2. Early PG loss, ectopic PG, Rh isoimmunization Flashcards

1
Q

Which weeks constitute the 1st , 2nd, and 3rd trimesters?

A
    • 1st = first day of last menstrual period (FDLMP) => 13 weeks + 6 days
    • 2nd = 14 => 27 weeks + 6 days
    • 3rd = 28 => 42 weeks
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2
Q

What weeks do the following occur?

  1. Estimated date of confinement (EDC)
  2. Abortion
  3. Preterm delivery
  4. Full term delivery
  5. Postdates
A
  1. Estimated date of confinement (EDC): due date = 40 weeks after FDLMP
  2. Abortion: < 20 weeks
  3. Preterm delivery: 20 => 36 weeks + 6 days
  4. Full term delivery: 37- 42 weeks
  5. Postdates: >42 weeks
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3
Q

What is the “discriminatory level” of hCG where a gestational sac be seen with transvaginal US (TVUS)?

A

1500-2000 mIU/L

***however, these are not always exact

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4
Q

What 2 things occur than can confirm a pregnancy?

A
  • 1. Vaginal bleeding (occurs in 40% of W due to implantation bleeding)
  • 2. hCG (detected 6-8 days after ovulation)
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5
Q

hCG: indicate the levels at the following stages

  1. Negative
  2. Amount reached when menstruation SHOULD be expected
  3. Amount a urine PG test detect
  4. How much do we see increase in pregnancy?
  5. Peak levels?
  6. Abnormal IUP or ectopic pregnancy
A

hCG

  1. Negative: <5
  2. Amount reached when period is expected: 100
  3. Amount a urine PG test can detect: 25
  4. How much do we see increase in PG? Doubles every 2 days
  5. Peaks at 10 weeks at 100,000
  6. Abnormal rise of less than 53% in 48 hours.
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6
Q

What is biochemical pregnancy?

A

Initial pregnancy test/hCG is (+) 7-10 days after ovulation, but does not progress into a clinical pregnancy because menstruation occurs.

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7
Q

Spontaneous abortions occur in 10-15% of clinically recognized cases.

When does the risk of fetal loss decrease to 2%?

A

If at 8 weeks, US shows a live, appropriately grown fetus with cardiac actvity.

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8
Q

What is an abortus?

A

an aborted fetus specifically : a fetus before 20 weeks, less than 500 grams.

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9
Q

80% of spontaneous abortions (SABs) occur during which trimester?

A

1st trimester

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10
Q

What are the most common cause of 1st trimester SAB’s?

A

Chromosome abnormalities

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11
Q

What is the most common single chromosomal abnormality and most common class of chromosomal abnormality responsible for 1st trimester SAB’s?

A
  1. 45 XO (Turner Syndrome) is most common single chromosomal abnormality
  2. Most common class is the Trisomy class, with trisomy 16 most common
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12
Q

SABs are defined by whether

  • All of the products of conception have passed
  • Dilation of the cervix.

What is a threatened abortion; how are they managed?

A

Threatened abortion: Cervix is closed, but vaginal bleeding is occuring.

  • Treatment: Expectant management
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13
Q

SABs are defined by whether

  • All of the products of conception have passed
  • Dilation of the cervix.

What is a incomplete abortion; how are they managed?

A

Incomplete abortion: Cervix is dilated + passage of SOME products ( => vaginal bleeding is occuring) + cramping in lower abdomen.

  • Treatment: Suction D&C
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14
Q

SABs are defined by whether

  • All of the products of conception have passed
  • Dilation of the cervix.

What is a inevitable abortion; how are they managed?

A

Inevitable abortion: Cervix is partially dilated + no passage of tissue + vaginal bleeding is occuring.

  • Treatment: Loss is inevitable
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15
Q

SABs are defined by whether

  • All of the products of conception have passed
  • Dilation of the cervix.

What is a missed abortion; how are they managed?

A

Missed abortion: Fetus has expired and stays in uterus; typically no symptoms/bleeding.

