185 Initiation

Question 1

When does OXY/OXY FLOW/OXY OFF come out? What caption comes out when both OXY on?

Answer 1

OXY FLOW : If the oxygen flow indicators remain in the same state, flow or no flow, for more than 30s, a RED OXY FLOW warning will be shown on the MFD

OXY OFF : Oxy systems is OFF in both cockpits or there’s no electrical power

OXY : The system has detected a low supplied pressure.
The SSOM-C fails the CBIT
The system has detected a low oxygen concentration
The system has shut down due to a detected critical failure. Over pressure and/or over temperature.

When both OXY on, no captions will be shown

Question 2

What do you lose when u pull your Emer Ldg Gr handle

Answer 2

1) LDG GR extends but cannot be retracted
2) Emergency hydraulic pressure becomes available to lower flaps as required. The flaps can be lowered to T/O and LDG, but cannot be retracted
3) EMER HYD pressure available allows at least 6 full applications before brakes go into manual braking aka Mode 3 braking
4) Anti-skid is inhibited
5) The main hydraulic system is shut-off by the emergency pressure operating an isolate valve in the power pack

Question 3

Is it always cabin press RAM? what situations will you use DUMP

Answer 3

When cabin press is setted to RAM, it closes the ACS PRSOV which stops airflow from engine into the cockpit. Thus, increasing the chance of engine relight with more oxygen available in the engine. However there will be situation where by DUMP is used to equalise the cabin pressure with ambient pressure. This will open the RAOV allowing temperature conditioned air to supply to the cockpit but no pressurization.

Question 4

Why 140 KIAS for flameout? For other configurations, what’s the gliding distance?

Answer 4

140 kts gives the PC-21 (Clean) the best glide range, achieving 2nm per 1000ft descent, at a rate of 1100ft/min. Dirty a/c- 130kts, 1nm per 1000 ft, at a rate of 1600(GR DN), 2000(GR DN + FLAPS T/O), 2200(GR DN + FLAPS LDG) ft/min

Question 5

Whar are the CIRA limits for PEA and GIG?

Answer 5

Pearce CIRA defined as Lateral limits: A circle of 5nm radius centered on the pearce ARP within R155A (does not include R153)
Vertical limits: SFC - 3500ft
Gingin CIRA defined as Lateral limits: A circle of 5nm radius centered on Gingin ARP excluding the area to the south within 12TAC
Vertical limits: SFC - 3500ft

Question 6

What are the different runway lengths

Answer 6

Runway 18L/36R = 2439m x 45m (8002ft x 148ft) Runway 18R/36L = 1741m x 30m (5712ft x 98ft) Runway 05/23 = 1691m x 45m (5548ft x 148ft) Runway 08/26 (YGIG) = 1828m x 45m (5997ft x 148ft)

Question 7

why 40-50% TQ for power checks

Answer 7

To ease directional control after brake release, a partial power and/or rolling takeoff can be used. For example, holding brakes and selecting 40% TQ ensures normal engine indications and safety pins positions are checked and correct while still providing rapid engine acceleration to max power.

Question 8

What is the quick release for leg restraints and how do you use it

Answer 8

Both restraint line taper plugs are released simultaneously from their receptacles when the leg restraint release lever on the outside face of the right forward part of the seat pan is pulled rearwards.

Question 9

What is the difference between Min Pract and Min Power?

Answer 9

Min Pract is defined as a setting that is suitable for the aircraft’s emergency and flight parameters, based on the current airspeed and altitude.
Min Power is defined as power required to maintain level fight, approx 25-35% TQ, based on altitude

Question 10

What does it mean to you when Merlo Release is not available?

Answer 10

Merlo Release exists primarily to facilitate 7TAC arc approaches to RW36 ILS/TACAN. If Merlo Release is not available, instrument approaches to RW36 will be denied or delayed. Gnangara Release will be released to Pearce ATC for VFR recoveries to 36R. In the absence of Merlo Release, aircraft positioning for right initial RW36 must operate NA1500FT and remain north of an east-west line through Mt Mambup.

Question 11

What are your actions when you ‘Egress’?

Answer 11

The egress procedure is as follows:

1. ) Install the safety pin in the seat firing handle and seat firing handle-housing. This is to prevent the ejection seat from accidental firing.
2. ) Install the CFS safety pin, front only.
3. ) Disconnect the following aircrew personal equipment: − Oxygen hose − Mic-tel connector − Anti-g hose − PSP connector.
4. ) Release the shoulder harness lugs from the QRF on the negative-g strap. Press the button on the QRF and turn the cover fully (approximately 30°) clockwise or counterclockwise.
5. ) Return the QRF to the centre position.
6. ) Put the negative-g strap in position to one side of the seat firing handle.
7. ) If the leg garters are to stay in the aircraft, push the plungers of each quick-release connector and release the leg garters from the legs. Pull all of the straps through to their longest length. Put the lap straps safely to the side.
8. ) If the leg garters are to stay on the pilot’s legs, operate the leg line release lever on the right side of the seat pan to release the taper plugs of both leg restraint lines. Pull the leg restraint lines out of the leg garter D rings.
9. ) Stand up and engage the shoulder strap lugs in the related clips on each side of the headpad.
10. ) Get out of the cockpit. Be especially careful not to stand on the seat firing handle or the MOR handle as accidental firing of the ejection seat may occur.

Question 12

What are the different callsigns for Hawks, RSAF and RAAF PC-21? test flights?formation? What callsign they use?

Answer 12

Hawks (79SQN) = Phoenix
Callsign series: 80s & 90s

RSAF (130SQN)= Eagle
Callsign series: 800 (duals) & 700 & 900 (solos)

RAAF PC-21 (2FTS) = Viper
Callsigns series: 01 - 70 and 600 series

2FTS, 130SQN Test flight = Tango.

79SQN formation = Devil, Fury, Ghost, Raptor.
RSAF formation = Cyclone, Tango, Storm, Monsoon.
2FTS formation = Sabot, Salvo, Samba, Stinger, SnakeEye.
2FTS SOLO = Cygnet, Sierra, Dugite.

Question 13

What height do the hawks fly for circuit (normal/Low level/glide/PFL/VRIAP) ?

Answer 13

For PEA RWY 18/36,
Normal = 1600ft AMSL
Low Level = Not Below 600ft AMSL
Glide = 3100ft AMSL,
PFL High Key = 5000ft AGL
PFL Low Key = 3000ft AGL
VRIAP 36 Left Initial = 1000ft AMSL
VRIAP 36 Right Initial = 1500ft
VRIAP 18 Left Initial = 1500ft
VRIAP 18 Right Initial/Straight In = 1500ft 

For PEA RWY 05/23,
Normal = N/A
Low Level = N/A
Glide = N/A
PFL High Key = 5000ft AGL
PFL Low Key = 3000ft AGL
VRIAP 05 = 1000ft AMSL
VRIAP 23 = 1500ft AMSL

For GIG RWY 08/26,
Normal = 1700ft AMSL
Low Level = Not Below 700ft AMSL
Glide = 3200ft AMSL
PFL High Key = 5000ft AGL
PFL Low Key = 3000ft AGL
VRIAP 08 = 1500ft AMSL
VRIAP 26 = 1500ft AMSL

Question 14

What are the procedure(s) when you drop your seat pin? for gig how?

Answer 14

If the ejection seat pin is dropped and unable to retrieve, inform the
SXO and proceed abeam weather shed B:
i. Shutdown engine and remain strapped in with mask on, visor
down and canopy closed whilst awaiting salvage crew to provide a
spare seat pin to “safe” the seat.
ii. Once the salvage crew arrives, open canopy to receive spare
seat pin and insert it in.
iii. Exit the cockpit as per normal.

If unable to insert the seat pin back into the ejection seat, inform the
SXO and proceed abeam weather shed B (see Figure 12).
i. Shutdown the engine and remain strapped in with mask on,
visor down and canopy closed.
ii. Salvage crew will report to the aircraft immediately with a head
set for connection to the LH wing station and advice the aircrew on
how to insert the seat pin. This usually requires the firing handle to be
straightened vertically.
iii. Once the seat pin is inserted, the aircrew will exit the cockpit as
per normal.

For GinGin:
In the event that the ejection seat is unsafe when taxiing back, do not taxi into
the weather shed. Aircrew are to inform the SXO and proceed abeam Weathershed 1 and await for the groundcrew. Follow the Ejection Seat Pin Recovery procedures as stated above.

Question 15

What are turbulators for? Why?

Answer 15

Turbulators changes the boundary layer on the surface from laminar to turbulent, as turbulent flow may be desired on certain parts on the surface of the aircraft wing. Despite having more skin-friction drag, turbulent flow boundary layers have more energy than a laminar flow layer, which withstands longer adverse pressure gradient, and allows the layer to stick to the surface longer.

Turbulators are placed just prior of the natural point where the boundary layers changes from laminar to turbulent, in order to minimise the seperation bubble before reattachment to reduce overall drag.

Turbulators are also placed before control surfaces or flap as the turbulent flow stays attached much better than laminar flow and it provides higher lift coefficients for flapped aerofoils.

Question 16

On the DWP, amber CHIP captions indicates?

Answer 16

CHIP PROP/ CHIP AGB amber captions on the DWP indicate that there are metal particles in the reduction gearbox and accessory gearbox respectively. Two magnetic chip detectors, one in the reduction gearbox and one in the accessories gearbox, attract ferrous contamination in the oil system. If sufficient contamination is detected, an amber CHIP indication on the DWP comes on.

Question 17

What does it mean when the ATC tells you to hold short?

Answer 17

It means the the runway is currently not available possibly due to an aircraft is on base, finals or on the runway itself. An example will be taxying into the Operational Readiness Platform(ORP). It could also be due to the size of aircraft that is about to land on the runway which restricts any aircraft to be on the ORP.

Question 18

When can you enter R179 and when can you not enter R179 (assuming you are not declaring an emergnecy)

Answer 18

R179 contains the RAAF Pearce Air Weapons Range, which is used for Air to Ground training for Pearce Units.

Activation times and heights will be delcared via NOTAM and PEA ATIS. During activation, IFR aircraft are to avoid R179’s lateral boundaries by 1nm, while VFR aircraft are to avoid the boundaries visually. Activation height can reach from SFC to a maximum of A140.

R179 can be used for Low Level Aerobatics activities, but only if inclement weather or prior bookings render Bindoon Extended or the Multi-ship Formation Training Area unsuitable/unavailable. They are to be on OPSNORM intervals with PEA APR.

Furthermore, R179 cannot be activated during Pearce Navigation Aid calibration flights, which can enter R179 as they have priority over any Pearce flying operations.

Question 19

What’s the stall strip for?

Answer 19

The stall strip on the PC-21 is located on the leading edge and inboard of both wings. Its purpose is to cause the wing root to stall first in the event of going past AOA crit, allowing the pilot to still have effective controls over the ailerons, hence, allowing for a more controllable stall. Another purpose of the stall strip is to increase the buffeting effect felt by the pilot during the incipient stages of the stall, allowing the pilot to react timely and carry out the corrective actions

Question 20

What instrument do you lose when you lose your gens?

Answer 20

When both GENs have failed, the LMFD, PFD, HUD will be unavailable, and the SFD can be used to monitor flight parameters to land, albeit only giving you about 30 minutes before the emer batt depletes. The RMFD can be used to monitor the condition of the GENs. If ONLY GEN 1 fails, all instruments will still function as they can be fully powered by GEN 2, likewise if GEN 2 fails. However, since the starter and GEN 1 are housed together, the a/c cannot detect if its GEN 1 that failed OR the starter, hence, if GEN 1 fails, engine relight may not be possible.

Question 21

What are the taxiways width and max taxi speeds?

Answer 21

Taxiway Widths
Main Taxiways: 100ft
Taxyway Echo: 30ft

Speeds
Main Taxyways: 20kts
Taxyway Echo: 15kts
Apron: 10kts

Question 22

What is our primary divertion airfield? (assuming CAVOK)

Answer 22

The primary divert airfield is Gin Gin Airfield which is located approximately 15 Nm NW of Pearce with RWY 08/26. The runway is 5997’ in length and does not have any suitable runway approach aid for the PC-21. Secondary divert airfield is Perth International Airport, located 16 Nm South of Pearce with two runways. RWY 03/21 is preferred as it is 11299’ compared to RWY 06/24 which is 7096’ in length. RWY 03, 21 and 24 have ILS approach aid. Third available divert airfield is Cunderdin airfield, RWY 05/23 of 6040ft and RWY 14/32 of 4950ft with no instrument approach aid available.

Question 23

If the oxygen hose isn’t properly connected, what caption will I see on my MFD?

