich parts of a coniferous plantation?

A

Edges and rides (because they’re exposed to sunlight, unlike the plantation’s interior).

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10
Q

If coniferous trees are felled within a plantation, will ground flora return?

A

Hopefully. The reason is why is that edges and rides should serve as reservoirs of seeds (these areas are the only areas to receive lots of sunlight).

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11
Q

What sorts of woodland edges contain the most species? (2 Points)

A
  • Edges that are between woodlands and open habitats
  • Edges that are permanent (e.g., not just edges between different successional stages)
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12
Q

What is the most influential environmental gradient? (2 Extra points)

A

Solar radiation
* It has important implications for the development of understorey vegetation
* And for the value of edges and gaps to light or heat demanding species.

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13
Q

Do forest edges have mild or extreme temperatures and humidities?

A

They have extreme temperatures and humidities (higher temperatures and lower humidities compared to the forest interior).

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14
Q

Why do forest edges tend to have more extreme temperatures and humidities?

A

Because wind speeds are lower at the forest edge.

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15
Q

The formation of what two watery things is greater at a forest’s edge?

A
  • Dew
  • Frost
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16
Q

Where is litter decomposition the greatest within a forest: the interior or the edge?

A

The edge.

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17
Q

Why are east-west ride important?

A

Because these rides receive more solar radiation (in terms of the actual duration of exposure to radiation) over a 24 hour period.

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18
Q

What’s an important thing to remember in regards to an east-west ride’s width?

A

It needs to be larger than the heights of the surrounding trees in order fot the ride to obtain the benefit of prolonged solar radiaiton exposure.

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19
Q

When widening an east-west ride, what trees should you remove? Why?

A
  • Those immediately to the north of you.
  • Northern tree removal increases the direct sunlight received by the ride and the south-facing edge (trees to the north of you).
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20
Q

Why might you remove trees on the northern side of an east-west ride (even though the northern edge receives lots of solar radiation)?

A

Because this will greatly increases light penetration into the stand and onto the woodland floor.

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21
Q

Along which rides is tree height usually unimportant? Why?

A

North-south rides. This is because these rides receive most of their solar radiation during midday.

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22
Q

What sort of slopes are usually hotspots for biodiversity? Why?

A

South-facing slopes. This is because they receive greater overall and peak solar radiation than level ground (so they receive more radiation, and the maximum amount they can receive at any given time will be greater).

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23
Q

Along a north-south ride, what side receives more solar radiation: the west side or the east side?

A

The west side (it receives ~2 hours of solar radiation a day, compared to just ~1 hour for east sides). I’m not sure why.

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24
Q

Where would you expect to create a particularly wide ride?

A

On a north-facing slope (these receive less solar radiation than south-facing slopes).

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25
Q

Even though east-west rides receive more hours of solar radiation, why do they have less heating power?

A

Because of lower sun angles (north-south rides receive sunlight during midday).

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26
Q

How can you enhance the value of south-facing slopes for wildlife?

A

Through scarification - this will create basking sites made of bare soils.

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27
Q

Even though tree cover reduces ground temperatures, at least they’re more…

A

Stable!

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28
Q

On north facing slopes, east-west rides only receive solar radiation during the ______________ and the _______________.

A

Early morning and the late afternoon.

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29
Q

How long does it take for a forest edge to become mature?

A

70 years

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30
Q

What shouldn’t the groundflora of a site be representative of?

A

The seedbank - the seeds contained within may be very different from what’s already present.

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31
Q

Give one woodland species that cannot tolerate canopy removal.

A

Dog’s mercury. It cannot tolerate intense sunlight. When it is exposed to the sun, leaf necrosis occurs.

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32
Q

Can bluebells tolerate canopy removal?

A

Yesn’t - they can tolerate exposure to the sky for a while, but not forever.

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33
Q

Give two flowers that show rapid growth rates following the removal of a canopy.

A
  • Ground ivy
  • Violets
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34
Q

What do muntjac deer and roe deer have in common?

A

They tend to focus their feeding activity on trees and herbs, while they avoid grasses altogether.

