Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Thera IX > 16 Prostate Cancer Chan > Flashcards

16 Prostate Cancer Chan Flashcards

1
Q

What are some facts on prostate cancer?

A

Most common cancer in men. Indolent (or slow) growth pattern in early stages compared to other cancer types. AA > Whites > Asians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the etiology of prostate cancer?

A

Hormonal (increase exposure to testosterone (growth signal to the prostate)). Genetic predisposition (SRD5A2 gene). Presence of pre-malignant lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the SRD5A2 gene do?

A

Codes 5-alpha reductase (enzyme converts testosterone to DHT). Gene variant increases activity and may increase prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the presence of pre-malignant lesions indicate?

A

Prostatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia (PIN) or Proliferative Inflammatory Atrophy (PIA). Precedes prostate cancer by 10 years or more. Detection of PIN requires needle biopsy. Presence of PIN does NOT cause changes in PSA level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Prostate Cancer Risk Factors?

A

Age (~66 years). Male. Race (AA > White > Asian). Family history (One 1st degree relative = two-fold increase, two 1st degree relative = four-fold increase). Diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does Diet change your risk of prostate cancer?

A

Increase risk: high intake of dietary fat. Decrease risk: Soy (anti-carcinogen) and Lycopenes (found in tomatoes). Lack benefits - Vit E, Selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are NOT considered risk factors for Prostate Cancer?

A

Smoking and alcohol consumption. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) - non-malignant condition1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the warning signs and symptoms of prostate cancer?

A

Non-specific, similar to symptoms caused by BPH. Dysuria, nocturia, anuria, hematuria. Impotence. Less firm penile errection. Advance stage disease: Anorexia, bone pain that is persistent in lower back, pelvic region or upper thighs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What did the PCPT trial show?

A

Finasteride (Proscar) (off label - risk reduction) = 5mg daily for 7 years. Significantly reduce prostate cancer rate detectable with biopsy by 25% vs. placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What did the REDUCE

A

Dutasteride (Avodart) (off label - risk reduction) = 0.5mg daily for 4 years. Significantly reduce prostate cancer rate detectable with biopsy by 25% vs. placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the new screening guidelines for prostate cancer?

A

Recommend for men age > 50 w/ average risk of prostate cancer, life-expectancy > 10 years. Men at high risk (i.e. AA, family history of prostate cancer before age 65). Men at higher risk (multiple family history < 65) - discussion at age 40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the potential treatment toxicities for prostate cancer?

A

Incontinence. Impotence (decrease QOL). Difficult to identify indolent vs. aggressive tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the screening methods for prostate cancer?

A

Digital rectal exam (DRE) optional, and Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test (none 100% predictive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are you looking for in a DRE?

A

Presence of lumps, hardness, and inability to move the prostate. Only 25-50% palpable mass are cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the PSA blood test?

A

Glycoprotein produced by epithelial cells of prostate. Specific for the prostate, not specific for cancer. Normal ranges: 0-4 (PSA 2.6-4 requires further evaluation by biopsy. PSA > 10 suspicious for malignancy). Abstinence for 2 days prior to obtaining PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do the grades in the Gleason Scale indicate?

A

Grades <7 (slow-growing, well differentiated tumors) = better prognosis. Grade 7 (moderately differentiated tumors). Grades 8-10 (aggressive, poorly differentiated tumors) = poor prognosis. Higher the score, the greater probability of extracapsular spread, nodal involvement and distant metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the natural history of the disease?

A

Indolent (slow) growth commonly seen in early stages. Spreads by local extension via the lymphatic system to regional lymph nodes or via bloodstream to other part of the body. Metastases common to the bone (80%) usually involve the lumbar spine, may also metastases to lung and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Stage I Prostate Cancer?

A

Non-palpable, localized, biopsy detected, high PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Stage II Prostate Cancer?

A

Palpable, confined to capsule (1-2 lobes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Stage III Prostate Cancer?

A

Local extension beyond capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Stage IV Prostate Cancer?

A

Lymph node involvement with mets to other areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does Neoadjuvant mean?

A

Initial treatment of locally advanced tumors that are unlikely to be cured by surgery or irradiation. Goal is to reduce tumor volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Adjuvant mean?

A

Systemic therapy following curative surgery or irradiation for tumors that have a high probability of recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does Salvage Treatment mean?

A

Systemic therapy in patients who have failed initial treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does Palliation mean?

A

Treatment used only to relieve or alleviate symptoms NOT to provide cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the treatment goals for prostate cancer?

A

Androgen deprivation or ablation (80% of tumors are androgen dependent): Maintain suppression of serum testosterone < 50 (considered castration level). Decrease symptoms. Delay progression and improve QOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the treatment options for Prostate Cancer?

A

Expectant management or watchful waiting. Surgery (Radical Prostatectomy). Radiation therapy. Pharmacological intervention (hormonal therapy, immunotherapy, chemotherapy, clinical trials)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When should Expectant Management or Watchful Waiting be considered?