Answer 23

OXY FLOW caption will be seen as the oxygen hose is not connected properly

Question 24

If mission bus fails, how to I change my radio frequencies?

Answer 24

The mission bus powers the UFCP, therefore since the FMS is powered by the BATT BUS, controlling of the radios and volume control can be done through the front and rear FMS. The intercom will continue to operate.

Question 25

When I do my propeller checks, what am i checking for?

Answer 25

During propeller checks, we need to ensure that the restraints are removed, blades and de-ice boots are in good condition and there is no unusual noise when rotating the propeller.

Question 26

What is the purpose of the counterweight at the root of the blades? Does all blades have counterweights?

Answer 26

The purpose of the counterweight is so that when the propeller turns, centrifugal force of the counterweight will set the blade to a feathered position. As the speed of the propeller changes it is monitored by the PIU which will control the force of oil pressure to either increase the oil pressure force for the blade to be fine pitch or decrease the oil pressure for the blade back to feathered position. When oil pressure or engine fails, propeller will be in feathered position due to the counterweight and feathering spring. All 5 propeller have its own counterweight

Question 27

How many lights are there on the nose wheel? What are they? Position (WRT the a/c)

Answer 27

There are two lights on the nose landing gear leg, a forward facing landing light on the left and a forward facing taxi light on the right.
The landing light has a narrow beam, angled downwards to illuminate the runway during the final stages of an approach. The taxi light has a wide beam, angled to illuminate the ground ahead of the aircraft while taxiing.

Question 28

What is the length of the PC-21?

Answer 28

11.2m, 36.85FT

Question 29

How you tell if the preceeding aircraft is 500ft away from you when taxiing? How many mils is the CDM?

Answer 29

As a guide, use CDM on half wingspan for 500ft reference, and CDM on quarter wingspan for 250ft reference.

Question 30

What so special about ECHO taxiway in YPEA

Answer 30

• 30FT wide
• No shoulders
• Unlit
  RESTRICTION: Not AVBL to ACFT ABV 3,300KG or to ACFT ABV 690kPa tyre pressure.
  Due to lack of lighting, Taxiway Echo should be avoided at night

Question 31

Can we fly over Lake Wannamal or Chittering during low level recovery from area? (give reasons to support your answers)

Answer 31

During low level recovery, we will fly on the left of Lake Wannamal and on the right of Lake Chittering (Pilot’s Perspective). Since lakes are populated with birds, we do not practise flying over the lakes to prevent inadvertent bird strikes.

Question 32

What does overshooting / undershooting winds means to you?

Answer 32

For overshooting wind conditions, use more AOB and less power due to the reduced time through the base turn.
For undershooting wind conditions, use less AOB and more power for the base turn due to increased time through the base turn.

Question 33

During downwind, when they say wingtip riding on the centreline of the runway, how many feet are you away from the runway horizontally

Answer 33

Since downwind spacing is 5000ft laterally, when your wingtip is riding on centreline of the runway, we would be approximately 5000ft from the runway laterally.

Question 34

What is SVFR? When must you request SVFR?

Answer 34

SVFR stand for Special Visual Flight Rules, and must be requested when visibility is below Visual Meteorological Conditions.

Question 35

What is highspeed? Need approval?

Answer 35

High speed is when operating above the speed ranges listed below
PC-21:
Cruise/Descent IAS: 200-240
Climb IAS: 190 +/- 10%
Glide IAS: 140 +/- 10%
And no, it does not require ATC approval or acknowledgement. However, an advisory call of ‘high speed’ must be made.

Question 36

What is the EASTERN boundries we set and why?

Answer 36

Eastern hard boundary for PTA Bravo is 021R according to FIHA AD2SUPP. However, we set it to 019R to ensure we have 2 radials acting as a buffer to prevent busting the hard boundary of R156.

Question 37

So when they say MERLO RELEASE not avaliable, how does it affect us?

Answer 37

MERLO RELEASE facilitates 7 TAC arc approaches to RWY 36 ILS/TACAN. It comprises civil airspace above R153 A/B, SFC - 4000FT. When not available, Instrument approach to RWY 36 will be denied or delayed. This will be notified on the ATIS.

Question 38

What is the VR we can look for from AREA to GINGIN initially

Answer 38

AREA to GINGIN VRs: Eclipse Hill (From B: ~195Hdg, C: ~155Hdg)

Question 39

What are the operations for Taxiway Echo?

Answer 39

For solo trainees exiting on taxiway ‘E’ in pearce, they will taxy forward and stop prior to taxiway ‘B’ to insert the ejection seat pin and complete their after landing checks.

Question 40

What is SIGMET? Where can we find SIGMET?

Answer 40

SIGMETs provide urgent advice of potentially hazardous weather to aircraft. On receipt of a SIGMET during working hours, 453SQN PEA FLT is to notify airborne and taxying aircraft. Pearce flying Squadrons will be advised by Pearce Meteorological Office.
Alternatively you can find SIGMET/ AIRMET at http://www.bom.gov.au/aviation/warnings/graphical-sigmet/

Question 41

What is the VMC criteria we use in YPEA CIRA?

Answer 41

The VMC Criteria we use in PEA CIRA is CLASS D VMC criteria. In a class D airspace, ATC service will be provided. Except in an emergency, a clearance is required for all flights in Class D airspace. When Class C and D airspace adjoin laterally, flights at the common boundary will be given services applicable to Class D airspace.

Question 42

What is drogue gun?

Answer 42

After ejecting out of the aircraft, a drogue gun in the seat fires a metal slug that pulls a small parachute, called a drogue parachute, out of the ejection seat. This slows the aircrew’s rate of descent and stabilizes the seat’s altitude and trajectory.

Question 43

What happens when you press SYS=GPS in your checks

Answer 43

The ODS Key ‘SYS=GPS’ will appear when GPS output is valid. When SYS=GPS is pressed, the system time will be updated to read the same as the GPS at the instance of update (if the GPS unlocks or fails after pressing, it will not affect the system time). This time input is not required for sucessful IRU platform alignment, although it is used by the GNSSU inconjunction with position, to aid in the acquisition of satellites.

Question 44

What do you do when HIL is not within limits? What is the LIMIT?

Answer 44

The PC-21 Inertial Referene System uses Horizontal Integrity Limit (HIL) to calculate position accuracy. The limits for the HIL is <0.3nm and if HIL is not within limits, inform the instructor that you will check the limits again when at the ORP. This is due to the inaccuracy of the reading under the weather shed.

Question 45

How do you tell top latches flash and tell tales not visable? Do both cockpits have the same features?

Answer 45

Yellow witness marker not visible, top of the ejection seat is flushed. Both cockpits have the same features.

Question 46

What is BINGO and JOKER, are the values always the same? How do we determine BINGO and JOKER?

Answer 46

“BINGO” fuel is the fuel state whereby an aircraft will be able to recover and land with the required minimum fuel, 230lbs, via low level at 200KIAS.
The values for “BINGO” changes with respect to PTAs.
B/C: 450lbs
A/REM: 400lbs
Gingin: 350lbs
PEA: 260lbs (Assuming recovery is flown 1000ft AGL, 200KIAS to RW36 via left initials to land by 230lbs)
“JOKER” is a pre-briefed fuel state provided for information for the subsequent management of flight. This means “JOKER” may be used as a warning that “BINGO” fuel state may hit soon or to remind you to do certain checks/comms.

Question 47

What is the CIRCUIT direction for all the runways in YPEA and GIG

Answer 47

Right Hand Circuits: RWY 18L, 18R, 23,
Left Hand Circuits: RWY 05, 36L, 36R
Flying circuits in the opposite direction can be requested, but will have lower priority than aircraft flying normal circuits.

Question 48

Are all the turnback direction always into the wind?

Answer 48

No. Turnback for Runway 05 will be to the left due populace towards southeast.

Question 49

What is a Lockwheel Crossover?

Answer 49

A locked wheel crossover circuit prevents the potential loss of control during braking when one wheel encounters a low-friction surface such as a wet or icy runway.
If the speed of one wheel is less than 30% of the other’s, the brakes are automatically released. This allows the slow wheel to spin back to within 30% of the other wheel, whereupon normal braking is restored. Locked wheel protection operates above 25 knots.

Question 50

What is the decouple panel for?

Answer 50

The Decouple Panel can be used for 2 purposes.

1. To select the MFD SPLIT to operated the cockpit in tandem/split mode (only functional in the instructor cockpit). In tandem mode, all equivalent displays in either cockpit show identical information. In split mode, a SPLIT caption will illuminate on the decouple panel in the instructor cockpit only. Either cockpit can then select any MFD page without changing the display in the other cockpit.
   2. COMMS 2 MUTE. Function of the COMM 2 switch is only available in the instructor cockpit. When the COMM 2 switch is pressed, the AMU actions the functions that follow: Student U/VHF2 reception is muted, intercom from instructor to student is muted, student is unable to transmit on COMM2.

Question 51

What is the HUMS indicator for?

Answer 51

The Health and Usage Monitoring System (HUMS) is installed mainly for maintenance purposes and is able to record the system health status, fatigue data for the airframe, notifying ground crew when an event is detected as well as recording flight and voice data for accident and incident investigation.

Question 52

How many TACAN channels are there?

Answer 52

The TACAN/DME transceiver is a four channel unit identified by the letters A to D:
Channel A is used to provide TACAN information in A-G mode
Channel B is used to provide DME functionality to the FMS in A-G mode
Channel C is used to provide DME functionality when NAV2 or ILS2
Channel D is used to provide DME functionality when NAV1 or ILS1

Question 53

What are you looking for when you check the propeller/blades?

Answer 53

When checking the propeller blades,

1. Restraints removed.
2. Check condition of blades and de-ice boots.
3. make sure the propeller is rotated in the clockwise direction when viewed from the cockpit and that there are no unusual noises when rotating the blade

Question 54

What are you looking for when you check the tyres

Answer 54

Check for TYRE DAMAGE- Check for damage to the widewall cords or a bulge or separation.

• Any cut or damage that extends across a tread rib
• Any part of the tread rib is missing and shows protector ply
• Any cracks in the groove between the treads shoes the protector ply for more than 6mm (0.25 inch)
• Any tread damage includes across the trend that show the protector ply for more than 6 cm.

Check for TYRE WEAR
- Any flat spots that may potentially lead to a loss of directional control due to skidding and hydroplaning occurring.
A flat spot is when the tyre is worn to the bottom of one or more groove for more than 1/8 of the circumference.

Question 55

Which hand should you use to activate the EO2?

Answer 55

You should use your left hand to pull the EO2 handle as it is located on the left side of the ejection seat and also because the right hand has to control the stick to fly the aircraft.

Question 56

How many channels are there in the AMU? What does each channel cater for?

Answer 56

The Audio Management Unit (AMU) comrpises 3 separate channels:

1. Channel 1 (provides comms and control of radio to front cockpit );
2. Channel 2 (provides comms and control of radio to rear cockpit);
3. Channel 3 (serves as a back up to provide full comms when channel 1 and 2 fails)

Question 57

ECS MIN/MAX?

Answer 57

When TEMP is set to MIN, a lower limit of 5 degrees celcius will be controlled. When set to MAX, an upper limit of 65 degrees celcius will be controlled

Question 58

How long does it take your the engine to stop working after you pull the FUEL HYD CUTOFF? Full power / half power/ ground idle

Answer 58

Flight Idle - 16-17s
Half power - 10-11s
Ground IDLE - 30s

Question 59

When will the fuel booster pump turn on and and how will you know when they are on?

Answer 59

There is a booster pump on each collector tank. Purpose of this pump is to deliver fuel to the engine:
1. During engine start
2. When there is low inlet pressure to the engine-driven pump
3. When fuel filter is blocked
4. After a period of negative G flights.
The switch can be found on the Left Console, labelled “PUMP L” and “Pump R” respectively.
The switch has 3 Options:
1. Off - Pump is off
2. Auto - Pump is controlled by FCMC
3. PUMP L/R - Pump is on.
When Throttle is “OFF”, the booster pump does not work. On engine pre-start checks, as soon as the throttle reaches IDLE, booster pumps start to operate. When the booster pump is turned ON, “F-PMP” shows up on the DWP (Indicating that an electrical fuel pump is energised), a green annunciations on the MFD’s “Fuel” page comes on, pump status displayed on “SYS” page as well.

Question 60

What is the turn radius of the PC-21 at 200KTS

Answer 60

At 200 KIAS and 30° AOB, the turn radius of the PC-21 is about 1.5nm

Question 61

If the back OXY is off and the front is on, what caption will you see on the MFD

Answer 61

Assuming the instructor switch is set to to rear, The OXY FLOW caption will be shown. When the front oxy switch is turned on, it will energise the OBOGS PRSOV. The system will still disperse oxygen to the rear cockpit when actuated from the front cockpit. The rear cockpit flow indicator will remain in the same state (flow indicator remains black) for more than 30s and this will trigger the red OXY FLOW caption on the MFD
A black flow indicator shows that there is a system blockage or the pilot is not breathing.

Question 62

What is the maximum angle of deflection for ailerons?

Answer 62

-17.5° ± 0.5° UP

+14 ± 0.5° DOWN

Question 63

When will roll spoilers come into effect?

Answer 63

When AIleron deflects from 4 degrees to 13 degrees onwards, roll spoilers come into effect. Roll spoilers have a maximum travel of 40 degrees.

Question 64

What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle?

Answer 64

Max Nose wheel steering angle is 11.5 degrees left and right. However the Nose wheel can caster up to 60 degrees via tow or differential breaking

Question 65

How to calculate cabin altitude?

Answer 65

Cabin Altitude = Aircraft Altitude / 2 + 10% of aircraft altitude (when aircraft altitude is <10,000ft)
OR
Cabin Altitude = Aircraft Altitude / 2 + 1000’ (when aircraft altitude is >10,000ft)

Question 66

Why does TCN only be green when the canopy is closed?

Answer 66

TACAN is green to indicate that TACAN is “online”. TACAN emits radiation, therefore it only works when canopy is closed to prevent radiation.

Question 67

Why is one exhaust of the PC-21 higher than the other?

Answer 67

One exhaust is higher than the other in order to counteract the slipstream effect caused by the propeller. This reduces the adverse yaw of the slipstream and keeps the trim changes minimum during flight.

Question 68

Why is there a need to use GPU?

Answer 68

This is to preserve the aircraft internal batteries due to high voltage load required for engine start.

Question 69

How do you tell if your batts are discharging?

Answer 69

On the MFD ELEC page: AMBER “BATT DISCHARGE” or “OVER 60A DISCHARGE”

Question 70

What is the acceptable tolerance for TCN check?

Answer 70

3 radial +/- 0.3TAC +/-

Question 71

1) What are the criterias for SVFR to be approved? How many SVFR aircrafts can be approved in LFA, GIG CIRA and PEA CIRA?

Answer 71

SVFR will not be approved only for reduced visibility. It can only be approved if separation between SVFR circuit traffic and IFR traffic will not be compromised or difficult to maintain. In the LFA, only 1 SVFR callsign is allowed. For GIG CIRA, no more than 4 SVFR aircraft is allowed in circuit. For PEA CIRA, no more than 2 SVFR is allowed in circuit.

Question 72

Braking distance in Mode 2 and 3

Answer 72

Mode 2: Landing ground roll distance = 2100ft

Mode 3: Landing ground roll distance = 2100ft + 8%(manual braking) = 2268ft

Question 73

What is slow lane ops

Answer 73

After landing, aircraft are to exit the runway and move to the ‘slow lane’ (i.e. the exit side) when the aircraft is under control and below 50KIAS.
Slow lane ops will not be carried out during night flying

Question 74

What is the difference between the lane and main runway?

Answer 74

Main runway is lighted, and can be used for full stop landings while the lane runway is not lighted, and is mainly used for touch-n-go due to its narrower width (98ft)

Question 75

If instrument approach to RWY 36 is not available, what options are there?

Answer 75

If Merlo Release is unavailable and instrument approach to RWY 36 is delayed/denied while RWY 36 requires VFR recoveries, Gnangara Release will be released to PEA ATC. Gnangara Release (11DME PTH, SFC-1500ft) facilitates visual approach to RWY 36.

Question 76

How far is the downwind track from the runway

Answer 76

5000ft

Question 77

Where is the furthest we can go with 450LB set as our BINGO?

Answer 77

190lbs is required to recover from COW ; 315R ; 73TAC; 200KIAS low level recovery to RW36 initials to FAF/IP with 260lbs.
30 lbs remaining is to VRIAP to land before it hits minimum fuel state of 230lbs.

Question 78

Minimum distance for takeoff and landing

Answer 78

Minimum length of runway required is 5000ft.

Question 79

Runway surface for main and lane runway

Answer 79

Asphalt for all runways.

Question 80

Name and explain the types of hydroplaning

Answer 80

1. Dynamic Hydroplaning: Happens when water lifts the wheel off the runway because a wedge of water builds up in front of the wheel lifting it as rotates. This is dangerous as the wheels does not have any traction or braking.
2. Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning: Happens when the wheel locks up and the rubber of the tires begins to melt and trapped water under the tires turns into steam. The more the tire rides on stream, the more it melts.
3. Viscous Hydroplaning: When Oil or rubber combines with water on the runway it forms a layer of liquid that the tires can not break through. It is dangerous especially on asphalt runways.

Question 81

What is a dry, damp or wet runway?

Answer 81

Dry: A runway that is neither wet nor contaminated.
Damp: when the surface is not dry but when the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.
Wet: When the runway surface is covered with water or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water

Question 82

Name all the Prohibited, restricted and danger areas in Pearce restricted airspace

Answer 82

Restricted areas:

1. Bindoon Army Range R129 and R134A/B
2. Bindoon Extended
3. Lancelin Air Weapons Range R146
4. Muchea Air Weapons Range R179
5. Western Australian Exercise Airspace (WAXA) R192B

Danger areas:
1. Muchea small arms range D197

Question 83

What is landing one on? Are solo trainees allowed to do it?

Answer 83

Solo trainees are not allowed to land when the runway is not clear

Question 84

State all solo trainee restrictions

Answer 84

1. Solo trainees are not to carry out any manoeuvres not specifically cleared on the solo trainee clearance form (unless in emergency situations)
2. Solo trainees will not taxi behind another aircraft in the ORP.
3. Solo trainees are not permitted to perform a rolling take-off.
4. solo trainees are prohibited from conducting ‘land back’ and ‘turn back’ in the event of after take-off emergencies.
5. Solo trainees are prohibited from conducting a ‘leave and reenter’ in PTA (unless chased by QFI)
6. Solo trainees are prohibited from flying a right initial for RWY 36 due to proximity to Perth airspace (unless chased by QFI).
7. solo trainees will not provide chase for flight lead if he has an emergency

Question 85

What does the ELT do?

Answer 85

An ELT known as Emergency Locator Transmitter is provided to transmit radio signals to help search and rescue services to locate the aircraft.

The ELT can be operated either automatically or manually, and transmits on three international emergency frequencies:
− 121.5 MHz
− 243.0 MHz
− 406.025 MHz

A g sensor switch senses the longitudinal acceleration of the aircraft and operates the ELT when it senses a threshold g level over a set time period. The time function prevents inadvertent operation of the ELT.

3 Position Switch Functions:
ON: Causes the ELT to transmit
ARMED: Permits automatic operation of the ELT upon operation of the g switch mounted in the ELT
TEST/RESET: Initiates the self test function

Question 86

What does the D-LINK do?

Answer 86

1. Datalink is used by transmitting information between ATC and the aircraft.
2. Datalink is then also used to supplement lookout and maintain situational awareness of circuit traffic by showing other aircraft’s position on the radar.
3. Datalink can also be used to supply simulated targets for target location and strikes.

Question 87

What’s guard frequency?

Answer 87

Each of the two U/VHF radio transceivers has a main transceiver and a guard receiver. The main transceiver is used for normal transmit and receive operations. The guard receiver allows the operator to select a guard frequency, which is monitored independently of the main transceiver frequency. It is used for emergency communications. The guard frequencies used are 121.5 MHz (VHF) and 243.0 MHz (UHF).

Question 88

What’s MON V/MON U?

Answer 88

MON V/MON U means to monitor the guard frequencies which are 121.5 MHz (VHF) (civilian) and 243.0 MHz (UHF) (Military). When MON V is selected on the L2 ODS key it means that the VHF guard frequency is being monitored on COMM 1. When MON U is selected on the R2 ODS key it means that the UHF guard frequency is being monitored on COMM 2. The gaurd frequencies are monitored on COMM 1 and 2 independent of the main transceiver frequency.

Question 89

What’s Detote?

Answer 89

The detote fuel valve at power up is the total gauged fuel and this value can be modified via the UFCP to reflect any ungauged fuel that is carried.

Question 90

What are the external pumps for?

Answer 90

External pumps are used to pump fuel from external fuel tanks that can be fitted to increase fuel capacity.

Question 91

How do you know if your fuel tanks are imbalanced?

Answer 91

MFD indicates “FUEL IMBAL” and “FUEL IMBALANCE”.

EMD will also indicate fuel imbalance using arrows as a visual representation

Question 92

What does the defog lever do?

Answer 92

The DEFOG Lever sends conditioned air to the canopy-deog air diffusers. When set to MAX DEFOG, the temperature of the conditioned air is held at 75 degrees celcius. For maximum defog effect, the cockpit air vents must be closed as the airflow generated by the VCS fan would augment the ACS Defog. This is mainly used during humid conditions where water would condense on the canopy, restricting the pilot’s view to the outside.

Question 93

What’s throttle rig for?

Answer 93

For maintenance use only

Question 94

What’s master arm for?

Answer 94

Used to arm the weapon system on the PC-21, which is not applicable to us. Hence we will always set the Master Arm to OFF.

Question 95

What’s decouple panel for?

Answer 95

The Decouple Panel can be used for 2 purposes.
1. To select the MFD SPLIT to operated the cockpit in tandem/split mode (only functional in the instructor cockpit). In tandem mode, all equivalent displays in either cockpit show identical information. In split mode, a SPLIT caption will illuminate on the decouple panel in the instructor cockpit only. Either cockpit can then select any MFD page without changing the display in the other cockpit.

2.COMMS 2 MUTE. Function of the COMM 2 switch is only available in the instructor cockpit. When the COMM 2 switch is pressed, the AMU actions the functions that follow: Student U/VHF2 reception is muted, intercom from instructor to student is muted, student is unable to transmit on COMM2

Question 96

1) What caption is shown if front OXY is on, but rear OXY is off? (Assuming instructor switch set to rear)
2) What caption is shown if EO2 handle is pulled?

Answer 96

1) The OXY FLOW caption will be shown. When the front oxy switch is turned on, it will energize the OBOGS and OBOGS PRSOV. The system will still dispearse oxygen to the rear cockpit when actuated from the front cockpit. The rear cockpit flow indicator will reamin in the same state (flow indicator remains black) for more than 30s and this will trigger the red OXY FLOW caption on the MFDA black flow indicator shows that there is a system blockage or the pilot is not breathing.
2) No Caption will be shown when the EO2 handle is pulled because the OBOGS and EO2 are 2 separate systems however they are connected to the emergency regulator connector which is connected to the pilots mask. The SSOM-C is unable to regulate or detect changes/malfunctions in the EO2 system.

Question 97

1) What is the braking distance for the different modes

Answer 97

Mode 1 and 2 have the same braking distance of 3100ft (difference is mode 2 does not have anti-skid) while mode 3 (manual braking) braking distance is 3348ft

Question 98

1) So what type of situations will you put it to dump then? Does ACS PRSOV close as well when you set it to DUMP?

Answer 98

The ACS is supplied with bleed-air from the engine compressor and produces conditioned which passes the cockpit. The cockpit pressurisation is controlled by Valves in the Rear cockpit wall automatically controlling the outflow of air to maintain a pressurised cockpit. The Pilot can have a selected of 1) Conditioned Air with Pressurisation NORM 2) Conditioned Air without Pressurisation DUMP 3) No Conditioned Air and without Pressurisation RAM In a situation after landing and the cabin is over pressured. The RAOV opens to equalise the cockpit to ambient pressure when the CABIN PRESS selector on the ECS control panel is set to the PRESS DUMP position and when all 3 WOW switches indicate that the aircraft is on the ground. With Conditioned Air supplying you the cockpit but no Pressurisation, and the ACS PRSOV does not closed when set to DUMP.

Question 99

For config aircraft? What’s the gliding distance?

Answer 99

Dirty a/c- 130kts, 1nm per 1000 ft, at a rate of 1600(GR DN), 2000(GR DN + FLAPS T/O), 2200(GR DN + FLAPS LDG) ft/min

Question 100

Why does GinGin CIRA exlcude the area to the south within 12TAC of PEA

Answer 100

we are not able to find this in the offical pubs but with reference to airservices australia aerodrome procesdures charts we are able to deduce that the 12 tac boundary is in place to allow pearce approach to facilitate IFR traffic on a 11DME arc to RWY 18L. This makes it easier for approach to handle traffic and not worry about traffic infirnging into GINGIN Cira

Question 101

What do the different lengths and widths mean to you when you fly circuits?