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35
Q

How many red deer are required in order for them to have a noticable effect on vegetation?

A

4 deer per km2.

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36
Q

At what point will red deer completely halt all natural regeneration?

A

When they occur at densities of 25 individuals per km2 or greater.

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37
Q

Why is aspen a particularly absent tree species in the UK?

A

Because it’s highly palatable to deer.

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38
Q

When deer occur at low densities, what plant species would you expect to suffer?

A

Only the most palatable species - as deer densities increase, less palatable species are targeted.

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39
Q

What’s notable about horse grazing?

A

Horses will consume species that cattle and sheep often ignore, such as thistles.

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40
Q

What problematic species is consumed by deer? Is there any benefit to this?

A
  • Brambles - deer love to eat the leaves.
  • The loss of brambles may create space for less competitive plant species to grow
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41
Q

Why might sycamores become abundant when deer are present (even at low densities)?

A
  • Deer selectively consume oaks because they think they’re yummy
  • Therefore, less palatable sycamores will take over
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42
Q

Why would fencing-in an area cause the amount of brambles inside the area to increase?

A

Because deer can’t consume the bramble leaves, which they find very yummy

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43
Q

Within a forest, where is herbivory the greatest?

A

Within open areas (glades and rides).

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44
Q

What is the most conspicuous (noticable) effect of grazing/browsing? What does this result in a reduction in?

A
  • The reduction in vegetation height or above ground biomass.
  • This results in a reduction of dead biomass.
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45
Q

Why might some rare plants disappear from a forest if grazers are excluded?

A

Grazing animals usually also remove taller or faster growing dominants, giving smaller, slower growing plants an opportunity to reproduce.

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46
Q

Within a woodland, the density of herbivores required to maximise ______________________ is much greater than that for _______________________________.

A

Within a woodland, the density of herbivores required to maximise diversity of ground-layer plants is much greater than that for acceptable tree survival. This means that some trees may need to be lost for ground flora to develop.

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47
Q

Give two diversities that increase within a woodland when light to moderate grazing is allowed.

A
  • Ground flora species diversity
  • Structural diversity of ground vegetation
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48
Q

When it comes to habitat quality, what’s an important quality of a woodland for vertebrates? (Hint: not plant species diversity).

A

Woodland structural diversity.

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49
Q

How can a flower increase its chances of becoming a nice food plant for some very nice larvae?

A

If it’s large and conspicuous among the general vegetation; not hidden and not hard to find.

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50
Q

What sort of trees can increase the foraging activity of bats?

A

Trees that are foodplants of nocturnally active moths.

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51
Q

Give three groups of trees that can increase the foraging activity of bats.

A
  • Birch trees
  • Willow trees
  • Cherry trees

These are all food plants for nocturnal moths!

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52
Q

What group insects respond positively to ride creation? Are there any catches?

A
  • Butterflies
  • But significant changes will only be seen after 3 years
  • Rides may have to be as large as 20m wide
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53
Q

Give one species of butterfly that’s entirely dependent on rides (and roads) (2 Points)

A

The purple emperor
* It breeds on willows that grow in sheltered rides and roadsides
* It depends upon open rides for its courtship and territorial flight

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54
Q

Give one butterfly species that has responded positively to the general reduction in coppicing. Why?

A
  • The white admiral
  • It uses honeysuckle that grows in shaded areas as a larval foodplant
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55
Q

The vast majority of insects prefer sunny rides. Give two insect species that don’t (how much shade do they like exactly?)

A
  • The speckled wood and green-veined white
  • They like 40-90% shade (most species of invertebrate prefer less than 10% shade)
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56
Q

Why might tipped-up root plates of wind-blown trees be useful?

A

Because they can be colonised by bees that usually burrow in the ground.

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57
Q

What’s the minimum width of a scrubby margin along a ride?

A

5m (it needs to be this big in order to benefit biodiversity).

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58
Q

What two other mousey species can field voles outcompete? What can cause them to do this?

A
  • Bank voles
  • Wood mice
  • Field voles will become dominant if grasslands become too vast - maintaining scrub cover will allow all three species to live in harmony
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59
Q

When creating arboreal bridges for dormice, do they need to be really elaborate?

