Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWORLD first pass- week 3 > 2/13 UWORLD test # 14 > Flashcards

2/13 UWORLD test # 14 Flashcards

1
Q

Q 3. Describe how classic complement pathway is initiated

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q 3. Describe where complement binding site is in antibody

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q 5. What is atropine? Apart from mydriasis, what would be effect of atropine on eye?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q 5. What is clinical presentation of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q 6. stimulation of what nerve would be helpful for obstructive sleep apnea? explain physiology

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q 7. In which fetal condition is maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein elevated?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q 7. In which fetal condition is maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein decreased?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q 7. In what normal condition is maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein increased?

A

-

This makes sense: more gestational age, more fetal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q 7. Which structures (3) of fetus secret alpha-fetoprotein?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q 8. Increased PRPP synthase activity: what disease should I consider fist?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Q 10. What northern blot is detecting for? what about southern blot? southwestern blot?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Q 10. What is c-Jun protein?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q 10. What is Ras protein?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Q 11. What is congenital torticollis?

  • clinical presentation?
  • causes?
  • pathophysiology?
A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Q 12. first line for PTSD?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Q 13. Explain what is happening in renal embryology

  • pronephros
  • metanephros
  • mesonephros
A
  • pronehros
  • mesonephros
  • metanephros
  • >
  • >
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Q 14. Will increased pre-load affect diastolic ventricular compliance? why?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Q 16. Action potential curve: What is hyperpolarization? why do you see it?

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Q 17. Which part of the heart is in the closest proximity to esophagus?
(review CT picture slides)

A

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Q 18. What comprise Immunofluoresence of glomeruli in PSGN? (3) How does it look like?

A

-

21
Q

Q 18. Give two examples of streptococcal antibody

A

-

-

22
Q

Q 18. Describe Electron microscopy in PSGN

EM is not same as IF!

A

-

23
Q

Q 18. What is M protein from group A strep? Is it associated with PSGN? Any other disease associated with it?

A

-

24
Q

Q 18. Group A strep: Explain different pathophysiology of rheumatic fever vs. PSGN

A
  • Rheumatic fever

- PSGN

25
Q

Q 18. In nephritic/ nephrotic syndromes, most of complement in deposits consist of C3. However there is one exception: What disease? which complement?

A

-

26
Q

Q 18. Give example of each type of immune complex deposit of nephrotic/nephritic syndrome in ELECTRON MICROSCOPY & characteristics ?

  • mesangial (1)
  • subendothelial (2)
  • intramembrane, GBM (1)
  • subepithelial (2)
A
  • mesangial
  • subendothelial
  • intramembrane GBM
  • subepithelial
27
Q

Q 19. Clinical presentation of porphyria cutanea tarda. Any muscle/joint symptoms?

A

-

28
Q

Q 19. Clinical presentations (5) of dermatomyositis? Any associated complication

A 
- clinical presentations
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
- complication
29
Q

Q 20. What is interscalene nerve block? Explain procedure and which nerves can be blocked

A

-

30
Q

Q 23. fever, sore throat, numerous 1-2mm erythematous papular rash in abdomen and chest. Assuming it is due to infection, what is going on? What is infectious microrganism?

A

-

31
Q

Q 23. Coronary artery aneurysm is complication of what disease?

A

-

32
Q

Q 24. Explain underlying mechanism of flushing as a side effect of anti-histamine

A

-

33
Q

Q 26. Name two bacteria that produces toxin causing ADP-ribosylation of EF-2. Explain pathophysiology: what is impaired from this action?

A

-

34
Q

Q 26. Gram positive rod bacteria with polar granules stained with aniline dye. What is this bug?

A

-

35
Q

Q 26. 4 complications of c.diptheriae infection?

A

-

36
Q

Q 27. What is osteoprotegrin (OPG)? What is its function and mechanism of action?

A

-

37
Q

Q 27. How estrogen helps with preventing bone resorption?

A

-

38
Q

Q 30. What is varenicline? mechanism of action?

A

-

39
Q

Q 31. Complete hydatidiform mole vs. Partial hydatidiform mole

  1. beta-hCG level
  2. karyotype
  3. uterine size
A
  1. beta-hCG level
  2. karyotype
  3. uterine size
40
Q

Q 31. Explain 46,XX in Complete hydatidiform mole and 69 XXX, 69 XYY in Partial hydatidiform mole

A
  • 46 XX complete hydatidiform

- 69 XXX or 69 XXY in partial hydatidiform

41
Q

Q 31. In complete hydatidiform mole, 46 XX vs. 46 XY, which one is more common? why?

A

-

42
Q

Q 32. What is one major side effect of mannitol? Explain pathophysiology

A

-

43
Q

Q 32. Effect of mannitol on

  1. plasma potassium
  2. metabolic acidosis or alkalosis

Explain physiology

A

-

44
Q

Q 33. Why combined mutiple therapy is given for active TB? Why would monotherapy of INH not work?

A

-

45
Q

Q 36. 3 symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

-

46
Q

Q 36. What is sulfonylurea? mechanism of action?

A

-

47
Q

Q 37. Which organ has the least risk for ischemic attack after arterial occlusion? why?

A

-

48
Q

Q 38. Explain how these molecules regulate cell cycle

  • Rb
  • p53
  • p21
  • CDK
A

-

49
Q

Q 40. What is criteria for normal language development for child age of 2?

A

-

UWORLD first pass- week 3 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions