16: Urinary incontinence and pelvic prolapse: Pathophysiology, evaluation, and medical management Flashcards

1
Q

Define “Urinary incontinence”.

A

Complaint of any involuntary leakage of urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What symptom describes the complaint of involuntary leakage on effort, exertion, sneezing, or coughing?

A

Stress urinary incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the symptom of “Urgency” in urinary incontinence.

A

Complaint of a sudden compelling desire to pass urine, which is difficult to defer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is “Urgency urinary incontinence”?

A

Complaint of involuntary leakage accompanied by or immediately preceded by urgency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of incontinence is described as a voluntary loss of urine associated with a change of body position, such as rising from seated or lying positions?

A

Postural incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define “Nocturnal enuresis”.

A

Complaint of involuntary loss of urine that occurs during sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What term describes involuntary leakage associated with both urgency and activities like exertion, effort, sneezing, or coughing?

A

Mixed incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does “Continuous urinary incontinence” refer to?

A

Complaint of continuous leakage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of incontinence occurs when the woman is unaware of how the urinary incontinence happened?

A

Insensible incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define “Coital incontinence”.

A

Complaint of involuntary loss of urine with coitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What pharmacologic agents are classified as Sympathomimetics that can affect the lower urinary tract?

A

Ephedrine, methylphenidate, cocaine, amphetamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What potential effects on the urinary tract can Sympathomimetics cause?

A

They can increase outlet resistance, exacerbate obstructive symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms, decrease detrusor contractility, and precipitate retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the pharmacologic agents classified as Sympatholytics.

A

Terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin, alfuzosin, silodosin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the potential effect of Sympatholytics on the urinary tract?

A

What is the potential effect of Sympatholytics on the urinary tract?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which agents are categorized as Anticholinergics that might impact the lower urinary tract?

A

Oxybutynin, fesoteridine, solifenacin, trospium, darifenacin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do Anticholinergics potentially affect the urinary tract?

A

They can contribute to urinary retention, especially in patients with outlet obstruction.

17
Q

List the pharmacologic agents that are Diuretics, as per the table.

A

Furosemide, thiazides, spironolactone, triamterene, bumetanide.

18
Q

How do Diuretics directly affect the bladder?

A

They do not affect the bladder directly. However, due to increased urine production, they can aggravate incontinence problems.

19
Q

What are the main components assessed during a focused pelvic examination?

A

External genitalia and vagina, urethra, bladder, cervix, uterus, adnexa/parametria, and anus and perineum.

20
Q

When examining the external genitalia and vagina, what aspects related to general appearance are assessed?

A

Hair distribution, the presence of lesions, estrogen effect, and discharge.

21
Q

During the pelvic examination, which structures are checked for general appearance, lesions, and discharge?

A

External genitalia, vagina, and cervix.

22
Q

Which pelvic structures are evaluated for masses, tenderness, and other conditions during the examination?

A

Urethra, bladder, cervix, uterus, and adnexa/parametria.

23
Q

How is the uterus examined during a focused pelvic examination?

A

It is evaluated for size, contour, position, mobility, tenderness, consistency, descent, or support

24
Q

When assessing the adnexa/parametria during the pelvic examination, which conditions or signs should be looked for?

A

Masses, tenderness, organomegaly, and nodularity.

25
Q

Based on modern medical practices, why might a detailed assessment of the vagina’s estrogen effect be crucial for post-menopausal women?

A

Lower estrogen levels post-menopause can lead to vaginal atrophy, with symptoms like dryness, irritation, and dyspareunia, impacting quality of life and sexual function.

26
Q

During a pelvic examination, what are the primary concerns when inspecting the anus and perineum?

A

During a pelvic examination, what are the primary concerns when inspecting the anus and perineum?

27
Q

What are the criteria for Stage 0 in the Baden-Walker Classification and the POP-Q Staging Criteria?

A

Aa, Ap, Ba, Bp at –3 cm, and C or D ≤ – (tvl – 2) cm

28
Q

Which stage in the Baden-Walker Classification and the POP-Q Staging Criteria has criteria that do not meet Stage 0 and has a leading edge < –1 cm?

A

Stage I

29
Q

For which stage is the leading edge ≥ –1 cm but ≤ +1 cm in the Baden-Walker Classification and the POP-Q Staging Criteria?

A

Stage II

30
Q

Which stage in the Baden-Walker Classification and the POP-Q Staging Criteria has a leading edge that’s more than +1 cm but less than + (tvl – 2) cm?

A

Stage III

31
Q

In the Baden-Walker Classification and the POP-Q Staging Criteria, for which stage is the leading edge ≥ + (tvl – 2) cm?

A

Stage IV

32
Q

If a patient has a leading edge of exactly +1 cm based on the Baden-Walker Classification and the POP-Q Staging Criteria, which stage would they fall under?

A

Stage II