A

No - a single branch that bridges the space between two canopies will do.

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60
Q

Why is a diversity of tree species important for dormice?

A

To provide a continuous sequence of flowers and fruits for dormice between Spring and Autumn.

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61
Q

What two things are required before starting any management that’s intended to bring conservation benefits?

A

Clear goals and objectives must be decided.

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62
Q

Give a diagram that shows how ride crossroads should be managed.

A
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63
Q

The simple reason why we must use native trees is because…

A

…They have co-evolved with our own native wildlife.

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64
Q

By what percentage have our woodlands increased over the past 20 years?

A

1% (the UK’s woodland coverage was 12% 20 years ago, now it’s roiughly 13%).

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65
Q

What percentage of our woodlands are broadleaved? What about coniferous?

A
  • 49% broadleaved
  • 51% confierous
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66
Q

Why do trees enhance crop yields?

A
  • Trees reduce soil erosion
  • They also modify crop microclimates by reducing wind speeds and evapotranspiration losses (improving crop water efficiency)
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67
Q

Most species-rich grasslands are located on marginal agricultural lands. What’s the downside of this?

A

Marginal agricultural lands are often seen as areas that can be planted with trees (remember that all rewilding efforts are practically carried out on marginal lands).

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68
Q

Woodland creation should never require the artificial modification of…

A

…Artificially modifying soil conditions to enable trees, or those of a specific species, to grow.

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69
Q

What are shadow woods? How can they be restored?

A

Remnants of ancient woodlands. They can be restored to their former glory through the use of maps or any other historical evidence.

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70
Q

Where are deer populations especially likely to be a problem?

A

Where large deer populations are supported by cropping systems; for example, over-wintering cereals which provide year-round food.

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71
Q

Give a statistic that shows just how bad herbivore damage is (Hint: a percentage relating to native woodlands).

A

At least 40% of existing native woodlands in Britain are in unfavourable ecological condition due to excessive herbivore damage.

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72
Q

Why should the colonisation of areas by native trees and shrubs be encourgaed (2 Points - both related to adaptation and genetics).

A
  • To promote natural selection and climate change adaptation
  • And to conserve distinctive genetic patterns
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73
Q

In many cases, carbon capture and storage is highly compatible with nature conservation aims. However, it can involve compromises. Give an example.

A

Where regular intervention has been identified as important for the nature conservation value of the site (e.g. retaining early stage woodland for bird species or woodland plants).

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74
Q

Why is natural colonisation of trees and shrubs a critical process during woodland creation? What can be used as an alternative to natural colonisation (3 Points)?

A
  • Because it allows natural selection to build adaptation to site conditions.
  • By creating complex habitat mosaics with trees that are well adapted to site conditions, you can build landscapes that are resilient to current and future stresses.
  • Using locally sourced trees and seeds can be used as a substitute for natural colonisation.
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75
Q

What are the two main ways in which seeds are artifically distributed?

A
  • Sowing into the soil
  • Broadcasting onto the soil’s surface
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76
Q

What’s a downside of broadcasting seeds instead of sowing them into the ground?

A

Seeds are more likely to be eaten

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77
Q

If you’re going to sow tree seeds, when might significant ground preparation be required?

A

If the site is dominated by grasses or bracken to reduce competition during germination and emergence.

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78
Q

If you’re going to plant tree seeds, when might seed predation be a big issue (Hint: not when broadcasting seeds)?

A
  • If the site is located close to dense areas of grass
  • These dense grass areas are likely to be home to many small, seed-eating mammals
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79
Q

Should tree guards be placed firmly into the soil, or left a bit loose?

A

They should be planted firmly into the soil.

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80
Q

Once you’ve placed a tree guard around a sapling, can you just leave it be?

A

Tree guards should be regularly checked during the early years of establishment to ensure that they are correctly staked (upright) and functioning effectively (firmly in contact with the soil and weed-free).

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81
Q

What’s notable about Mallerstang in Cumbria (2 Points)?