A

For LOCALIZED early Stage I, II tumors. Recommended for elderly men with life expectancy < 10 years, low grade disease, and slow PSA velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is Surgery (Radical Prostatectomy) recommended?

A

Men of any age with life expectancy > 10 years, localized stage I, II tumors, high grade disease, high PSA velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When is Radiation therapy recommended?

A

For locally and advanced disease (Stage I-III) in men > 70 years of age who are NOT surgical candidates d/t other comorbid conditions. Recommended as palliation therapy in patients whose tumor extended beyond the prostate (Stage IV). Recommended as adjuvant therapy after surgery in patients with (+) margin (residual disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the advantages of Radiation therapy?

A

Decreased risk of urinary incontinence and sexual dysfunction vs. surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the complications with Radiation therapy?

A

Impotence (30%), rectal (proctitis) and bladder (cystitis) symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the side effects with Radiation Therapy?

A

Fatigue, skin reactions or irritation to the treated areas, frequent and painful urination, rectal irritation or bleeding, and N/V/D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What types of pharmacological intervention can be used?

A

Hormonal therapy or Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT). Treatment dependent on tumor being localized, or with advanced disease (PSA recurrence or mets disease)

35
Q

When is Chemotherapy treatment indicated?

A

For metastatic disease and HRPC

36
Q

What is 1st line chemotherapy for prostate cancer?

A

Docetaxel w/ Prednisone. Can use Cabazitaxel w/ Prednisone after failure with Docetaxel

37
Q

When is Immunotherapy indicated in prostate cancer?

A

Indicated for less advanced asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic metastatic HRPC disease

38
Q

What are the guidelines for Immunotherapy use?

A

Good performance status (ECOG 0-1). Estimated life expectancy > 6 months. No visceral disease (mets to lung and/or liver). No symptoms or with minimal symptoms

39
Q

What are the advantages of Hormonal Therapy?

A

Least toxic anticancer treatment

40
Q

What are the disadvantages of Hormonal Therapy?

A

Delayed clinical response (require 6-8 weeks of continual therapy), efficacy depends on maintenance therapy and patient compliance. Hormonal receptor (PR) status is NOT useful in the treatment of prostate cancer

41
Q

What are the first line hormonal therapy choices?

A

Orchiectomy, GnRH agonist +/- Anti-androgen

42
Q

What is Orchiectomy?

A

Surgical removal of testicles (surgical castration). Works by eliminating production of testosterone (rapid decrease in testosterone level to castration level < 50 over 24-48 hours)

43
Q

What are the side effects of Orchiectomy?

A

Impotence. Hot flashes

44
Q

What are the GnRH agonists used?

A

Leuprolide. Goserelin. Histrelin

45
Q

What are the general characteristics of GnRH Agonists?

A

As effective as Orchiectomy in decreasing testosterone to castration level (medical castration). Has a delay clinical response (about 2-4 weeks after first injection). With continued therapy decrease in testosterone level can be maintained for up to 5 years. Psychologically easier to tolerate than surgical castratoin

46
Q

What labs need to be monitored with GnRH Agonists?

A

LFTs, Electrolytes

47
Q

What is the dosing of Leuprolide (Lupron Depot) like?

A

7.5mg Qmonth, 22.5mg Q3months, 30mg Q4months. Administered by deep IM intragluteally

48
Q

What is the dosing of Leuprolide (Eligard Depot) like?

A

7.5mg Qmonth, 22.5mg Q3months, 30mg Q4months, 45mg Q6months. Administered by SQ injection

49
Q

What is the dosing of Goserelin (Zoladex) like?

A

3.6mg Qmonth, 10.8mg Q3months. Administered by deep SQ pellets injection into the upper abdominal area

50
Q

What are the two GnRH Agonists that are used the most?

A

Leuprolide (Lupron, NOT Eligard). Goserelin (Zoladex)

51
Q

What is Histrelin (Vantas)?

A

GnRH Agonist. Implant (50mg over 12months). Requires SQ surgical implantation. Suppression of testosterone level maintained up to 2 months following removal of first implant

52
Q

What are the common ADRs with GnRH Agonists?

A

Hot flashes, Gynecomastia, Loss of libido, Impotence, Injection site irritation. Tumor-flare

53
Q

What is Tumor-flare with GnRH Agonists?

A

Bone pain, weakness, and increase difficulty urinating (common with 1st few weeks of treatment, symptoms usually resolved after prolong administration. DO NOT discontinue for tumor-flare)

54
Q

How can Tumor-flare be prevented?

A

By pretreatment with anti-androgen (starts 2-4 weeks prior to or at same time with GnRH agonist, and continue for up to 7 days after the start of GnRH agonist in patients with advanced disease)

55
Q

What are the long term side effects with GnRH Agonists?

A

Increased risk DM, insulin resistance. Increased CV risk, alterations in lipids, cholesterol. Increased risk of osteoporosis and incidence of clinical fracture. Obesity

56
Q

What is Degarelix (Firmagon)?

A

GnRH ANTAGONIST. Similar to GnRH Agonists, but without the Tumor-Flare

57
Q

What are the ADRs with Degarelix (Firmagon)?

