2/24 UWORLD test # 23 Flashcards

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Q

Q 1. Describe what feature of HIV viral replication results in antigenic variation in each cycle. How host immune response against virus is affected?

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2
Q

Q 1. What is fate of viral envelope protein after each replication cycle. Does it has immunogenecity?

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3
Q

Q 2. Neural tube defect: what abnormality during embryonic development results in anencephaly? what about spina bifida?

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4
Q

Q 2. failure of neural tube formation (by closure of neural pore) results in release of what two proteins?
( these two proteins can be used for screening)

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5
Q

Q 2. Failure of neural crest migration results in what disease?

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6
Q

Q 3. Cystic fibrosis

  • mutated gene? what chromosome?
  • what is exact mutation? what does it do to normal gene product?
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7
Q

Q 3. What is pathophysiology of Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease?

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8
Q

Q 4. Inheritance pattern of PKU?

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9
Q

Q 7. What are clinical presentations of gallstone ileus? How is it different from presentations of gallstone in other locations (eg. biliary tree, common bile duct)

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10
Q

Q 7. What commonly causes gall stone ileus?

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11
Q

Q 7. What is Charcot triad of cholangitis?

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12
Q

Q 8. patient with hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary artery stenosis.
What three medications are normally indicated in this situation? What are reasons?

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13
Q

Q 9. How does leptin affects level of POMC (proopiomelanocortin)?

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14
Q

Q 10. IgA deficiency is associated with what GI disease?

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15
Q

Q 11. What is the strongest predictor for suicide?

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16
Q

Q 13. What are two amino acids that are purely ketogenic? (That is, they do not get converted to pyruvate, rather enter TCA cycle right away)

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17
Q

Q 14. Where are common sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis? What conditions (2) cause it?
How is it affect bone?

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- conditions: Beta thalassemia (chipmunk face due to maxillary bone outgrowth), and Rubella (dermal extramedullary hematopoiesis-> blue berry muffin )
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18
Q

Q 14. What is cobalmin?

19
Q

Q 16. What is common pulmonary complication of systemic sclerosis? Pathophysiology?

20
Q

Q 18. Anatomy: what structure is responsible for upward traction on the medial fragment of fractured clavicle?
(Think about what is attached to clavicle)

21
Q

Q 18. Anatomy: what structure is responsible for downward traction on lateral fragment of fractured clavicle?

22
Q

Q 18. Anatomy: what structure is responsible for holding the medial fragment of fractured clavicle?

23
Q

Q 19. Anatomy: Define where puncture should be done during thoracentesis

24
Q

Q 19 Anatomy: Should thoracentesis be done above or below the border of ribs? why?

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Q 20. Explain physiology of antiviral actions by interferons. How does it ensure specificity to viral?
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Q 23. Nevirapine - mechanism of action - side effects (4)
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Q 24. Describe role of each below during base excision repair - glycosylase - endonuclease - lyase
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Q 25. What two vitamins does enteric bacteria produce?
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Q 27. Anatomy: iliohypogastric nerve- where does it innervate?
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Q 27. Anatomy: ilioinguinal nerve- where does it innervate?
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Q 29. Fluticasone - mechanism of action - indication
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Q 30. Norephinephrine works on which receptors (2)?
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Q 30. Describe how stimulation of adrenergic beta-1 and beta-2 result in different outcome
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Describe SMOOTH muscle contraction/ dilation | what signaling cascades?
- smooth muscle contraction | - smooth muscle dilation
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Q 29. Theophylline - mechanism of action - indication - side effects
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Q 35. HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome) | - What would be renal presentation?
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Q 36. Stable angina: what medications should be started to prevent adverse cardiovascular events?
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Q 36. Cliostazol - mechanism of action - indication - side effects
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39
Describe how increasing cAMP causes smooth muscle dilation
Increased cAMP is main effect by Beta 2- adrenergic receptor stimulation : Increased cAMP will cause reduction of MLCK (myosin light chain kinase) activity -> more relaxation
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Q 38. Pseudomonas - what is toxin? - mechanism of action of this toxin?
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Q 38. Bordetella pertussis - What are two toxins? - mechanism of action of these two toxins?
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Q 39. Gout vs. pseudogout - What is accumulating? - bifringement finding?
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Q 39. Unilateral arthritis with previous medial history of polycythemia vera. What is going on?
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Q 40. Arthritis with elevated serum ACE level. What is diagnosis?
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