A
  • 20% of the area (about 240 hectares) was allowed to be covered in scrub and trees.
  • The scrub now supports black grouseys and short-eared owls.
82
Q

What two trees are characteristic of wet conditions?

A
  • Alder
  • Willows
83
Q

A woodland management scheme should contain regular pulses of… Why?

A
  • Regular pulses of natural regeneration
  • You’ll want to artificially plant some trees if some species become dominant
84
Q

Give two ways of reducing the need to use plastic tree guards.

A
  • By fencing-off areas
  • By planting trees more densely (e.g., through miyawaki planting)
85
Q

What do birch, willow, and hawthorn have in common?

A

They’re pioneer species, meaning they can tolerate direct sunlight.

86
Q

Give two species that indicate nutrient enrichment

A
  • Nettles
  • Goose grass (see below)
87
Q

If a tree species is prone to drought stress, what sort of soil shouldn’t it be planted on?

A

Shallow soils!

88
Q

If you’re going to plant woodlands on a brownfield site, why might you need to do first?

A

De-toxify any contaminated soils.

89
Q

What’s the one thing that many woodland specialist plant species have in common?

A

They’re extremely bad dispersers - it may take them centuries to colonise an area.

90
Q

If you plant a woodland on an ex-arable site, what would you expect the groundflora to be like?

A

It’ll likely be dominated by coarse grasses and agricultural weeds.

91
Q

When would you use the “stale seedbed” technique?

A

When trying to convert an old arable field into a more biodiverse one.

92
Q

What’s the stale seedbed technique?

A

Where weeds are allowed to grow, and are then killed with glyphosate before the desired plant species are sown into the ground.

93
Q

What is the longest amount of time a tree guard can be placed on a sapling for?

A

10 years - once 10 years is up, remove the tree guards (though most guards are removed well before this point).

94
Q

Give two features of brownfield sites that can actually benefit biodiversity.

A
  • Bare ground
  • Old, crumbling walls
95
Q

What is not acceptable as a means to compensate for the loss of irreplacable habitats (e.g., ancient woodlands).

A

Species translocations to other irreplaceable sites - translocations should always be a last resort.

96
Q

If you’re going to use commercially-sourced planting stock, what two things do you need to remember?

A
  • The saplings should be grown within the same seed zone as the planting area…
  • And the same altitude.
97
Q

When using commercially-sourced stock, what sort of certification should saplings have?

A

They should be UK and Ireland Sourced and Grown (UKISG) certified stock.

98
Q

Are woodland birds doing well?

A

No - they’ve declined by 30% since 1970.

99
Q

How can woodlands be categorised based on tree coverage?

A
  • Areas with 80% tree coverage or more can be classed as groves.
  • Areas with 20-79% coverage can be classed as open wooded habitats.
  • Anywhere with 19% or less can be be classed as a glade.
100
Q

What’s the main keystone species within a forest?

A

Mycorrhizal fungi

101
Q

What’s the recommended amount of forest coverage when planning an urban forest?

A

About 30%.

102
Q

How can you enhance the structural variation within a woodland by tree planting?

A

By planting forests with a range of stem densities - the distances between trees should influence stem diameter, which is a measurement of structural variation.

103
Q

Why is sweet chestnut used as a fencing material?

A

Because it resists rot due to its high concentration of tannins.

104
Q

What captures more carbon: a coppice stool or a newly planted tree?

A

Coppiced stools regrow vigorously, taking up far more carbon dioxide than a newly planted tree.

105
Q

How wide and deep should a scallop be?

A

They should be 50m and 15m deep.

106
Q

What sort of severe damage can rabbits do?

A

They can severely reduce the structural diversity of ground vegetation

107
Q

Why is it difficult to determine what course of action is appropriate for herbivore control?

A

Because herbivores deal damage over time, they make it difficult to determine just how severe the issue is initially.

108
Q

Should all herbivores be removed from a woodland?

A

No - the removal of all herbivores will cause rank vegetation growth, reduction of floral diversity and excessive scrub development.

109
Q

In most woodlands, structual and species diversity are increased when _______________ occurs.

A

Light to moderate grazing occurs - don’t exclude all herbivores!

110
Q

When do deer cause damage through herbivory (what time of year?)