Answer 101

Different runway length tells me that the VR is different and I need to look out for different things when base turn (Eg. 2.5 wing chord from threshold). A shorter width also tells me that R/W 18R/36L is primarily used for touch-and-go purposes. With a shorter runway width, I cannot put in the same “Aspect mentsl picture” on finals as a longer width runway and I need to adjust this according. A shorter width runway even on correct glideslope and aspect will make me look like I’m higher on Finals.

Question 102

If i have engine fire on upwind, what power setting is “min pract”?

Answer 102

If on upwind, select/maintain FULL POWER and complete after T/O checks. Once passed 1000ft AGL, ~60% TQ and PMS MAN, climb to low key. If outside of CIRA and below 1000ft AGL, select/maintain FULL POWER to climb. Passing 1000ft AGL, ~60% TQ and PMS, climb to groove height

Question 103

When you set TRIM AIL PWR off, will the spoilers work? why?

Answer 103

No, this switch when off stops electrical power to the servo solenoid which then closes, cutting off hydraulic power to the aileron and spoiler actuators and the powered brakes andanti-skid valves. Hence, there will be a loss of spoiler function.

Question 104

1) What is the maximum wingspan of an approaching aircraft that will still permit another aircraft to enter the ORP

Answer 104

Below 40.5m(133ft).

Question 105

What is the stall speed of the PC21? State the symptoms approaching a stall and in the stall.

Answer 105

Clean a/c: 97kts
Flaps ; 86kts
Symptoms of approaching stall
- Low and reducing airspeed
- High nose attitude
- Sloppy controls, but adequate to fly the aircraft
- Aural stall warning
- Light Buffet

Fully developed stall

• Heavy buffet
• Lost of altitude (sink)
• Nose drop
• Possible wing drop

Question 106

What is the separation required when taxying?

Answer 106

For all taxiways: 500ft for day, 1000ft for night

For formation aircraft:
Main Taxiways: 250ft separation left/right of centreline
Taxiway Echo: 500ft separation on centreline

Question 107

What are the criteria for SVFR to be approved? How many SVFR aircrafts can be approved in LFA, GIG CIRA and PEA CIRA?

Answer 107

SVFR will not be approved only for reduced visibility. It can only be approved if separation between SVFR circuit traffic and IFR traffic will not be compromised or difficult to maintain. In the LFA, only 1 SVFR callsign is allowed. For GIG CIRA, no more than 4 SVFR aircraft is allowed in circuit. For PEA CIRA, no more than 2 SVFR is allowed in circuit.

Question 108

1) Since you said instrument approach to RWY 36 is not available, what other options are available if it is RW36?

Answer 108

If Merlo Release is unavailable and instrument approach to RWY 36 is delayed/denied while RWY 36 requires VFR recoveries, Gnangara Release will be released to PEA ATC. Gnangara Release (11DME PTH, SFC-1500ft) facilitates visual approach to RWY 36.

Question 109

Where is the furthest we can go with 450LB set as our BINGO?

Answer 109

With reference to EM it states that 190lbs is required to recover from COW ; 315R ; 73TAC; 200KIAS low level recovery to RW36 initials to FAF/IP with 260lbs. 30 lbs remaining is to VRIAP to land before it hits minimum fuel state of 230lbs.

Question 110

When you set TRIM AIL PWR off, will the spoilers work? why?

Answer 110

No, this switch when off stops electrical power to the servo solenoid which then closes, cutting off hydraulic power to the aileron and spoiler actuators and the powered brakes andanti-skid valves. Hence, there will be a loss of spoiler function.

Question 111

So in PEA what surface is our runway? GIN GIN?

Answer 111

18L/36R: Asphalt (F) 18R/36L: Asphalt (F) 05/23: Asphalt (F) 08/26: Asphalt (F) Information can be found under “PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS”, Where the Pavement Classification Number (PCN) states the quality of the Runway in code words. There are 2 codes for Runway surface: “R” (Rigid) and “F” (Flexible). Rigid surfaces are most typically Concrete and Flxible surfaces are most typically Asphalt. The differences in these 2 surfaces comes with prices and durability. Asphalt is cheaper to construct and will not last as long as Concrete in terms of durability. However, for a non-busy airbase like ours that is non-busy and takes in normally light aircrafts, a flexible runway would suffice.

Question 112

How far must the aircraft be ahead to be cleared to land one on?

Answer 112

Aircraft must be at least 3000ft ahead (dry) or 6000ft ahead (wet) SOP Chapter 6 Page 11

Question 113

Which stud ‘#’ is guard frequency?

Answer 113

Stud 30

Question 114

What is a turnback ?

Answer 114

Turnback is a manoeuver where the aircraft is turned back to the reciprocal runway (opposite direction to take off runway). It is usually attempted when the aircraft experiences engine failure on upwind. The minimum parameters for turnback is 1000’ AGL and 160KIAS. The aircrew will execute a turn back into the direction the wind to intercept the centreline of the reciprocal runway and capture 140 KIAS. When assured of landing, the aircraft will be configured for landing as per EFATO CAPs.The turnback will only be attempted by a QFI. Solo trainees are not allowed to conduct a turn back and should prioritise flying to groove, airstart or ejection accordingly. The manoevure wil require the aircrew to expeditiously turn back towards the reciprocal runway and to lower the landing gear via emergency means. The aircrew should contine to maintian glide parameters with a minimum airpseed of 120 KIAS.

Question 115

If turn back parameters are met above PEA Runways, and you have a direct headwind, which direction do you turn back to?

Answer 115

The turnback turn direction towards the reciprocal heading during a direct headwind on upwind:

• PEA RW 18 Turnback: Right
• PEA RW 36 Turnback: Left
• PEA RW 23 Turnback: Right
• PEA RW 05 Turn back: turn direction is limited to only the left due to populace (bullsbrook town) to the south east of the threshold.

Question 116

how do you egress ? state the procedures when the aircraft is moving all the way to exiting the aircraft and walking away

Answer 116

• Throttle idle
• Apply brakes to stop aircraft
• Before abandoning the aircraft, consider setting parking brake depending on the terrain and nature of the emergency to prevent aircraft movement after egress.

Emergency egress
If an emergency exit from the cockpit is necessary, carry out the following essential actions:
− Install the seat safety pin and the CFS safety pin, if time allows
− Leg restraints release
− Oxygen hose disconnect
− PSP connector release
− Harness unlock and open straps
− Canopy open
− Exit cockpit
If smoke is present, run upwind away from the smoke .If the canopy cannot be opened, the front cockpit will operate the MDC and the rear cockpit aircrew will use the canopy breaker knife. Pull the pin forward to release the knife. Hold the knife’s curved edge facing rearwards. Strike the canopy with a back handed movement approximately 50cm above the longeron in line with the knees

Question 117

What is dry damp and flooded ? definition

Answer 117

Damp - The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture
Wet - The surface is soaked but there is no standing water
Flooded - Extensive standing water is visible

Question 118

Can you land on a 4000ft runway

Answer 118

SOP States that the minimum runway length for take off and landing is 5000ft however it is possible to land on a 4000ft runway. referencing to the Landing total distance of the PC-21, it states the PC-21 has a landing distance of 3100ft from 50ft and moreover when your engine fails after takeoff your brakes revert to mode 3 braking which will give you a landing total distance of 3348ft so it is well within the 4000ft envelope and therefore the PC-21 can land on a 4000ft runway

Question 119

Distance between main runway 18L/36R and the lane runway ?

Answer 119

377ft (114.9m)

Question 120

what is an overshoot ? what does it mean

Answer 120

The aircraft is said to be overshooting (aiming beyond) when the runway numbers appears to move down the windscreen as the descent progresses, and the runway aspect becomes steeper.

Question 121

when you are on base for runway 18R and there are winds coming from 090 are you undershooting or overshooting ?

Answer 121

You are undershooting. You will have to use less AOB and an increased power setting to reduce th rate of descent as you will have an increased time in the base turn

Question 122

Overhsooting winds how do i play with my power and attitude to get me to the centerline ?

Answer 122

When overshooting winds occur, power should be decreased and AOB to be increased due to the reduced time through the base turn. By decreasing power, the rate of descent will increase. If AOB > 45 degrees is needed, consider a wider downwind spacing.

Question 123

Why 200 Kts for weather penetration

Answer 123

• Prevent hail from causing excessive damage to aircraft surface
• To prevent excessive rain water to be ingested by air inlet

Question 124

What are the different degrees for the throttle ?

Answer 124

Off: -5°, Idle: 30°, Max: 85°

Question 125

How do you throttle off ? what are the actions ? what do you have to press ?

Answer 125

There is a detent at IDLE position to prevent throttle being moved aftwards inadvertently. There is a safety catch which must be released to allow the idle-dentent release lever to be raised so that the throttle can be moved aft to OFF position

Question 126

Flaps mechanical or hydraulic ?

Answer 126

They are hydraulically powered, connected mechanically and are operated by a single hydraulic actuator.

Question 127

When the instructor switch is set to rear. What happens when you turn off the OXY in the front cockpit, what caption is shown ?

Answer 127

When the instructor switch is set to rear, both switches when turned on will electrically energize the OBOGS and OBOGS PRSOV. When the rear switch OXY is turned on this would lead to oxygen being dispersed in the front cockpit which would result in there not being a change in the flow indicator for 30 seconds resulting in a OXY FLOW caption

Question 128

What happenes when you ACS shut off pull ?

Answer 128

When the ACS shut-off lever is operated, the firewall SOV is mechanically closed preventing conditioned air from flowing into the cockpit air distribution system. The power to the ECS PRSOV and the OBOGS PRSOV is cut off by microswitches. The ECS PRSOV and the OBOGS PRSOV close. The oxygen system, the anti-g, the pressurization and the ACS will not operate. The servo air to the ram-air valves is shut-off by the ECS PRSOV causing the RAIV and the RAOV to open.

Question 129

How do you pull the EMER LDG GR HANDLE actions ?

Answer 129

The EMER LGD GR HANDLE has a button in the middle which must be pressed before it can be pulled

Question 130

what does PSIG stand for ?

Answer 130

Pounds per Square Inch Gauge

Question 131

Distance between main landing gears ?

Answer 131

8.97ft

Question 132

What is a PIU ?

Answer 132

Propeller Interface Unit (PIU)The propeller governor varies propeller pitch to hold Np constant in response to power changes.

• When the propeller RPM (Np) is below governing speed, a power input increases Np
• When the propeller RPM is at governing speed, a power input increases propeller pitch and Np is held constant.

When throttle is off > Propeller is feathered
When throttle is idle > Propeller is unfeathered
When throttle is above idle > Propeller increases pitch to coarse pitch (between feathered/unfeathered)

Question 133

What are all the indications on your system page ?

Answer 133

1. TQ(circular dial and digital)
2. ITT(circular dial and digital)
3. Ng
4. OAT
5. Fuel flow
6. Internal fuel
7. Detote fuel
8. Fuel pump status
9. Brake/parking brake status
10. Cabin altitude.

Question 134

Why will anti-skid caption appear if batts and gens OFF?

Answer 134

With Batts and Gens off, there will be no electrical power to the servo solenoid. With no electrical power, the servo solenoid closes closes under spring pressure and cuts off hydraulic power to the anti skid valves and powered brakes. Hence, the anti-skid system is unavailable and the caption appears.

Question 135

What are the indications of a successful engine relight?

Answer 135

NG should stabilise at 60 - 74% after a successful relight, with higher thrust than on ground (compared to Auto ground idle of ~54% NG) and lower thrust than in the air (compared to Auto flight idle of ~80% NG)

Question 136

How do you differentiate a flameout from a mechanical engine failure?

Answer 136

In a mechanical engine failure:

• There will be grinding sounds from the engine before failure
• Engine torque rapidly decreases/snaps to zero
• Sudden stop in engine
• Loud/rumbling/grinding engine noise

Flameout:

• There will be no grinding sounds from the engine
• The engine torque will gradually decrease
• Gradual wind down
• Rumbling and popping only, no grinding noises

Question 137

In what situations can you attempt immediate relight

Answer 137

SOLO trainees:
If the engine fails after take-off with landing gear up, to convert excess speed to height.
- If above 1000ft AGL, an immediate relight may be attempted to achieve useable thrust for the dive recovery before the Minimum Safe Ejection Altitude.

Question 138

If you’ve pressed AUTO START, how do you stop the auto start process?

Answer 138

1. Do not move the throttle to “idle” within 20 seconds of pressing “Auto start” (The starter will stop automatically if the throttle has not been moved to IDLE within 20 seconds of depressing the AUTO START control)
2. Pressing the “Auto Start” button before start sequence is complete (NG = 54%)
3. Moving the throttle to the fuel cut-off position

Question 139

What are the indications of an incipient spin and when do you carry out the incipient spin CAPs?

Answer 139

Indications;
Both wings are stalled, with one being stalled more than the other. Rolling, pitching, yawing with rapid oscillations where the aircraft may stop and start rotation again.

Recovery:
The first turn of the intentional spin can be considered to be the incipient stage and at any time during this phase, recovery can be affected by smoothly centralizing the controls to the neutral position.

Question 140

In what scenario do you select CABIN PRESS DUMP in flight, what happens to RAIV and RAOV. Also what are the captions/indications that appears.

Answer 140

Cabin Press Dump
1. High cabin pressure
2. Canopy improperly secured
Dump neutralises the cockpit and ambient pressure. By activating dump, the RAOV opens to equalize the cockpit to ambient pressure. RAIV remains closed. DWP indication OVPR Red CAB
MFD indication HI PRESS Red

Question 141

What is the purpose of static dischargers?

Location and number of static dischargers?

Answer 141

The static dischargers dissipate Radio Frequency (RF) noise that is generated by the aircraft in flight. RF noise can cause disruption to low frequency reception and cause VHF interference.
21 static dischargers
Location:
- 2 on each wing tip
- 1 on each aileron
- 1 on each flap fairing
- 3 on each elevator
- 3 on the rudder
- 2 on the aerodynamic fairing under the tail

Question 142

If you encounter smoke/fumes in cockpit on the ground, what action do you carry out?

Answer 142

Open the canopy
Carry out Egress Procedure
Run away from aircraft away from direction of the smoke

Question 143

List the scenarios where you can land with airbrakes?

Answer 143

1. Glide descent at 140KIAS (maintain the glide descent with airbrake out and landing gears down and full flaps selected.

Question 144

What is your throttle position to select PMS-MAN?

Answer 144

It is recommended to have throttle position at mid power selection or lower before selecting PMS MAN.

Question 145

During EFATO CAPs, if you have pulled LDG GR handle down and 3 greens appear on LGCU, do you still need to pull EMER LDG GR?

Answer 145

Yes. During engine failure, the engine is no longer running the main hydraulic pump. Even if there is enough residual hydraulic pressure to fully lower the landing gear, the EMER LDG GR handle still has to be pulled to ensure that the flaps and brakes have sufficient hydraulic pressure to operate to safely land the aircraft.

Question 146

During EFATO CAPSs, if you did not pull LDR GR Handle down, and you pull EMER LDG GR handle, what is shown on the LGCU?

Answer 146

When the EMER LDG GR handle has been operated, it is shown in the pulled position on the MFD HYD page. LGCU will indicate position and status of the landing gear leg: RED if in transit/unlocked, GREEN if locked down, NOT ILLUM if locked up, RED and GREEN if LGCU is receiving conflicting informationNo unique indication will be shown if EMER LDG GR Handle is pulled when LDR GR Handle is not DN

Question 147

What is the thickness of the canopy?

Answer 147

Front Canopy: The Front transparency is moulded from a 10.5mm thick acrylic sheet with a bonded glass fibre reinforcing skirt. The reinforcing skirt has a better protection against foreign object damage (like bird strike) which is an additional layer of 5.75mm acrylic. Rear Canopy: The Rear transparency is moulded from a 6mm thick acrylic sheet with a bonded glass fibre reinforcing skirt.

Question 148

What are the ISS selections and its significance?

Answer 148

ISS: Inter Seat Sequencing is a mode selector for seat firing so that that seat will not collide to each other after ejection by sequencing the timing for each seat eject base on the mode selected.

1. ) ISS Mode (Independent)
   - If the seat handle pulled from the front , the front seat will be ejected immediately and the rear seat is not ejected .
   - If the seat handle pulled from the rear, the rear seat is ejected after a 0.17 second interval and the front seat is not ejected .
2. ) ISS Mode (Rear)
   - If the seat handle pulled from the front, the front seat will eject after a 0.54 second interval and the rear seat is not ejected .
   - If the seat handle pulled from the rear, the rear seat will eject after a 0.17 second interval and the front seat will eject after a 0.54 second interval.

3.) ISS Mode (Both) If the seat handle pulled from the front , the rear seat will eject after a 0.17 second interval and the front seat will eject after a 0.54 second interval. If the seat handle pulled from the rear, the rear seat will eject after a 0.17 second interval and the front seat will eject after a 0.54 second interval.

Question 149

What are the causes and criterias for PINS caption to appear?

Answer 149

The PINS caution is displayed when the conditions that follow occur:
− The ejection seat or CFS pins are not stowed in the correct position (glare shield) when the conditions that follow occur:
● The aircraft is on the ground or in flight
● The engine torque is more then 38%.
● Throttle angle is more than 38°.

− The ejection seat or CFS pins are installed in the correct position and the conditions that follow occur:
● The aircraft is on the ground.
● The canopy is not locked.

Question 150

How do you convert Ft to Meter (e.g. expected to know PC-21 dimensions and the aircraft’s height above ground before you flare in both feet and meters)

Answer 150

1 feet = 0.3048m
1 meter = 3.3ft

PC-21 wing span 29.88 ft ≈ 9m

Question 151

How do you convert ft to nautical mile (you are expected to know how to convert if asked the aircraft altitude in nautical miles)

Answer 151

1 nautical mile = 6076.12 feet

Question 152

What is the system that compensates for the increase in pitch when airbrakes is extended

Answer 152

It is a pitch compensation system. The system moves the pitch trim actuator when the airbrakes are deployed, which then moves the pitch trim tab which compensates for the unwanted nose-up pitch movement.

Question 153

What are the effects of flight when you select flas UP to TO, TO to LDG, LDG to TO, TO to UP?

Answer 153

UP to TO: Significant Pitch Up and Balloon, Speed Reduce
TO to LDG: Slight Pitch Up and Balloon, Speed Reduce
LDG to TO: Slight Pitch Down and Sink, Speed Increase
TO to UP: Significant Pitch Down and Sink, Speed Increase.

Question 154

When you press brakes on/off during downwind checks, which flight displays will show the brakes on/off caption?

Answer 154

MFD HYD/SYS page, Indication by a 2 green “ON” symbolizing both left and right main ldg gr depressed, no caps if brakes are not depressed

Question 155

What are the effects of flight when you retract and extend landing gear?

Answer 155

LDG GR Down- Slight pitch up then pitch down, speed decrease. Because as gears come down, drag is increased at the belly, causing a pitch up moment, then as the speed reduces due to more drag, the a/c pitches down.
LDG GR Up- Slight pitch down then pitch up, speed increase

Question 156

What is the rudder position on ground?

Answer 156

On ground the rudder is set to the take-off position of 7.5 degrees nose right, indicated by the green line on the yaw trim indicator.

Question 157

How do you trim rudder neutral?

Answer 157

Using the Yaw Trim Switch on the Throttle, the trim is set to the aircraft symbol on the trim indicator is pointing to the middle line.

Question 158

Where does you PFD and SFD get its information?

Answer 158

− The Air Data Computer supplies air data to the PFD, the FMS units, the MC and the HUD system
− The RADAR altimeter supplies the PFD, the MC and the HUD system with aircraft height above the ground
− The AOA transmitter supplies AOA data to the PFD, the MFD, the AOA indexers and the audio system

− The Air Data Unit supplies air data to the SFD, which can also supply this data to the PFD if the ADC fails
− The Magnetic Heading Sensor supplies direction data to the SFD, which can also supply this data to the PFD if the ADC fails
− The SFD supplies its own attitude data
− The SFD supplies attitude data to the PFD if the ADC fails.

Question 159

What systems are powered by EMER BATT?

Answer 159

Secondary Flight Display(SFD), secondary Air Data Unit(ADU), Magnetic Heading Sensor(MHS), Inertial Seperator System

Question 160

Why are you not recommended to lower flaps from TO to LDG abruptly by slapping the flap selector lever to LDG?

Answer 160

To prevent from switching the oxygen to “Off” accidentally

Question 161

If you are in the RSAF apron and your speed is increasing to 10 kts, despite being already at throttle idle, what should your actions be?

Answer 161

Use periodical and even braking, then release the brakes to let the a/c accelerate again, avoid riding the brakes (keep pressure on the brake pedals).

Question 162

Park brake or toe brake first ? why set then pump ?

Answer 162

The park brake valve is operated by the PARK BRAKE handle in the front cockpit. The park brake is applied by pulling and turning the PARK BRAKE handle to the parked and locked position and pressing the brake pedals. The park brake valve closes the left and right wheel brake lines to prevent the return of hydraulic fluid when the brake pedals are released. The park brake valve remains closed and the wheel brakes applied, until the PARK BRAKE handle is turned and released to the off position. The park brake valve includes a thermal compensator and a pressure relief valve. When the park brake valve is applied, this couples the left and right brakes, which can then be pressurized by operating either pedal.

Question 163

What damage to prevent for weather penetration

Answer 163

Air is supplied to the engine through a chin intake in the front lower cowling. In extreme cases heavy precipitation may adversely affect engine operation, causing a power lossbecause of severe water ingestion through the air inlet. Hail can cause severe damage to the aircraft surfaces.

Question 164

What type of flaps does the PC-21 have

Answer 164

single slotted, hydraulically powered, fowler flaps

Question 165

Are the flaps hydraulically commanded ?

Answer 165

No they are electrically commanded, hydraulically powered and connected mechanically

Question 166

How long do the flaps take to travel example given ldg to up

Answer 166

From UP to TO: 4-5s From TO to LDG: 4-5s From UP to LDG: 8s-10s

Question 167

what does acs prsov do ? what happens when you pull acs shut off?

Answer 167

When ACS Shut Off is pulled, the OBOGS and ACS PRSOV is closed, normal ECS ventilation of the cockpit is disabled. When ACS PRSOV is closed, this opens up the Ram Air Inlet Valve and Ram Air Outlet Valve, ventilating the cockpit with ram-air, which enters through a NACA duct on the right side of the engine bay and exhausts through the avionics bay. When the OBOGS PRSOV is closed, the PRSOV closes and stops the engine bleed-air supply to the OBOGS and anti-g system.

Question 168

which power supply powers the anti skid ?

Answer 168

The brake system has a Power Brake and Anti-Skid Control Valve (PBACV) which is powered from the main and emergency hydraulic systems and is supplied with 28V DC from the Gen 2 Bus. Thus, the Gen 2 Bus powers the Anti Skid.

Question 169

what is the pms ng value for FLT IDLE and GND IDLE

Answer 169

For borth Ground and Flight Idle: approx 70% NGFor ground, this value is higher than AUTO ground idle (54%), meaning higher taxi speeds (more braking required)For flight, this value is lower than AUTO flight idle (80%), meaning at low IAS, Np <2000 RPM, (more drag and steeper descents)

Question 170

variation of the magnetic heading in pearce?

Answer 170

1 degree W

Question 171

magnetic heading of perth ?

Answer 171

016/196, 060/240

Question 172

cunderdin where is it ? tac and radial ?

Answer 172

Located towards the East of Pearce, at a heading of 087R, 61T. They have 2 runways of 05/23 and 14/32. R/W 14/32 -> 4951’ x 98’ R/W 05/23 -> 6040’ x 98’. It is always our third alternative runway to land.

Question 173

How many firewalls are there in the aircraft ?

Answer 173

There is only 1 firewall in the aircraft that isolated engine from other parts of the A/C.

Question 174

ACS Shut off how does it work

Answer 174

When ACS Shut off lever is pulled, firewall SOV closes and the supply of conditioner air to the cockpit stops. ACS PRSOV (Pressurization) & OBOGS PRSOV (No oxygen and Anti-G system) will close too. ECS PRSOV closes -> Normal ECS ventilation of the cockpit is disabled, for ventilation, you can CABIN PRESS RAM. RAIV and RAOV also automatically opens.

Question 175

What does terma stand for ? find out all the pubs we use and the information that it can give you. Give rough idea on what they give (CHONG M)

Answer 175

TERMA -> Terminal Australia Purpose: Provide details of authorised instrument procedures within Australia for state A/C and other approved users. Contains all the charts of diff aerodromes. GPA (General Planning Australia) Purpose: Same as TERMA. ERSA (En-route Supplement Australia) A pub which it contains vital information for planning a flight and pilot in flight. (Consist of all the AIP, aerodrome) FIHA (Flight information Handbook Australia) Purpose: Consolidate important planning, procedures and regulatory information of a lasting nature, relevant to ADD flying operations, for aircrew and support personnel. Contains: Restricted/Danger areas, CIRA, Airspace limitations, Arrival/Departure procedures SID (Standard information Departure) Contains: Information for pilot to follow when departing or arrival to aerodrome. Kneeboard Contains: Arrival/Departure, WP coordinates, emergency procedures

Question 176

Why ITT below 180 ? what is the phenomenom that causes ITT to drop ? (ONG K, HUGH)

Answer 176

Initially at engine start, there is no air flow through the engine. As the engine starts up, the PC-21 air intake will enter the engine cooling it down as the engine starts up

Question 177

when do not relight the engine ?

