2/13 UWORLD test # 14

Question 1

Q 3. Describe how classic complement pathway is initiated

Answer 1

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Question 2

Q 3. Describe where complement binding site is in antibody

Answer 2

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Question 3

Q 5. What is atropine? Apart from mydriasis, what would be effect of atropine on eye?

Answer 3

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Question 4

Q 5. What is clinical presentation of acute closed angle glaucoma?

Answer 4

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Question 5

Q 6. stimulation of what nerve would be helpful for obstructive sleep apnea? explain physiology

Answer 5

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Question 6

Q 7. In which fetal condition is maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein elevated?

Answer 6

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Question 7

Q 7. In which fetal condition is maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein decreased?

Answer 7

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Question 8

Q 7. In what normal condition is maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein increased?

Answer 8

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This makes sense: more gestational age, more fetal development

Question 9

Q 7. Which structures (3) of fetus secret alpha-fetoprotein?

Answer 9

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Question 10

Q 8. Increased PRPP synthase activity: what disease should I consider fist?

Answer 10

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Question 11

Q 10. What northern blot is detecting for? what about southern blot? southwestern blot?

Answer 11

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Question 12

Q 10. What is c-Jun protein?

Answer 12

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Question 13

Q 10. What is Ras protein?

Answer 13

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Question 14

Q 11. What is congenital torticollis?

• clinical presentation?
• causes?
• pathophysiology?

Answer 14

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Question 15

Q 12. first line for PTSD?

Answer 15

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Question 16

Q 13. Explain what is happening in renal embryology

• pronephros
• metanephros
• mesonephros

Answer 16

• pronehros
• mesonephros
• metanephros
• >
• >

Question 17

Q 14. Will increased pre-load affect diastolic ventricular compliance? why?

Answer 17

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Question 18

Q 16. Action potential curve: What is hyperpolarization? why do you see it?

Answer 18

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Question 19

Q 17. Which part of the heart is in the closest proximity to esophagus?
(review CT picture slides)

Answer 19

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Question 20

Q 18. What comprise Immunofluoresence of glomeruli in PSGN? (3) How does it look like?

Answer 20

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Question 21

Q 18. Give two examples of streptococcal antibody

Answer 21

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Question 22

Q 18. Describe Electron microscopy in PSGN

EM is not same as IF!

Answer 22

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Question 23

Q 18. What is M protein from group A strep? Is it associated with PSGN? Any other disease associated with it?

Answer 23

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Question 24

Q 18. Group A strep: Explain different pathophysiology of rheumatic fever vs. PSGN

Answer 24

• Rheumatic fever

- PSGN

Question 25

Q 18. In nephritic/ nephrotic syndromes, most of complement in deposits consist of C3. However there is one exception: What disease? which complement?

Answer 25

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Question 26

Q 18. Give example of each type of immune complex deposit of nephrotic/nephritic syndrome in ELECTRON MICROSCOPY & characteristics ? - mesangial (1) - subendothelial (2) - intramembrane, GBM (1) - subepithelial (2)

Answer 26

- mesangial - subendothelial - intramembrane GBM - subepithelial

Question 27

Q 19. Clinical presentation of porphyria cutanea tarda. Any muscle/joint symptoms?

Answer 27

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Question 28

Q 19. Clinical presentations (5) of dermatomyositis? Any associated complication

Answer 28

``` - clinical presentations 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. - complication ```

Question 29

Q 20. What is interscalene nerve block? Explain procedure and which nerves can be blocked

Answer 29

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Question 30

Q 23. fever, sore throat, numerous 1-2mm erythematous papular rash in abdomen and chest. Assuming it is due to infection, what is going on? What is infectious microrganism?

Answer 30

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Question 31

Q 23. Coronary artery aneurysm is complication of what disease?

Answer 31

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Question 32

Q 24. Explain underlying mechanism of flushing as a side effect of anti-histamine

Answer 32

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Question 33

Q 26. Name two bacteria that produces toxin causing ADP-ribosylation of EF-2. Explain pathophysiology: what is impaired from this action?

Answer 33

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Question 34

Q 26. Gram positive rod bacteria with polar granules stained with aniline dye. What is this bug?

Answer 34

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Question 35

Q 26. 4 complications of c.diptheriae infection?

Answer 35

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Question 36

Q 27. What is osteoprotegrin (OPG)? What is its function and mechanism of action?

Answer 36

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Question 37

Q 27. How estrogen helps with preventing bone resorption?

Answer 37

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Question 38

Q 30. What is varenicline? mechanism of action?

Answer 38

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Question 39

Q 31. Complete hydatidiform mole vs. Partial hydatidiform mole 1. beta-hCG level 2. karyotype 3. uterine size

Answer 39

1. beta-hCG level 2. karyotype 3. uterine size

Question 40

Q 31. Explain 46,XX in Complete hydatidiform mole and 69 XXX, 69 XYY in Partial hydatidiform mole

Answer 40

- 46 XX complete hydatidiform | - 69 XXX or 69 XXY in partial hydatidiform

Question 41

Q 31. In complete hydatidiform mole, 46 XX vs. 46 XY, which one is more common? why?

Answer 41

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Question 42

Q 32. What is one major side effect of mannitol? Explain pathophysiology

Answer 42

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Question 43

Q 32. Effect of mannitol on 1. plasma potassium 2. metabolic acidosis or alkalosis Explain physiology

Answer 43

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Question 44

Q 33. Why combined mutiple therapy is given for active TB? Why would monotherapy of INH not work?

Answer 44

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Question 45

Q 36. 3 symptoms of hypoglycemia

Answer 45

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Question 46

Q 36. What is sulfonylurea? mechanism of action?

Answer 46

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Question 47

Q 37. Which organ has the least risk for ischemic attack after arterial occlusion? why?

Answer 47

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Question 48

Q 38. Explain how these molecules regulate cell cycle - Rb - p53 - p21 - CDK

Answer 48

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Question 49

Q 40. What is criteria for normal language development for child age of 2?

Answer 49

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