A

Trick question - they cause damage all year round.

111
Q

You find a newly planted tree that’s been pulled out of the ground. What might be responsible for this?

A

Fallow deer - they like pulling up things.

112
Q

Will a 1.2m tree guard completely protect a sapling from all herbivores?

A

No - red and sika deer can browse on vegetation that’s up to 1.8m tall.

113
Q

What’s the main sign of deer damage? Why?

A
  • The ends of shoots will be frayed/ragged.
  • Deer are ungulates, like sheep and goats, so they have a palate where their top teeth would be. It basically like a really hard gum.
114
Q

Will dead hedges stop all deer?

A

No - they’re completely ineffective against roe and muntjac deer.

115
Q

In order for a dead hedge to stop deer, what two conditions must be met?

A
  • Deer must occur at sufficiently low densities
  • Alternative browsing sources must be available
116
Q

Specifically, what sort of poison do you need to use to control squirrels?

A

0.02% warfarin.

117
Q

Can you use poisons to control voles during the winter?

A

No - using poisons to kill voles is illegal.

118
Q

What’s the best way to control vole populations?

A

Through good weed control!

119
Q

Is shooting a good way to deal with rabbit populations?

A

No - it’s rarely effective.

120
Q

Is there a chemical repellant that works on squirrels?

A

Yes - it’s called Aaprotect.

121
Q

Should fences be kept as straight as possible? Why?

A

Yes - this is because straight fences require less straining posts (which are more expensive than intermediate posts).

122
Q

Give two examples of softwood.

A
  • Pine wood
  • Cedar wood
123
Q

Why would you want to put a metal plate around the entrance hole of a bird box?

A

To stop woodpeckers and squirrels from breaking in and devouring any bird babies inside.

124
Q

What pH does a pond need in order for smooth newts to breed in it?

A

5.5 (or greater).

125
Q

When scalloping rides, how should individual scallops be arranged?

A

They should be staggered to help promote further habitat diversity.

126
Q

When might a ride become a wind tunnel? How can this be avoided?

A

When it’s completely straight. Creating staggered scallops will help to avoid this.

127
Q

Very broadly, how do you do a deadwood survey (4 Points)?

Transect length, marks, 10m, bunch of details

A
  • Create a 100m transect within a woodland
  • Mark the location of different types of deadwood (e.g., snags, tree stumps etc.) along a map of the transect.
  • Don’t stray more than 10m from the transect.
  • Record a bunch of details regarding each piece of deadwood.
128
Q

When doing a deadwood survey, what pieces of deadwood are you only interested?

A

Large pieces of deadwood (2m+ * 20cm+ pieces)

129
Q

What are the first three things you record when you find a piece of deadwood during a survey?

S or L, L and D, species?

A
  • Is it standing, or lying?
  • What’s its length and diameter?
  • What species of tree did it come from?
130
Q

What are the next two things you want to record when doing a deadwood survey?

(Not standing/lying, dimensions, and species of wood).

A
  • Are there any holes in the deadwood?
  • What other organisms can be found on the surface of the deadwood?
131
Q

What are the last four things you need check when examining a piece of deadwood during a survey?

A
  • How far can a pencil go into the wood?
  • How soft is the deadwood?
  • What animals can you find inside the wood?
  • What colour is the rot?
132
Q

When managing a woodland, do you want all pieces of deadwood to be as rotten as possible?

A

No - it’s best to have a variety of deadwood pieces at different stages of decay.

133
Q

Within a woodland, how many trees do you want along a 100m transect?

A

You want at least two veteran trees along a 100m transect.

134
Q

What percentage of woodland species depend on deadwood for some part of their lifecycle?

A

20%

135
Q

What should you do if there are few snags within a woodland?

A

Build bird and mammal boxes that imitate tree hollows.

136
Q

Should you introduce deadwood into a forest that has come from outside the woods?

A

No - this carries the risk of introducing pests and diseases.

137
Q

How small is a small woodland?

A

Any woodland that’s less than 20 hectares.

138
Q

How much can it cost to dredge a pond? Why?