Answer 177

Engine should not be relighted if engine fault is caused Siezeure of engine (frozen), FOD ingestion, Engine fire as it will cause an engine mechanical failure

Question 178

“PINS”is ejection seat or CFS pin? (For MFD page)

Answer 178

PINS caption will be displayed on the MFD if either the CFS pin or Seat pin in not stowed properly in the glare shield1) In flight2) A/C on ground, Engine torque more than 38%, Throttle angle more than 38°PINS caption will also be displayed even if the pins are correctly installed when the AC is still on ground and canopy is not locked

Question 179

How do you trim TTI during TTI checks (Left console checls), what extend yuou trim to and what did you go back to?

Answer 179

During TTI checks, you will trim a needle width each way and back to the center green lineLEFT RIGHT LEFT, UP DOWN UP

Question 180

Why up down up, why left right left? Which to do first? (TTI CHECKS)

Answer 180

As the first action left right left is checking the fuction of the of the roll trim it is not neccessarily needed for T/O. The last action up down up will leave the last trim at an aft position, so in case of a trim runaway during T/O the AC will be left to pitch up instead of pitching down which will be easier to control than that of a fore position which causes the AC to pitch down

Question 181

Trim up, elevators trim tab goes up or down? I

Answer 181

Trim up is normally used to counter aft stick force. When the control column is put to aft, the elevators are in up position, hence the trim tabs will be in the downwards position to balance the moments on the elevators. Thus, reducing pilot’s effort to hold on the control column, giving the pilot more capacity to focus on other checks and less physically demanding.

Question 182

I push the button up, A/C pitch up or down? Vice-versa (TTI CHECKS)

Answer 182

A/C pitches down.

Question 183

What is the idea of “Trim Run-away

Answer 183

Trim runaway is indicated with an uncommanded roll or yaw with the TTI showing a runaway. Manual force is expected to be used by the pilot to maintain wings level. Pilot then check the cause by checking TTI, TRIM/AIL PWR status, HYD page, as well as visually looking at the control surfaces.

Question 184

How many orp’s are there and what aircraft do the orp’s cater to ?

Answer 184

4 ORPs, they are the Easterly and Westerly ORPs, 2 on 36R and 2 on 18L. There are a total of 9 slots each on each ORP and it caters to the 4 different aircraft, Hawks, PC-21, F-18 and PC-9 which is already decommisioned.

Question 185

Where can you expect 121.5MHz signal to come from?

Answer 185

The aircraft emergency frequency for emergency communication also known as International Air Distress VHF Guard by the ELT (emergency locator transmitter) Satellites listen for the signals and alert local personnel to the emergency, and the beacon allows search and rescue to find the scene of the accident faster. ELT is like a Personal Locator Beacon GPS which aircrew carry on board. But installed in the A/C in the right rear fuselage. As 121.5MHz is an emergency frequency meant for civilian use, 121.5MHz signal can be expected to come from a civilian aircraft that is experiencing an emergency.

Question 186

What sound would you hear when on MON-V and MON-U? What is the device that makes the sound? What actions do you carry out

Answer 186

Search and Rescue Beacon Equipment(SARBE). SARBE tone. SARBE6-40G produces the sound.

Question 187

will the taxy way elevation affect your alitimeter check ? (LOW K )

Answer 187

Yes. The altimeter check is to check that the indicated altitude is ±25 feet of the airfield elevation. (125-175ft for YPEA, 225-275ft for YGIG)

Question 188

What kind of species of birds do we have around this region? (Western Australia)

Answer 188

Almost 550 species of birds have been recorded in Western Australia. 17 species are endemic to Western Australia. These are Carnaby’s Black-Cockatoo Baudin’s Black-Cockatoo Western Corella Western Rosella Red-capped Parrot Noisy Scrub-bird Red-winged Fairy-wren Black Grasswren Western Bristlebird Dusky Gerygone Western Thornbill Western Wattlebird Kimberley Honeyeater Western Spinebill White-breasted Robin Western Ground Parrot Red-eared Firetail Magpie-Lark

Question 189

What does the red bowser line look like ? signify ?

Answer 189

It is a Red thick line with a thinner black line on both side. Aircrew will Walk on the right of the bowser line if the A/C is on the left. (Rear of A/C behind bowser line) The Bowser line also use as a marking for the bowser truck, where by the bowser truck will have to stop before the bowser to refill the A/C with fuel while ensuring safe distance.

Question 190

How many sheds ? What are they labeled ?

Answer 190

PEA: Three weather sheds; labeled alpha/ bravo/ charlieGIN GIN: two weather sheds; labelled weather shed 1 / 2

Question 191

Where is the fire extinguisher ?

Answer 191

Located on the pillars of the shed.

Question 192

How many slots are there in one shed ?

Answer 192

PEA: 10 slots per shedGIN GIN: 4 slots per shed

Question 193

How to check back rest set to aft ? 2 settings ?

Answer 193

the back rest can be adjusted with retaining knobs on the top left and right side and two spigots at the bottom left and right side of the back rest. the seat has an adjustable backrest why can be forwarded by 41mm to accomodate aircrew with short limb. set to aft by moving the retaining knobs to the rear

Question 194

Where is batt 1 located ? when can you turn on batt 1 after park brake set toe brake pump (ASK SENIORS , PEM , SOP)

Answer 194

Located in the Engine Bay.Turn on BATT 1 only when all aircrew are aboard the left wing after completing external checks. This is to protect any personnel from injury and fatality within the vicinity of the propeller should there be inadvertent prop spin on power up.

Question 195

What does man seat portion disconnect do ? how does it look like ?

Answer 195

Image shown on the right. It disconnects your harness from the pipe fittings in the seat with a single pull, releasing the PSP from the harness

Question 196

MOR Handle does what ?

Answer 196

The MOR Handle (Seat frame right side, black and yellow with safety push button) restarts barostat and drogue gun after failure of the auto system. Can be operated only after the seat has been ejected from the aircraft.

Question 197

GPU connect will the indications always be green ? what if its amber or and not at 28V ? what do you do ?

Answer 197

No. If the External Power Monitor monitors polarity to be incorrect or voltage not between 24 and 30V, it opens the Ground Power Contactor to prevent connection to a/c electrical system. There is no amber GPU caption. If it is not at 28V, check DWP SKID OUT, EMD -ve to +ve Amperes, GPU Schematic shown, Air vents producing air. If beyond limits and GPU Disconnects/Not Avail, engine start using internal batteries (only qualified aircrew and min batt bus voltage met)

Question 198

How do you know what seat height to set to?

Answer 198

For both front and back seats - Look along the top of the glare shield

Question 199

Can you see emer heatset? HOw to see?

Answer 199

You cant really see it. Its stored in a green pouch by the wall, just behind the g suit test button switch. Normally aircrew just touch and feel that its stowed and secured

Question 200

Whats the significance of instructor switch set to the “back?”’

Answer 200

The instructor at the seated at the back will be able to operate the decouple panel, with the ability to activate the MFD SPLIT, COMM 2 STUDE MUTE, student cockpit simulated failure and set up for operational scenarios for air intercept and EW operations.

Question 201

How much money does an RMM cost?

Answer 201

$38000 SGD

Question 202

throttle how to off

Answer 202

Throttle is prevented from inadvertent activation aft of the IDLE postion by an detent located at the IDLE position. A safety catch must be released to allow the idle-detent release lever to be raised for the throttle to be moved to the FUEL OFF position.

Question 203

What is external pumps for?

Answer 203

The external pump switches signal power to the external transfer pumps. When the signal is switched to AUTO the transfer pumps are controlled by the FCMC. The transfer pump status is displayed on the MFD SYS page “ON EXT ON”.

Question 204

What is master arm ? and what are the positions ?

Answer 204

The Master Arm switch is to simulate the weapon systems on the PC-21. The Master Arm switch is installed in the front cockpit only, in the rear cockpit the status of the arm switch is shown in the same position. The 3 positions are ARM, OFF, SIM.

Question 205

what is sufficient and balanced fuel ?

Answer 205

sufficient fuel would be above 1080 pounds as that is the minimum fuel required to operate the PC-21RSAF contract would be 1100lbs + - 20 lbsIf its below 1080 pounds reject the aircraftBalanced would be below 55 lbs difference

Question 206

How much GB in an RMM?

Answer 206

32gb

Question 207

How much does a PC-21 cost?

Answer 207

US$9,000,000 SGD$12,912,390

Question 208

lights significance of all the lights on A/C

Answer 208

Landing lights / Taxi lights landing light on the left and taxy light right from the pilots perspective Landing light angled downward to illuminate runway during final approach Taxy light illuminate taxyway while taxying Navigation light Red left front edge left wingtipgreen right wing front edge right wingtipwhite nav light tail cone NAV lights give aircrafts position heading and status ANTI COL LIGHTS 2 white xenon strobe lights each wing identical and syncronizedRequired on every aircraft to improve visibility to others

Question 209

BTC switch isol what happens ?

Answer 209

When BTC switch is set to ISOL, BTC 1 and BTC 2 will open, which allows for all three electrical buses BATT BUS, GEN 1 BUS and GEN 2 BUS to be isolated from one another. This also permits the BATT BUS to be de-energised, if required, while retaining seevices from GEN 1 BUS and GEN 2 BUS. One scenario where this is applicanble is when Smoke Fumes in cockpit and after GEN 1 and 2 OFF, and fumes are still present, BTC switch ISOL to isolate all three buses. GEN 1 ON and BATT 1 & 2 OFF so that the GEN 1 BUS would not continue powering the BATT BUS as there may be a possibility of fire in the avionics bay.

Question 210

as set means what for air vents air supply lever

Answer 210

air vents can be set to preferencce while supply lever will be set to the middle with no modes selected

Question 211

how do you close the canopy ?

Answer 211

The canopy is latched open to prevent the wind from blowing it close. To close the canopy, pull the canopy open latch release handle in either the front or rear cockpit. Lower and close the canopy. Push the internal operating lever forward until the safety catch engages. To open the canopy, press the lock stop outwards, then pull the internal operating lever rearwards. Push the canopy up until the open latch engages.

Question 212

how to tell 10m cfs blast area ?

Answer 212

The radius of the CFS Blast Area would be until the fuel filler cap of the aircraft to the left and right.

Question 213

ILS 111.9mhz is for which rw? (Avionics setuo checks)

Answer 213

111.9 would be the ILS frequency for RWY36R and 110.7 would be the frequency for RWY18L. There are no instrument landing system for RWY 18R/36L and RWY 05/23 but there is a NDB and TACAN (112.8/75X) for all 3 Runways.

Question 214

Where is remote training area? Radial and distance?

Answer 214

REM is remote ILS/TAC facility: within OMA, 1NM West of Beermullah airfield (PEA 338/025). The REM is fully IFR certified/calibrated, and approaches can be flown to published minima in IMC

Question 215

What is “GRB”, what is it for and how does it looks like?

Answer 215

GRB stands for Glideslope reference bar. It ensures that the approach is not too low or too high when GRB is set to 3.0 degrees. GRB is 6 dashed lines below true horizon line.

Question 216

Why we don’t use HUD for instrument landing?

Answer 216

HUD is not IFR Rated. Furthermore, the info provided on HUD is available on PFD and SFD, and since aircrew need not maintain lookout outside, they do not need to use the HUD.

Question 217

What does 3 degrees means?

Answer 217

3 degrees on GRB means that the GRB is 3 degrees below the true horizon line.

Question 218

Min fuel Emer fuel (BRIEF BY B TONG)

Answer 218

Emergency fuel - 110lbs at FAF/IP (Allows 1 missed approach and land visually at same airfield before reaching min fuel) Minimum fuel - 230lbs at FAF/IP (Allows 1 missed approach and divert to land before reaching EMER fuel.)

Question 219

how much difference can there be from detote and actual fuel

Answer 219

Max 1lb

Question 220

find out hil

Answer 220

Horizontal integrity limit, calculated by IRS(via something called IRS Kalman filtering) to determine positional accuracy using information from the GNSSU

Question 221

find out how many bulleyes and where they are?

Answer 221

Bullseye 1: PEA Bullseye 2: Cunderdin (Local Nav RTE), GIG (Geraldton RTE) for nav sorties / REM for normal sorties Bullseye 3: GIG (Local Nav RTE), Geraldton (Geraldton RTE) for nav sorties/GIG for normal sorties

Question 222

find out where the bullseye is focused to?