A

Similar to GnRH Agonists

58
Q

What is used for the treatment of Osteoporosis and Skeletal-Related events?

A

IV Bisphosphonates (Zolendronic acid (Zometa) or Pamidronate (Aredia)

59
Q

What is the MOA of Bisphosphonates?

A

Binds to bone surface and inhibits osteoclast bone resorption

60
Q

What labs need to be monitored while on Bisphosphonates?

A

Monitor SCr (renal dosing adjustment), Calcium (cause hypocalcemia)

61
Q

What are the ADRs with Bisphosphonates?

A

Osteonecrosis of Jaw (ONJ)

62
Q

What are the indications for Bisphosphonates?

A

Treatment of mets bone lesion for all solid tumor = Zometa 4mg IVPB over 15-30 minutes Q3-4 weeks. Treatment for osteoporosis = Zometa 5mg IVPB over 15-30 minutes once a year

63
Q

What is Denosumab (Prolia, Xgeva) used for?

A

Osteoporosis. Monoclonal antibody RANK ligand inhibitor - binds to RANKL signaling molecule that stimulates function and survival of osteoclasts. SQ upper arm, upper thigh or abdomen

64
Q

What labs need to be monitored with Denosumab?

A

Calcium (cause more hypocalcemia vs. Zometa). NO renal adjustment needed

65
Q

What are the ADRs with Denosumab?

A

Osteonecrosis of Jaw (ONJ)

66
Q

What are the indications for Denosumab?

A

Treatment of androgen deprivation (hormonal therapy) - induced bone loss = 60mg Prolia SQ Q6 months. Treatment of skeletal-related events in bone mets from solid tumor = 120mg Xgeva SQ Q4 weeks

67
Q

When are Antiandrogens (Androgen Receptor Blockers) recommended?

A

For use in metastatic prostate cancer (Stage IV) in combination with GnRH agonists for complete androgen blockade (CRB)

68
Q

What is the MOA of ntiandrogens (Androgen Receptor Blockers)?

A

Blocks the access of Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) to androgen receptor within the prostate cancer cells

69
Q

What are the ntiandrogens (Androgen Receptor Blockers) used?

A

Bicalutamide (Casodex). Flutamide (Eulexin). Nilutamide (Nilandron)

70
Q

What are the ADRs with ntiandrogens (Androgen Receptor Blockers)?

A

DM (w/ GnRH agonist), CV - peripheral edema. Hot flashes. Diarrhea (F > B > N)

71
Q

What needs to be monitored while on ntiandrogens (Androgen Receptor Blockers)?

A

LFTs. Caution in patients with liver impairment

72
Q

What is the rationale behind Combined Androgen Blockade (CAB)?

A

Interfere with multiple hormonal pathways to completely eliminate androgen action

73
Q

What is the CAB used?

A

GnRH agonist or Orchiectomy PLUS Antiandrogen. No proven benefits over castration alone in patients w/ metastatic disease

74
Q

Where is CABs place in therapy most beneficial?

A

Prevention of tumor-flare in patients with advanced metastatic disease (short term up to 7 days). All other patients may be started on GnRH agonist monotherapy, Antiandrogen may be added after several months if androgen ablation is incomplete

75
Q

What is Abiraterone acetate (Zytiga)?

A

Second line hormonal therapy. Potent, selective and irreversible inhibitors of CYP 17 enzyme required for androgen biosynthesis expressed in testicular, adrenal, and prostatic tumor tissues. Inhibits formation of testosterone precursors DHEA and androstenedione

76
Q

When is Abiraterone acetate (Zytiga) indicated?

A

Mets castration resistant or recurrence prostate cancer (CRPC) previously treated with Docetaxel (chemotherapy)

77
Q

What does Abiraterone acetate (Zytiga) need dose adjustment?

A

Hepatic. Moderate impairment = require dose adjustment. Severe impairment = avoid use

78
Q

What are the ADRs with Abiraterone acetate (Zytiga)?

A

Adrenocortical insufficiency, hepatotoxicity, CV (HTN, fluid retention, decreased K)

79
Q

How do Estrogen Derivatives work?

A

Inhibits testosterone levels by blocking the production of gonadotropin releasing hormones (GnRH) which ultimately stops the production of testosterone from the testes

80
Q

What are the estrogen derivatives approved for palliation?

A

Estradiol (Estrace). Esterified estrogens (Estratab)

81
Q

What are the ADRs with Estrogen Derivatives?

A

Thromboembolism, Gynecomastia, Impotence. Monitor LFTs and lipid panel. Avoid in severe liver impairment

82
Q

How would low dose steroids help?

A

Negative feedback mechanism on secretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) in the pituitary leading to inhibition of androgen synthesis in the adrenal gland

83
Q

What are the low dose steroids used?

A

Dexamethasone. Prednisone

84
Q

What are the clinical benefits observed with low dose steroids?

A

Improvement in pain, and overall well-being (reversed resistance at disease progression in some patients)

Thera IX (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions