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135 check airman Flashcards

0
Q

What follow up action is required if you, acting as PIC, declare an emergency with ATC?

A

Send a written report to the administrator upon request. (91.3c)

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1
Q

What are the vertical and horizontal boundaries of the 200 knot airspeed limitation that exist at the primary airport within class C or D airspace?

A

2500 feet AGL and 4nm (91.117b)

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2
Q

What minimum weather is required at the destination in order to not have to file an alternate under part 91?

A

2000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility (91.167b2i)

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3
Q

With regards to the previous question, what is the timeframe of that weather?

A

EAT +- 1 hour (91.167)

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4
Q

What minimum weather is required at the destination in order to not have to file an alternate under part 135?

A

ETA +- 1 hour: 1500 feet above the lowest circling approach MDA, or if no circling is authorized for the airport 1500 feet above the lowest straight in minimum or 2000 feet above the airport field elevation whichever is higher and visibility is forecast to be 3sm or 2sm more than the minimums for the approach to be used at that airport. (135.223)

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5
Q

What minimum weather is required to be forecast for an alternate with a precision approach under part 91?

A

600 feet and 2 miles at the ETA (91.169c1i)

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6
Q

What minimum weather is required at the alternate under part 135?

A

For airports with at least 1 operational navigation facility-add 400 feet and 1 mile to the higher approach minimums. For airports with 2 operational navigational facilities to different suitable runways-add 200 feet and 1/2 mile to the higher approach minimums. (GOM C055-1)

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7
Q

How often must a VOR check be done?

A

Every 30 days (91.171)

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8
Q

What must be distinctly visible and identifiable before you can descend below the DH or MDA?

A

Runway environment (the threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, REIL, VASI, touchdown zone or touchdown markings, touchdown zone lights, runway and runway markings, runway lights.) if the approach lighting system is visible you may descend to 100 feet above TDZE, but no lower unless the red terminating bar or red side row bars are visible. (91.175)

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9
Q

What is the minimum weather required for takeoff under part 91?

A

No minimum (91.175)

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10
Q

135.301 crew member: tests and checks, grace provisions, training to accepted standards.

A

(A) if a crew member who is required to take a test or a flight check under this part, completes the test or flight check in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which it is required, that crew member is considered to have completed the test or check in the calendar month in which it is required.

(B) if a pilot being checked under this part fail any of the required maneuvers, the person giving the check may give additional training to the pilot during the course of the check. In addition to repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the check may require the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers that are necessary to determine the pilots proficiency. If the pilot being checked is unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting the check, the certificate holder may not use the pilot, nor may the pilot serve, as a flight crew member in operations under this part until the pilot has satisfactorily completed the check.

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11
Q

135.299 pilot in command: line checks: routes and airports.

A

Must be done every 12 months
Consist of at least on flight over one route segment by airway or approved off-airway route or portion of either
Include takeoff sand landings at one or more representative airports
Verify that the pilot being checked satisfactorily performs the duties and responsibilities of PIC

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12
Q

135.297 PIC: instrument proficiency check requirements.

A

Must be done every 6 months
Must include a precision approach
Must include two different types of non-precision approach
Must include a straight in approach
Must include a circling approach
Must include a missed approach
All approaches must be conducted to published minimums
Must include an oral that covers : emergency procedures, engine operations and power settings, fuel and lubrication systems, all pertinent air speeds, propeller and supercharger operations, hydraulic, mechanical and electrical systems
Must include a flight check that covers; navigation by instruments, recovery from simulated emergencies, the above mentioned approaches, ability to conduct single pilot IFR operations and communications with and without an autopilot as proficiently as it would be if a second pilot were present.

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13
Q

135.293 initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements.