  • Coagulation problems may occur so check fibrinogen levels weekly until SAB occurs or perform suction D&C
  • Treatment: Expected management vs. misoprostol vs. D&C

.

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16
Q

SABs are defined by whether

  • All of the products of conception have passed
  • Dilation of the cervix.

What is a septic abortion; how are they managed?

A

Septic abortion: Retain infected products of conception causes => fever, uterine and cervical motion tenderness + purulent discharge + hemorrhage and rarely renal failure

  • Treatment: IV ABX (Ampicillin + Gentamycin + Clindamycin), follow with suction D&C.
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17
Q

What is anembryonic gestation (blighted ovum); what do we see on US, how is it managed?

A
  • Fertilized egg develops a placenta, but no embryo.
  • US shows empty gestational sac >25 mm (too big to not have embryo)
  • Tx: expected management vs. misoprostol vs. D&C
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18
Q

How are induced or elective abortions most often performed in the 1st semester?

A

Suction D&C;

*More successful 1st therapy then medical or expectant managment.

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19
Q

Recurrent abortions occur in 1% of women and often have no cause.

Recurrent abortions are defined as what?

A

3 successive SAB, excluding ectopic and molar pregnancies.

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20
Q

What general maternal factors increase risk of recurrent abortions?

A
  1. Infection (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Listeria or Toxoplasma) is rare. Tx = ABX
  2. Smoking and alcohol (4x risk is smoke 20 ciggs/day and 7 drinks/week)
  3. Medical disorders: antiphospholipid syndrome *** (main), DB, hypothyroidism, SLE.
  4. Age of mom
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21
Q

How does the % rate of spontaneous abortion change from women <30 yo to women >40?

A
  • W <30: 11.2%
  • W >40: 56%
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22
Q

What is usually seen with 2nd trimester pregnancy loss, causing “painless dilation” and delivery?

A

Incompetent cervix

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23
Q

RF and treatment for incompetent cervix as a cause of recurrent SAB’s?

A
  • RF:
    • Utermine anomalies
    • Previous trauma
    • Hx of conization
  • Treatment: cervical cerclage.
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24
Q

What is recommended for both parents whom are trying to get pregnant?

A

Karyotyping to detect balanced reciprocal and Robertsonian translocations that could be passed onto the fetus unbalanced. There is a 3% chance one is a asyx carrier.

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25
Q

What is the most common immunologic abnormality contributing to recurrent and SAB’s?

A

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

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26
Q

What is the treatment of antiphospholipid syndrome for patient trying to conceive?

A

Prophylactic dose of heparin and low dose aspirin

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27
Q

Tests for what 3 serum markers can be done for antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  1. - Lupus anticoagulant
  2. - Anticardiolipin antibodies (IgG and IgM)
  3. - Anti-B2-glycoprotein 1 antibodies (IgG and IgM)
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28
Q

What is the leading cause of maternal death in the first trimester?

A

Ectopic pregnancy, a gestation that implants outside of the uterus, most often in the fallopian tube (98%)

29
Q

What occurs during an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Trophoblasts implant into the mucosa of the fallopian tube and rapidly erods through the underlying BV. Too much bleeding can cause pressure necrosis of the overlying tubal serosa => acute rupture and hemoperitoneum.

30
Q

Who’s at greater risk of ectopic pregnancy: woman with IUD or without?

A
  • Women without an IUD are at greatest risk
  • But IF woman with IUD gets pregnant they are at an ↑ risk of having an ectopic pregnancy
31
Q

Classic triad symptoms of ectopic pregnancy

A
  1. Prior missed menses
  2. Vaginal bleeding
  3. Lower abdominal pain
32
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Possible ectopic

  • Often, we see pt more than once before diagnosis is confirmed: follow serial B-hCG quants and TVUS accordingly
  • Mild non-specific sx’s
33
Q

What is seen on ultrasound of pt with possible ectopic pregnancy?

A

- Thickening of the endometrium/endometrial stripe (Arias-Stella rxn), however, you RARELY see the ectopic pregnancy.

34
Q

What are the symptoms, PE and US of the probable ectopic pregnancy.

A
  • Symptoms: Lower abdominal/pelvic pain and vaginal spotting/bleeding
  • PE: Abdominal/adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness.
  • US: Fluid in the abdomen (cul de sac) and you may the ectopic pregnancy.
35
Q

Which type of ectopic pregnancy is a surgical emergency?

A

Acutely ruptured ectopic pregnancy

36
Q

What will an U/S of an acutely ruptured ectopic pregnancy show?

A

Empty uterus w/ significant amount of free fluid

37
Q

Symptoms and PE of an acutely ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

A
  • Symptoms: severve abdominal pain and dizziness due to intraperitoneal hemorrhage)
  • PE:
    • Abdomen is distended and tender (guarding and rebound)
    • Cervical motion tenderness
    • Hemodynamic instability => diaphoresis, tachycardia, loss of consciousness.
38
Q

Diagnostic tests for ectopic pregnancies.

A
  1. Abnormal rise in hCG of <53% in 48 hrs
  2. Transvaginal US
39
Q

Transvaginal US can sshow what

A
  1. IUP or extrauterine pregnancy
  2. Non-diagnostic (nothing in or outside the uterus): wait until hCG is in 1500-2000 IU/L discriminatory zone and then repeat U/S to see if there is a gestational sac
40
Q

Medical management for ectopic pregnancy

A
  1. Compliant women who are hemodynamically stable with an unruptured ectopic PG: Medical management with methotrexate (MTX), a folic acid ANT; DNA synthesis and cell wall inhibitor
    1. Check hCG levels on day 4 and 7 –> compare at both days and if levels ↓ 15%, continue to follow weekly; if levels plateau or fall slowly give another dose of MTX.
41
Q

Avoid ________ when taking methotrexate (MTX)

A

Vitamins with folate

42
Q

What are some of the absolute contraindications for using methotrexate in medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. - Non-compliant pt
    • Intrauterine pregnancy
  2. - Breastfeeding
  3. - Active pulmonary disease or PUD
  4. - Hepatic, renal, or hematologic dysf.
    • Alcoholic
    • Ruptured ectopic or hemodynamically unstable
43
Q

What are some of the relative contraindications for using methotrexate in medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. Gestational sac is greater than or equal to 3.5 cm.
  2. Embryonic cardiac motion
  3. hCG levels > 6000 mIU/ml
44
Q

Which patients may qualify for expected managment of an ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. If they are stable and sx’s are spontaneously resolving => follow closely w/ serial hCG testing and give strong ectopic precautions
45
Q

What is the surgery do we do for an ectopic pregnancy in hemodynamically stable vs. unstable pt?

A
    • Stable = laparoscopy
    • Unstable = laparotomy
46
Q

Which surgical approach to ectopic pregnancies has been associatd with better long-term tubal function (wants to still be fertile)

A

Salpingostomy

47
Q

Which surgery is best for ectopic pregnancies when there has been significant damage to the tube?

A

Salpingectomy - removal of the entire fallopian tube

48
Q

After surgery for an ectopic pregnancy, what should be done?

A
  1. Repeat hCG titers 3-7 days later
49
Q

What is Rhesus Isoimmunization?

A
  1. Immunologic disorder that occurs when Rh (-) women is carrying an Rh (+) fetus =>
  2. Rh (+) antigens cross the placenta into mom (perhaps through fetomaternal hemorrhage), causing mom to make Ab to Rh (+) antigen:
    1. IgM abs first, but do not cross placenta => IgG abs cross placenta and enter fetal circulation.
  3. Destroy fetal RBC’s —>
    1. Mild hemolysis => fetus can compensate by increasing erythropoiesis
    2. Severe hemolytic disease in the fetus/newborn => anemia => hydrops fetalis from CHF and intrauterine fetal death
50
Q
  • Rh complex is made up of ___________ antigens.
  • _________ => Rh (+)
  • _________ => Rh (-)
A
  • Rh complex = C, D, E, c, d, e antigens
  • Rh D antigen => Rh (+)
  • No Rh D antigen => Rh (-)
51
Q

Rh (-) W is most common in ______.