A

It can cost £10,000. Most of this cost is attributed to transporting the dredged material off-site.

139
Q

What is an arising?

A

An unwanted pile of anything - even pond silt.

140
Q

How long can decomposition take?

A

It depends. It can two years, or as long as 300 years for an oak.

141
Q

A woodland should be 40% deadwood. Who say this?

A

The Forestry Commission

142
Q

During which season is it best to assess the impact of ash dieback?

A

The summer

143
Q

What sorts of trees do birds of prey really like?

A

Snags/dead trees. This is because they serve as great lookout points for finding prey (no leaves in the way!)

144
Q

Ash dieback starts at the ________ and finishes at the __________.

A

It starts at the leaves and finishes at the roots.

145
Q

When cutting down diseased trees, should most of the deadwood be removed?

A

Yes - diseased deadwood can still spread diseases to other trees.

146
Q

When must all diseased wood be removed from a woodland?

A

If it’s a monoculture of a single tree species - any diseases will spread like wildfire.

147
Q

Name the three stages of wood decay

A
  • Colonisation
  • Decomposition
  • Humification
148
Q

If bark is starting to come loose from a tree, what stage of decay is it in?

A

The colonisation phase (the first phase).

149
Q

When a tree starts to decay, what comes first: fungi or insects?

A

Fungi!

150
Q

What is the second phase of wood decomposition (literally called the decomposition phase) characterised by?

A

The death of the cambium (assuming it hasn’t been consumed already).

151
Q

How can you tell if a tree is it the final phase of decomposition (the humification phase)?

A
  • The heartwood is decaying
  • The tree has fallen
  • The wood is being consumed by larger animals (e.g., myriapods and earthworms).
152
Q

When are you most likely to see stag beetles?

A

During warm, sunny, summer evenings.

153
Q

Do stag beetles harm woodlands?

A

No - they do not eat living trees.

154
Q

Why aren’t you likely to find stag beetles on clay soils?

A
  • Stag beetles require rotting wood that’s underground
  • Because clay is impermeable, any wood that gets buried won’t rot very well
155
Q

What percentage of woodland bird nest in tree holes?

A

33.3%

156
Q

What’s an often forgetten health and safety tool that’s used when surveying woodlands?

A

Binoculars - you can survey them from a distance without getting too close (you won’t get bonked on the head by a falling branch).

157
Q

Give one reason why mycorrhizal powder might not work

A

Mycorrhizae are species-specific (certain species can only benefit certain trees).

158
Q

Why are mulches good in regards to ground temperatures?

A

They keep the ground warm during the winter, and they also keep the ground cool during the summer!

159
Q

Give two leaves that acidify soils.

A
  • Oak leaves
  • Beech leaves
160
Q

If you’re going to use leaves as mulch, what do you need to do first?

A

You need to shred them - otherwise, they’ll be blown away!

161
Q

When using shredded leaves as mulch, why shouldn’t you shred them too finely?

A

If you shred them too finely, water won’t be able to penetrate the mulch.

162
Q

You can use bracken leaves as mulch, but what must happen first?

A

You must use them before the leaves form spores.

163
Q

Paper and carboard can be used as mulch. What’s an upside and a downside of paper mulch?

A
  • Earthworms love paper and cardboard!
  • If you apply too much paper and cardboard, then water won’t penetrate!
164
Q

What sort of mulch do you apply as a 1-inch thick layer?

A

Rocks!

165
Q

What sort of mulch can increase the pH of soils (more alkaline).

A

Rocks - they can add alkaline minerals to the soil.

166
Q

On what sort of ride are scallops fantastic?

A

East-west rides.

167
Q

What can be used as a substitute for glades?

A

Scallops!

168
Q

What’s the difference between a track and a ride?

A
  • A track is a simple cut pathway
  • A ride is managed on a layer-by-layer basis
169
Q

How wide should a shaw be?

A

5 to 15m

170
Q

What are drovers’ roads? What was founded on them?

A
  • Drovers’ roads were used by farmers to get from the lowlands to the highlands
  • Pubs were founded on drovers’ roads
171
Q

What law is responsible for risk assessments? What sort of law is it?

