10 Chemotherapy Induced N/V Hsu Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Emesis (N/V) risk factors?

A

Type of chemotherapy and dosage! Previous episodes of N/V! Age < 50 years. Female. History of motion sickness. High anxiety (anticipatory). History of low alcohol consumption (chronic alcoholism = decreased risk of emesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Acute Onset Emesis?

A

Occurs several minutes to hours after chemotherapy. Peaks in 5-6 hours and resolves within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Delayed Onset Emesis?

A

Occurs > 24 hours after chemotherapy. Common drugs: Cisplatin > Carboplatin > “AC” Doxorubicin + Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Anticipatory Emesis?

A

Occurs prior to chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Breakthrough Emesis?

A

Occurs while already on antiemetic therapy. Patients generally given additional medications PRN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the Emesis Neurotransmitters (NT)?

A

Primary NT pathways (Serotonin, Substance P/NK, Dopamine). Other NT associated with Nausea (Corticosteroids, Cannabinoid, Opiates, Histamine, Acetylcholine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 5HT3 Receptor Antagonists used?

A

Ondansetron (Zofran). Granisetron (Kytril, Sancuso). Dolasteron (Anzemet). Palonosetron (Aloxi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which 5HT3 Receptor Antagonist is used as a patch?

A

Granisetron (Sancuso)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which 5HT3 Receptor Antagonist can only be given IV?

A

Palonosetron (Aloxi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which 5HT3 Receptor Antagonist has efficacy in delayed N/V?

A

Palonosetron (Aloxi) d/t its long half-life (~40 hrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the general class indications of 5HT3 Receptor Antagonists?

A

Prevention of chemotherapy, radiation, post-op N/V. Effective as mono and combination therapy. Most commonly used agent for mod-high emetogenic risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 5HT3 Receptor Antagonists NOT effective for?

A

Breakthrough emesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 5HT3 Receptor Antagonists LESS effective for?

A

Delayed N/V with the exception of Palonosetron (long half-life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the ADRs associated with 5HT3 Receptor Antagonists?

A

HA (dose/rate dependent). QT prolongation. Constipation > diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the corticosteroids used?

A

Dexamethasone (Decadron) - preferred steroid for N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is Dexamethasone (Decadron) administered?

A

PO or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the common ADRs associated with Dexamethasone (Decadron)?

A

GI stomach upset. CNS (insomnia, mood changes). Lab changes (increased glucose and WBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MOA of NKI-Antagonist (Emend)?

A

Substance P/Neurokinin I (NKI) receptor antagonist - GI and CNS receptor activity. No dopamine or serotonin receptor affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the ADRs associated with NKI-Antagonists?

A

Hiccups! GI. LFT elevation. Emend regimen AE are similar to 5HT3 alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the DDIs with NKI-Antagonists?

A

3A4 inhibitor and substrate, 2C9 inducer. Decrease Dexamethasone dose by 50%!!!!

21
Q

What is the indication for NKI-Antagonists?

A

Prevention of acute and delayed nausea and vomiting associated with moderate to high emetogenic chemotherapy. IV formulation = 150mg on day 1 ONLY

22
Q

What is done for high emetogenicity dosing?

A

NKI-Antagonists to be used in combination with steroids and 5HT3 antagonist as a specific regimen

23
Q

What are the NKI-Antagonists used?

A

Aprepitant or Fosaprepitant

24
Q

What is the MOA of Dopamine Receptor Antagonists?

A

Antagonize dopamine receptors in the chemo trigger zone of the CNS. Increases GI motility via cholinergic response from peripheral dopamine antagonism. Both help decrease N/V

25
What are the Dopamine Receptor Antagonists used?
Metoclopramide (Reglan). Prochloperazine (Compazine)
26
What are the ADRs associated with Dopamine Receptor Antagonists?
CNS - EPS (parkinson's like symptoms). Manage with anticholinergic drugs
27
What are the Dopamine Receptor Antagonist uses?
May be used as single agents for CINV for LOW emetic regimens (Give one dose 30-60 minutes prior to chemo). Primarily for breakthrough N/V given PRN. Not as effective as serotonin antagonists
28
Which Dopamine Receptor Antagonist requires renal adjustment?
Metoclopramide (Reglan). Renal Cl < 40 = 50% dose
29
What are some Adjunctive antiemetic drug therapy agents?
Benzodiazepines (Lorazepam)
30
What is the MOA of Lorazepam (Ativan)?
Acts on GABA receptors to produce anxiolytic effects
31
What are the ADRs associated with Lorazepam?
CNS (drowsiness, dizziness, confusion). Respiratory depression (don't use with other CNS depressant agents)
32
What are the uses of Benzodiazepiens?
First line for anticipatory N/V. Not recommended as single agents for treatment or prevention of N/V
33
What are the directions for Lorazepam use?
Anticipatory: Start the night before chemotherapy and take a dose the morning of chemotherapy. May also be given PRN Q4-6 hrs (anxiety or nausea)
34
What is Dronabinol (Marinol)?
Cannabinoid, another antiemetic for mild to moderate CINV refractory or intolerant to other antiemetics
35
What is Promethazine (Phenergan)?
Another antiemetic used for breakthrough emesis
36
What is a BBW associated with Promethazine (Phenergan)
Severe tissue injury, DO NOT give SQ
37
What are the antipsychotic agents that can be used for emesis?
Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Haloperidol (Haldol)
38
What are some GI agents that can be used for emesis?
H2 blockers, PPIs, H1 blockers (antihistamines; diphenhydramine). NOT for monotherapy. May add as adjunctive therapy, particularly if patient has history of dyspepsia
39
What are the principles of Antiemesis?
PO and IV formulations have equal efficacy. Generally try PO first if tolerated (or for home use). Choose IV if actively vomiting (breakthrough emesis) or unable to take orals
40
Which agents have the highest causes of emesis?
CIsplatin. Combo: Cyclophosphamide + Doxorubicin (Anthracycline). Carmustine
41
Which agents cause minimal emesis?
Targeted agents (monoclonal antibodies). TKIs (orals) - minimal to low emetogenicity
42
What treatment plan is given to High Risk (>90%)?
Combination therapy required. 5-HT3 Serotonin Receptor Antagonist (any) + Dexamethasone + Emend (PO or IV)
43
How long is each agent used for?
Aprecitant (Emend) for 3 days (120mg PO, 80mg PO, 80mg PO). Dexamethasone for 4 days (12mg, 8mg, 8mg, 8mg). 5HT3 Antagonist used only on day 1
44
What is Dexamethasone use like for Moderate Risk?
Steroids past day 1 not required for moderate emetic regimens
45
What is used for low risk emesis?
Single agent treatment (Dexamethasone, Reglan, Compazine). Add PRN meds as appropriate
46
What is best for delayed emesis?
Aprepitant (Emend), but not always indicated. Steroids are a good choice but expensive
47
What is the treatment duration for Delayed Emesis?
3 days for high, 2 days for moderate
48
What are some key points for breakthrough emesis?
Consider around the clock rather than PRN (prevention > treatment). IV may be better than PO if vomiting. Serotonin antagonists are a poor choice
49
What are the key points of Anticipatory Emesis?
Benzodiazepines (start the night prior to chemotherapy and can give a dose the morning of chemo). Controlling acute and delayed emesis will decrease risk of future anticipatory emesis