A
  • Caucasions (15% of whites have it) > AA (8%)
52
Q

Which prophylactic treatment is used to prevent mom from making antibodies to Rh antigen?

A

300 mcg of Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM)

  • Prevent isoimmunization after exposure of up to 30mL of RhD (+) whole blood or 15mL of fetal RBC -
53
Q

Who should RhoGAM be administered to and when is it given?

A
  • Rh (-) woman who is not Rh D-alloimmunized @ at 28 weeks and within 72 hrs after delivery of a Rh D (+) infant
54
Q

How can we prevent Rh isoimmunization, which can occur in high risk situations that cause a larger volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage.

A
  • Kleinhauer-Betke test: ID’s fetal RBC in maternal blood and determines if more RhoGAM is needed.
55
Q

3 things to get at 1st prenatal visit to prevent Rh isoimmunization:

A
  1. ABO blood group
  2. Rh D type
  3. Antibody screen
56
Q

If pregnant women is Rh (-) and has (+) anti-D antibody titers, what does this mean; what should be done next?

A
  1. She is Rh D sensitized
  2. Next test the father of baby for the Antigen status in question
    1. If he is Rh-D (-) => no further workup or tx is necessary
    2. If he is Rh-D (+) =>
      1. homo- (all fetuses will be Rh +)
      2. heterozygous for D antigen (50% will be Rh +/-)
57
Q

If father of the baby is heterozygous for RhD antigen, what must be done?

A
  1. Determine fetal RhD status
    1. Non-invasively with cell-free fetal DNA in maternal plasma
    2. Invasively with fetal antigen testing via amniocentesis
58
Q

Which titers are used as a screening tool to estimate the severeity of fetal hemolysis in Rh disease?

A

Maternal Rh-antibody titers

59
Q

What do maternal Rh-antibody titers of < 1:8 and > 1:16 indicate; what is management for each of these situations?

A
  • < 1:8 = fetus not in serious jeopardy; recheck titers q 4 wks
  • > 1:16 = require further eval:
    • US to detect fetal hydrops
    • Doppler studies of the Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)
60
Q

US can detect fetal hydrops.

What would we see on US that would indicate it?

A
  1. Ascites
  2. Pleural effusion
  3. Pericardial effusion
  4. Skin or scalp edema
  5. Polyhydramnios
61
Q

_______________ most valuable tool for detecting fetal anemia and should be performed _____________.

A
  • Doppler of the peak systolic velocity in the fetal MCA in cm/sec
  • every 1-2 wks from 18-35 wks
62
Q

__________ fetal MCA value peak systolic velocity for gestational age = moderate to severe fetal anemia.

A

> 1.5 MOM

63
Q

It fetal MCA peak systolic velocity > 1.5 MOM, what should be done?

A
  1. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling to assess the true concentration of Hb
  2. If indicated, perform a intrauterine tranfusion.
64
Q

Which Hct level is considered SEVERE fetal anemia; when are intrauterine transfusions done and with what?

A
  • Severe fetal anemia: Hct is < 30% or 2 standard deviations below the mean Hct for the gestational age.
    • Intrauterine transfusions using fresh group O, Rh (-) packed RBC’s performed between 18-35 weeks.
65
Q

What type of transfusions for severe fetal anemia are preferrd due to more rapid and reliable therapeutic benefits?

A

Intravascular transfusions into umbilical vein

66
Q

What is the management of Rh-isoimmunization after 35 weeks gestation?

A

Consider delivery and transfuse the neonate

67
Q

What is the risk of hydrops with subsequent pregnancies after the 1st affected pregnancy?

A

90%

68
Q

In addition to serial US w/ MCA dopplers, what other 2 tests should be used to manage Rh-isoimmunization?

A
  1. Antepartum testing: 2x weekly non-stress test or biophysical profiles
  2. Serial growth scans q 3-4 weeks
69
Q
A