A
  • The Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
  • It’s an umbrella act
172
Q

As a chainsaw operator, what is your responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work Act (very simple)?

A

To follow your training!

173
Q

What’s an often forgotten piece of PPE?

A

A first aid kit!

174
Q

What’s more likely to cause kickback: a blunt or a sharp chain?

A

A blunt chain

175
Q

What risk is associated exclusively with electrical chainsaws?

A

You won’t be able to tell if they’re on or not (because they’ll be silent).

176
Q

Do battery-powered chainsaws last as long as petrol-powered ones (before they need recharging).

A

No - petrol chainsaws last much longer before they need refuelling.

177
Q

Why is oil added to petrol when using a chainsaw?

A

To provide necessary lubrication for the internal engine components as the chainsaw operates.

178
Q

Your chainsaw is emitting too many exhausts. What two things could be wrong with it?

A
  • The fuel has far too much oil in it
  • The air filter is blocked and the engine is running rich (not enough air is being mixed with the fuel).
179
Q

Is vibration a serious health issue when using chainsaws?

A

Not really (because you don’t use them very often).

180
Q

Give three ways of reducing vibrations when using a chainsaw

A
  • Proper lubrication
  • Keep chains sharp
  • Make sure that there are no dents on the guide bar
181
Q

How can you reduce harmful fumes when using a chainsaw?

A

By ensuring that you’re using the correct fuel mixture.

182
Q

Why is dry bracken a hazard?

A

Because it can catch fire very easily (e.g., don’t put a hot chainsaw on some).

183
Q

What seemingly useless thing must always be present on a chainsaw?

A

A safety sticker.

184
Q

How should your left wrist be positioned on a chainsaw (2 Points)?

A
  • Make sure your hand is on the centre of the handle
  • Make sure your wrist points upwards so the chainbreak can activate when there’s kickback
185
Q

2 + 4 + 4. Name them all.

A
  • Front of the chainsaw: the sheath and the low speed chain
  • Middle: anti-vibration mechanisms, chainbreak, directional exhaust, chain catcher
  • Back: safety sticker, throttle lock, emergency stop, hand guard
186
Q

All “default chains” are…

A

…Low kickback

187
Q

Cutters on a chain saw should face left, then right, then left, then right so that…

A

…Cuts are straight

188
Q

How wide is a spark plug’s electrode spark gap?

A

Half a milimeter (0.05cm)

189
Q

When checking a chainsaw for damage, all metal bits can suffer from three things. What are they?

A
  • Blueing
  • Cracks
  • Wear
190
Q

What’s the only chainsaw component that requires greasing?

A

The needle bearing (part of the clutch)

191
Q

How can you check if a cord is over-tensioned after maintaining a chainsaw?

A

Wrap the cord around the outer frame of the mechanism. The spinny bit in the middle should be able to turn 1/4.

192
Q

There are two types of chainsaw sprocket. Can they be used with any chain?

A

Yes, as long as the pitch of the chain is correct.

193
Q

Why do cylinder fans have a large surface area (2 Points)?

A
  • So that heat can be dispersed easily
  • So that air can circulate around the fins
194
Q

What shape should a cutter’s depth gauge/raker be?

A

Curved (and not square)

195
Q

How do you check the wear on a chainsaw’s sprocket?

A

By using this thing

196
Q

Before you remove a chainsaw’s clutch, what do you need to do and why?

A
  • Put a plastic plug inside the hole where the spark plug should be
  • This will stop the piston from turning
197
Q

What are the five things you need to know when buying a new chain?

A
  • The length of the chainsaw’s guide bar
  • The number of chain links required
  • The pitch of the chain
  • The gauge of the chain
  • The cutter shape (rapid super or rapid micro)
198
Q

What sort of wood should you only use a full chisel/rapid super chain on?

A

Softwood (rapid micro can be used with everything)

199
Q

23RS. What does this mean?

A
  • 2: pitch of the chain
  • 3: gauge of the chain
  • RS: rapid super/full chisel
200
Q

A regular gob cut can work on trees that are up to __cm in diameter.

A

38cm in diameter