Answer 222

Tacan station

Question 223

More that 0.3 hil can you continue ?

Answer 223

Yes, check again during pretake off checks

Question 224

each squadron write down every callsigns they use (e.g. solo etc)

Answer 224

Hawks (79SQN) = Phoenix Callsign series: 80s & 90s RSAF (130SQN)= Eagle Callsign series: 800 (duals) & 700 & 900 (solos) RAAF PC-21 (2FTS) = Viper Callsigns series: 01 - 70 and 600 series2FTS, 130SQN Test flight = Tango. RSAF formation = Cyclone, Tango, Storm, Monsoon. 2FTS formation = Sabot, Salvo, Samba, Stinger, SnakeEye, Stinger. 2FTS SOLO = Cygnet, Sierra, Dugite. 79SQN formation = Devil, Fury, Ghost, Raptor.

Question 225

active not active ? eg gingin runway 08 or gingin active runway 08 ?

Answer 225

In the ATIS, it will either state “Active Gingin R/W08” or “Gingin R/W08”. “Active” means that the particular runway is active.

Question 226

what all the stud numbers are ?

Answer 226

stud01 - pearce airways clearance delivery (pearce delivery) 134.10stud02 - pearce ground 127.25stud03 - pearce tower 118.30stud04 - pearce approach 130.20stud05 - pearce centre - north 135.90stud06 - pearce centre - west 123.30stud07 - muchea AWR (R178) 259.20stud09 - pearce ATIS 316.10stud12 - gingin ground 267.00stud13 - gingin tower 118.50stud14 - PTA alpha 261.80stud15 - PTAs bravo, charlie 263.20stud16 - PTAs delta, echo, foxtrot, golf, hotel 260.70

Question 227

atis cloud base given in agl or amsl

Answer 227

AGL

Question 228

What are the 2 things cadets must do to assist QFI stated in the Captains brief

Answer 228

The two things that a cadet has todo to assist the QFI would be to Help himpull the EMER LDG GR HANDLE when the landing gear level is lowered Secondly would be to call out speed when the speed drops below 120KIAS

Question 229

How does the red line look like in the Shed Alpha,Bravo,Charlie?

Answer 229

A horizontal red line with 2 black lines surrounding that runs across the sheds. Bowser truck should not cross the bowser line

Question 230

Why GRB 03.0 degrees? How it looks like on the HUD? Why instrument approaches cannot use HUD?

Answer 230

03.0 degrees glideslope is the standard angle to lose 300ft/nm and 600ft/m. GRB is shown as a dashed line below the horizon line. A 03.0degrees angle is set from the horizon line to the GRB. HUD on PC-21 is not IFR rated. The primary and secondary flight instrument is the PFD and SFD respectively.

Question 231

How to set Callsign on FMS?

Answer 231

Example Eagle “841” = “EGLE841”

Question 232

What is the 3 boxes below the PFD AI?

Answer 232

Turn indicator signifies rate of turn

Question 233

What are the turn back directions for all runways ? if you have a crosswind from the right which way do you turnback ?

Answer 233

Turnbacks will be towards the wind to prevent the aircraft from being blown further from the runway threshold, causing it to overshoot. For headwinds, the aircraft will turn to the direction of the circuit.

Question 234

During egress why do you not put the CFS pin in ? when the CFS pin is in can you close the canopy ?

Answer 234

No you cant close the canopy if the CFS pin is in

Question 235

How can you tell where the source of fire is from ?

Answer 235

By observing the colour of the smoke. A white coloured smoke will inidcate an electrical fire and a black smoke would indicate an engine fire

Question 236

How long does it take to reach 3 greens after gears down ?

Answer 236

5seconds extension, 4 seconds retract

Question 237

Transition time for services ?Flaps Landing gear Airbrakes

Answer 237

LDG Gr extend 5 sec, retract 4 sec. FLAPS 4 to 5 sec. AIRBRAKES 2 sec.

Question 238

During ejection, where does the front and rear seat go?

Answer 238

rear seat goes right, front seat left

Question 239

Park brake or toe brake first ? why set then pump ?

Answer 239

The park brake valve is operated by the PARK BRAKE handle in the front cockpit. The park brake is applied by pulling and turning the PARK BRAKE handle to the parked and locked position and pressing the brake pedals. The park brake valve closes the left and right wheel brake lines to prevent the return of hydraulic fluid when the brake pedals are released. The park brake valve remains closed and the wheel brakes applied, until the PARK BRAKE handle is turned and released to the off position. The park brake valve includes a thermal compensator and a pressure relief valve. When the park brake valve is applied, this couples the left and right brakes, which can then be pressurized by operating either pedal.

Question 240

What damage to prevent for weather penetration

Answer 240

Air is supplied to the engine through a chin intake in the front lower cowling. In extreme cases heavy precipitation may adversely affect engine operation, causing a power lossbecause of severe water ingestion through the air inlet. Hail can cause severe damage to the aircraft surfaces.

Question 241

What type of flaps does the PC-21 have

Answer 241

single slotted, hydraulically powered, fowler flaps

Question 242

Are the flaps hydraulically commanded ?

Answer 242

No they are electrically commanded, hydraulically powered and connected mechanically

Question 243

How long do the flaps take to travel example given ldg to up

Answer 243

From UP to TO: 4-5s From TO to LDG: 4-5s From UP to LDG: 8s-10s

Question 244

what does acs prsov do ? what happens when you pull acs shut off?

Answer 244

When ACS Shut Off is pulled, the OBOGS and ACS PRSOV is closed, normal ECS ventilation of the cockpit is disabled. When ACS PRSOV is closed, this opens up the Ram Air Inlet Valve and Ram Air Outlet Valve, ventilating the cockpit with ram-air, which enters through a NACA duct on the right side of the engine bay and exhausts through the avionics bay. When the OBOGS PRSOV is closed, the PRSOV closes and stops the engine bleed-air supply to the OBOGS and anti-g system.

Question 245

which power supply powers the anti skid ?

Answer 245

The brake system has a Power Brake and Anti-Skid Control Valve (PBACV) which is powered from the main and emergency hydraulic systems and is supplied with 28V DC from the Gen 2 Bus. Thus, the Gen 2 Bus powers the Anti Skid.

Question 246

what is the pms ng value for FLT IDLE and GND IDLE

Answer 246

For borth Ground and Flight Idle: approx 70% NGFor ground, this value is higher than AUTO ground idle (54%), meaning higher taxi speeds (more braking required)For flight, this value is lower than AUTO flight idle (80%), meaning at low IAS, Np <2000 RPM, (more drag and steeper descents)

Question 247

variation of the magnetic heading in pearce?

Answer 247

1 degree W

Question 248

magnetic heading of perth ?

Answer 248

016/196, 060/240

Question 249

cunderdin where is it ? tac and radial ?

Answer 249

Located towards the East of Pearce, at a heading of 087R, 61T. They have 2 runways of 05/23 and 14/32. R/W 14/32 -> 4951’ x 98’ R/W 05/23 -> 6040’ x 98’. It is always our third alternative runway to land.

Question 250

How many firewalls are there in the aircraft ?

Answer 250

There is only 1 firewall in the aircraft that isolated engine from other parts of the A/C.

Question 251

ACS Shut off how does it work

Answer 251

When ACS Shut off lever is pulled, firewall SOV closes and the supply of conditioner air to the cockpit stops. ACS PRSOV (Pressurization) & OBOGS PRSOV (No oxygen and Anti-G system) will close too. ECS PRSOV closes -> Normal ECS ventilation of the cockpit is disabled, for ventilation, you can CABIN PRESS RAM. RAIV and RAOV also automatically opens.

Question 252

What does terma stand for ? find out all the pubs we use and the information that it can give you. Give rough idea on what they give (CHONG M)

Answer 252

TERMA -> Terminal Australia Purpose: Provide details of authorised instrument procedures within Australia for state A/C and other approved users. Contains all the charts of diff aerodromes. GPA (General Planning Australia) Purpose: Same as TERMA. ERSA (En-route Supplement Australia) A pub which it contains vital information for planning a flight and pilot in flight. (Consist of all the AIP, aerodrome) FIHA (Flight information Handbook Australia) Purpose: Consolidate important planning, procedures and regulatory information of a lasting nature, relevant to ADD flying operations, for aircrew and support personnel. Contains: Restricted/Danger areas, CIRA, Airspace limitations, Arrival/Departure procedures SID (Standard information Departure) Contains: Information for pilot to follow when departing or arrival to aerodrome. Kneeboard Contains: Arrival/Departure, WP coordinates, emergency procedures

Question 253

Why ITT below 180 ? what is the phenomenom that causes ITT to drop ? (ONG K, HUGH)

Answer 253

Initially at engine start, there is no air flow through the engine. As the engine starts up, the PC-21 air intake will enter the engine cooling it down as the engine starts up

Question 254

when do not relight the engine ?

Answer 254

Engine should not be relighted if engine fault is caused Siezeure of engine (frozen), FOD ingestion, Engine fire as it will cause an engine mechanical failure

Question 255

“PINS”is ejection seat or CFS pin? (For MFD page)

Answer 255

PINS caption will be displayed on the MFD if either the CFS pin or Seat pin in not stowed properly in the glare shield1) In flight2) A/C on ground, Engine torque more than 38%, Throttle angle more than 38°PINS caption will also be displayed even if the pins are correctly installed when the AC is still on ground and canopy is not locked

Question 256

How do you trim TTI during TTI checks (Left console checls), what extend yuou trim to and what did you go back to?

Answer 256

During TTI checks, you will trim a needle width each way and back to the center green lineLEFT RIGHT LEFT, UP DOWN UP

Question 257

Why up down up, why left right left? Which to do first? (TTI CHECKS)

Answer 257

As the first action left right left is checking the fuction of the of the roll trim it is not neccessarily needed for T/O. The last action up down up will leave the last trim at an aft position, so in case of a trim runaway during T/O the AC will be left to pitch up instead of pitching down which will be easier to control than that of a fore position which causes the AC to pitch down

Question 258

Trim up, elevators trim tab goes up or down? I

Answer 258

Trim up is normally used to counter aft stick force. When the control column is put to aft, the elevators are in up position, hence the trim tabs will be in the downwards position to balance the moments on the elevators. Thus, reducing pilot’s effort to hold on the control column, giving the pilot more capacity to focus on other checks and less physically demanding.

Question 259

I push the button up, A/C pitch up or down? Vice-versa (TTI CHECKS)

Answer 259

A/C pitches down.

Question 260

What is the idea of “Trim Run-away

Answer 260

Trim runaway is indicated with an uncommanded roll or yaw with the TTI showing a runaway. Manual force is expected to be used by the pilot to maintain wings level. Pilot then check the cause by checking TTI, TRIM/AIL PWR status, HYD page, as well as visually looking at the control surfaces.

Question 261

How many orp’s are there and what aircraft do the orp’s cater to ?

Answer 261

4 ORPs, they are the Easterly and Westerly ORPs, 2 on 36R and 2 on 18L. There are a total of 9 slots each on each ORP and it caters to the 4 different aircraft, Hawks, PC-21, F-18 and PC-9 which is already decommisioned.

Question 262

Where can you expect 121.5MHz signal to come from?

Answer 262

The aircraft emergency frequency for emergency communication also known as International Air Distress VHF Guard by the ELT (emergency locator transmitter) Satellites listen for the signals and alert local personnel to the emergency, and the beacon allows search and rescue to find the scene of the accident faster. ELT is like a Personal Locator Beacon GPS which aircrew carry on board. But installed in the A/C in the right rear fuselage. As 121.5MHz is an emergency frequency meant for civilian use, 121.5MHz signal can be expected to come from a civilian aircraft that is experiencing an emergency.

Question 263

What sound would you hear when on MON-V and MON-U? What is the device that makes the sound? What actions do you carry out

Answer 263

Search and Rescue Beacon Equipment(SARBE). SARBE tone. SARBE6-40G produces the sound.

Question 264

will the taxy way elevation affect your alitimeter check ? (LOW K )

Answer 264

Yes. The altimeter check is to check that the indicated altitude is ±25 feet of the airfield elevation. (125-175ft for YPEA, 225-275ft for YGIG)

Question 265

What kind of species of birds do we have around this region? (Western Australia)

Answer 265

Almost 550 species of birds have been recorded in Western Australia. 17 species are endemic to Western Australia. These are Carnaby’s Black-Cockatoo Baudin’s Black-Cockatoo Western Corella Western Rosella Red-capped Parrot Noisy Scrub-bird Red-winged Fairy-wren Black Grasswren Western Bristlebird Dusky Gerygone Western Thornbill Western Wattlebird Kimberley Honeyeater Western Spinebill White-breasted Robin Western Ground Parrot Red-eared Firetail Magpie-Lark

Question 266

What does the red bowser line look like ? signify ?

Answer 266

It is a Red thick line with a thinner black line on both side. Aircrew will Walk on the right of the bowser line if the A/C is on the left. (Rear of A/C behind bowser line) The Bowser line also use as a marking for the bowser truck, where by the bowser truck will have to stop before the bowser to refill the A/C with fuel while ensuring safe distance.

Question 267

How many sheds ? What are they labeled ?

Answer 267

PEA: Three weather sheds; labeled alpha/ bravo/ charlieGIN GIN: two weather sheds; labelled weather shed 1 / 2

Question 268

Where is the fire extinguisher ?

Answer 268

Located on the pillars of the shed.

Question 269

How many slots are there in one shed ?

Answer 269

PEA: 10 slots per shedGIN GIN: 4 slots per shed

Question 270

How to check back rest set to aft ? 2 settings ?

Answer 270

the back rest can be adjusted with retaining knobs on the top left and right side and two spigots at the bottom left and right side of the back rest. the seat has an adjustable backrest why can be forwarded by 41mm to accomodate aircrew with short limb. set to aft by moving the retaining knobs to the rear

Question 271

Where is batt 1 located ? when can you turn on batt 1 after park brake set toe brake pump (ASK SENIORS , PEM , SOP)

Answer 271

Located in the Engine Bay.Turn on BATT 1 only when all aircrew are aboard the left wing after completing external checks. This is to protect any personnel from injury and fatality within the vicinity of the propeller should there be inadvertent prop spin on power up.

Question 272

What does man seat portion disconnect do ? how does it look like ?

Answer 272

Image shown on the right. It disconnects your harness from the pipe fittings in the seat with a single pull, releasing the PSP from the harness

Question 273

MOR Handle does what ?

Answer 273

The MOR Handle (Seat frame right side, black and yellow with safety push button) restarts barostat and drogue gun after failure of the auto system. Can be operated only after the seat has been ejected from the aircraft.

Question 274

GPU connect will the indications always be green ? what if its amber or and not at 28V ? what do you do ?

Answer 274

No. If the External Power Monitor monitors polarity to be incorrect or voltage not between 24 and 30V, it opens the Ground Power Contactor to prevent connection to a/c electrical system. There is no amber GPU caption. If it is not at 28V, check DWP SKID OUT, EMD -ve to +ve Amperes, GPU Schematic shown, Air vents producing air. If beyond limits and GPU Disconnects/Not Avail, engine start using internal batteries (only qualified aircrew and min batt bus voltage met)

Question 275

How do you know what seat height to set to?

Answer 275

For both front and back seats - Look along the top of the glare shield

Question 276

Can you see emer heatset? HOw to see?

Answer 276

You cant really see it. Its stored in a green pouch by the wall, just behind the g suit test button switch. Normally aircrew just touch and feel that its stowed and secured

Question 277

Whats the significance of instructor switch set to the “back?”’

Answer 277

The instructor at the seated at the back will be able to operate the decouple panel, with the ability to activate the MFD SPLIT, COMM 2 STUDE MUTE, student cockpit simulated failure and set up for operational scenarios for air intercept and EW operations.

Question 278

How much money does an RMM cost?

Answer 278

$38000 SGD

Question 279

throttle how to off

Answer 279

Throttle is prevented from inadvertent activation aft of the IDLE postion by an detent located at the IDLE position. A safety catch must be released to allow the idle-detent release lever to be raised for the throttle to be moved to the FUEL OFF position.

Question 280

What is external pumps for?

Answer 280

The external pump switches signal power to the external transfer pumps. When the signal is switched to AUTO the transfer pumps are controlled by the FCMC. The transfer pump status is displayed on the MFD SYS page “ON EXT ON”.

Question 281

What is master arm ? and what are the positions ?

Answer 281

The Master Arm switch is to simulate the weapon systems on the PC-21. The Master Arm switch is installed in the front cockpit only, in the rear cockpit the status of the arm switch is shown in the same position. The 3 positions are ARM, OFF, SIM.

Question 282

what is sufficient and balanced fuel ?

Answer 282

sufficient fuel would be above 1080 pounds as that is the minimum fuel required to operate the PC-21RSAF contract would be 1100lbs + - 20 lbsIf its below 1080 pounds reject the aircraftBalanced would be below 55 lbs difference

Question 283

How much GB in an RMM?

Answer 283

32gb

Question 284

How much does a PC-21 cost?

Answer 284

US$9,000,000 SGD$12,912,390

Question 285

lights significance of all the lights on A/C

Answer 285

Landing lights / Taxi lights landing light on the left and taxy light right from the pilots perspective Landing light angled downward to illuminate runway during final approach Taxy light illuminate taxyway while taxying Navigation light Red left front edge left wingtipgreen right wing front edge right wingtipwhite nav light tail cone NAV lights give aircrafts position heading and status ANTI COL LIGHTS 2 white xenon strobe lights each wing identical and syncronizedRequired on every aircraft to improve visibility to others

Question 286

BTC switch isol what happens ?

Answer 286

When BTC switch is set to ISOL, BTC 1 and BTC 2 will open, which allows for all three electrical buses BATT BUS, GEN 1 BUS and GEN 2 BUS to be isolated from one another. This also permits the BATT BUS to be de-energised, if required, while retaining seevices from GEN 1 BUS and GEN 2 BUS. One scenario where this is applicanble is when Smoke Fumes in cockpit and after GEN 1 and 2 OFF, and fumes are still present, BTC switch ISOL to isolate all three buses. GEN 1 ON and BATT 1 & 2 OFF so that the GEN 1 BUS would not continue powering the BATT BUS as there may be a possibility of fire in the avionics bay.

Question 287

as set means what for air vents air supply lever

Answer 287

air vents can be set to preferencce while supply lever will be set to the middle with no modes selected

Question 288

how do you close the canopy ?

Answer 288

The canopy is latched open to prevent the wind from blowing it close. To close the canopy, pull the canopy open latch release handle in either the front or rear cockpit. Lower and close the canopy. Push the internal operating lever forward until the safety catch engages. To open the canopy, press the lock stop outwards, then pull the internal operating lever rearwards. Push the canopy up until the open latch engages.

Question 289

how to tell 10m cfs blast area ?

Answer 289

The radius of the CFS Blast Area would be until the fuel filler cap of the aircraft to the left and right.

Question 290

ILS 111.9mhz is for which rw? (Avionics setuo checks)

Answer 290

111.9 would be the ILS frequency for RWY36R and 110.7 would be the frequency for RWY18L. There are no instrument landing system for RWY 18R/36L and RWY 05/23 but there is a NDB and TACAN (112.8/75X) for all 3 Runways.

Question 291

Where is remote training area? Radial and distance?

Answer 291

REM is remote ILS/TAC facility: within OMA, 1NM West of Beermullah airfield (PEA 338/025). The REM is fully IFR certified/calibrated, and approaches can be flown to published minima in IMC

Question 292

What is “GRB”, what is it for and how does it looks like?

Answer 292

GRB stands for Glideslope reference bar. It ensures that the approach is not too low or too high when GRB is set to 3.0 degrees. GRB is 6 dashed lines below true horizon line.

Question 293

Why we don’t use HUD for instrument landing?

Answer 293

HUD is not IFR Rated. Furthermore, the info provided on HUD is available on PFD and SFD, and since aircrew need not maintain lookout outside, they do not need to use the HUD.

Question 294

What does 3 degrees means?

Answer 294

3 degrees on GRB means that the GRB is 3 degrees below the true horizon line.

Question 295

Bingo Joker Fuel definitions

Answer 295

Refer to picture at the side

Question 296

Min fuel Emer fuel (BRIEF BY B TONG)

Answer 296

Emergency fuel - 110lbs at FAF/IP (Allows 1 missed approach and land visually at same airfield before reaching min fuel) Minimum fuel - 230lbs at FAF/IP (Allows 1 missed approach and divert to land before reaching EMER fuel.)

Question 297

how much difference can there be from detote and actual fuel

Answer 297

Max 1lb

Question 298

find out hil

Answer 298

Horizontal integrity limit, calculated by IRS(via something called IRS Kalman filtering) to determine positional accuracy using information from the GNSSU

Question 299

find out how many bulleyes and where they are?

Answer 299

Bullseye 1: PEA Bullseye 2: Cunderdin (Local Nav RTE), GIG (Geraldton RTE) for nav sorties / REM for normal sorties Bullseye 3: GIG (Local Nav RTE), Geraldton (Geraldton RTE) for nav sorties/GIG for normal sorties

Question 300

find out where the bullseye is focused to?

Answer 300

Tacan station

Question 301

More that 0.3 hil can you continue ?

Answer 301

Yes, check again during pretake off checks

Question 302

Get back all RAAF and RSAF callsigns and what aircraft types they are

Answer 302

(Repeated below)

Question 303

each squadron write down every callsigns they use (e.g. solo etc)

Answer 303

Hawks (79SQN) = Phoenix Callsign series: 80s & 90s RSAF (130SQN)= Eagle Callsign series: 800 (duals) & 700 & 900 (solos) RAAF PC-21 (2FTS) = Viper Callsigns series: 01 - 70 and 600 series2FTS, 130SQN Test flight = Tango. RSAF formation = Cyclone, Tango, Storm, Monsoon. 2FTS formation = Sabot, Salvo, Samba, Stinger, SnakeEye, Stinger. 2FTS SOLO = Cygnet, Sierra, Dugite. 79SQN formation = Devil, Fury, Ghost, Raptor.

Question 304

active not active ? eg gingin runway 08 or gingin active runway 08 ?

Answer 304

In the ATIS, it will either state “Active Gingin R/W08” or “Gingin R/W08”. “Active” means that the particular runway is active.

Question 305

what all the stud numbers are ?

Answer 305

stud01 - pearce airways clearance delivery (pearce delivery) 134.10stud02 - pearce ground 127.25stud03 - pearce tower 118.30stud04 - pearce approach 130.20stud05 - pearce centre - north 135.90stud06 - pearce centre - west 123.30stud07 - muchea AWR (R178) 259.20stud09 - pearce ATIS 316.10stud12 - gingin ground 267.00stud13 - gingin tower 118.50stud14 - PTA alpha 261.80stud15 - PTAs bravo, charlie 263.20stud16 - PTAs delta, echo, foxtrot, golf, hotel 260.70

Question 306

atis cloud base given in agl or amsl

Answer 306

AGL

Question 307

What are the 2 things cadets must do to assist QFI stated in the Captains brief

Answer 307

The two things that a cadet has todo to assist the QFI would be to Help himpull the EMER LDG GR HANDLE when the landing gear level is lowered Secondly would be to call out speed when the speed drops below 120KIAS

Question 308

How does the red line look like in the Shed Alpha,Bravo,Charlie?

Answer 308

A horizontal red line with 2 black lines surrounding that runs across the sheds. Bowser truck should not cross the bowser line

Question 309

Why GRB 03.0 degrees? How it looks like on the HUD? Why instrument approaches cannot use HUD?

Answer 309

03.0 degrees glideslope is the standard angle to lose 300ft/nm and 600ft/m. GRB is shown as a dashed line below the horizon line. A 03.0degrees angle is set from the horizon line to the GRB. HUD on PC-21 is not IFR rated. The primary and secondary flight instrument is the PFD and SFD respectively.

Question 310

How to set Callsign on FMS?

Answer 310

Example Eagle “841” = “EGLE841”

Question 311

What is the 3 boxes below the PFD AI?

Answer 311

Turn indicator signifies rate of turn

Question 312

What are the turn back directions for all runways ? if you have a crosswind from the right which way do you turnback ?

Answer 312

Turnbacks will be towards the wind to prevent the aircraft from being blown further from the runway threshold, causing it to overshoot. For headwinds, the aircraft will turn to the direction of the circuit.

Question 313

During egress why do you not put the CFS pin in ? when the CFS pin is in can you close the canopy ?

Answer 313

No you cant close the canopy if the CFS pin is in

Question 314

How can you tell where the source of fire is from ?

Answer 314

By observing the colour of the smoke. A white coloured smoke will inidcate an electrical fire and a black smoke would indicate an engine fire

Question 315

How long does it take to reach 3 greens after gears down ?

Answer 315

5seconds extension, 4 seconds retract

Question 316

Transition time for services ?Flaps Landing gear Airbrakes

Answer 316

LDG Gr extend 5 sec, retract 4 sec. FLAPS 4 to 5 sec. AIRBRAKES 2 sec.

Question 317

During ejection, where does the front and rear seat go?

Answer 317

rear seat goes right, front seat left