A

Must be done every 12 months
Include written or a oral check over: part 61, 91, 135, and the GOM,
Aircraft-power plant, systems, components, appliances, performance and limitation, normal and emergency procedures, and the contents of the AFM
navigation- use of nav aids, ATC, IFR and instrument approach procedures
Meteorology- theory, frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, windshear and high altitude weather, procedures to recognize and avoid severe weather: low altitude windshear, operating in or near thunderstorms, turbulent air, icing, hail, and other hazardous conditions, new equipment, procedures or techniques as appropriate
Flight check- those maneuvers necessary to determine the pilots competency in each class of aircraft the pilot serves as pilot. Competent performance of procedure or maneuver by a person to be used as pilot requires that pilot be the obvious master of the aircraft, with the successful outcome of the maneuver never in doubt.
The competency check may include any of the maneuvers and procedures currently required for the original issuance of the particular pilot certificate required for the operations authorized and appropriate to the category, class and type of aircraft involved.
The instrument proficiency check required by 135.297 may be substituted for the competency check required by this section for the type of aircraft used in the check.
The administrator or authorized check pilot certifies the competency of each pilot who passes the knowledge or flight check in the certificate holders pilot records.

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14
Q

Check ride guidelines DOs and DONTs

A

No planned simulated work below 500 feet AGL unless established on a stabilized final approach
No planned simulated single engine work in actual IMC
sIngle engine (simulated) go-around is allowed if initiated by 500 feet AGL.
No actual single engine operations are to be conducted
No simulated single engine operations are to be conducted in mountainous terrain or at airports with substantial obstacles regardless of airport elevation
In case of an unplanned actual go-around use power to both engines
Vision restriction devices will be used for all instrument procedures on instrument proficiency check rides conducted in the aircraft, including stalls, steep turns, unusual attitudes.
Commercially available vision restriction devices are acceptable provided the device does not limit the vision of the check airmen. The use of pillows, charts taped to windows, or other methods that could jeopardize safety are not acceptable.
Stalls, steep turns and unusual attitudes are to be done at no less than 5,000ft MSL or 5,000ft AGL, whichever is higher, but no higher than 15,000ft MSL. Recommend 3000ft blocks.
Normally stall recovery is initiated at first indication of and approaching stall by the stall warning system. However should the stall warning system fail, the recovery will be commenced at the Vmc speed or aerodynamic buffet, whichever occurs first. Should a question arise about whether or not the aircraft is about to stall, stall recovery will be initiated immediately.
The check airmen shall occupy a pilot seat.
No flap 0 degree landings.
No simulated aborted takeoffs above 50 kias

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15
Q

What minimum weather is required for takeoff under part 135?

A

Standard - 2 engines is 1 mile (91.175f & GOM C057)

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16
Q

What minimum weather is required for landing under part 91?

A

Required flight visibility for approach procedures (91.175d)

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17
Q

What is the minimum weather required for landing under part 135?

A

The weather must be at or above the weather minimums for the approach being used (135.225)

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18
Q

Is an ELT required on our charter aircraft?

A

Yes (91.207)

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19
Q

What time period required aircraft position lights to be on?

A

When visibility is less than 3 miles and sunset to sunrise (91.209)

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20
Q

Are anti-collision light required for daylight operations?

A

When visibility is less than 3 miles (91.209)

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21
Q

When is a passenger briefing required under part 91?

A

Before each takeoff, unless they are familiar with the brief (91.519)

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22
Q

When is a passenger briefing required under part 135?

A

Before every takeoff, no exceptions. (135.117)

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23
Q

Under part 135, may the F.O. call the FBO to confirm passenger transportation during critical phases of flight?

A

No (135.100)

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24
Q

What defines a critical phase of flight?

A

Ground ops, taxi, takeoff, landing, and all flight below 10,000 ft MSL, except cruise. (135.100)

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25
Q

What limitations apply when taking off with the weather below landing minimums under part 135?

A

Take off alternate within one hour of point of departure. (135.217)

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26
Q

Under part 135 may we accept LAHSO clearances?

A

No (ops specs a004-2)

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27
Q

What are the speed limits in class A,B,C,D, and E?

A

A- no limit,
B- 250 below 10,000
C- 200 within 4nm and 2500ft
D- same as C,E - 250 below 10,000 (FAR)

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28
Q

What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions part 91?

A

Destination, plus legal alternate (if required) plus 45 minutes, at cruise.

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29
Q

2 way radio communication failure while IFR.

A 
If the failure occurs in IFR conditions:
Route:
Assigned
vectored- by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the clearance;
Expected
Filed- in the flight plan
Altitude-
Assigned
MEA
expected
Assigned
Clearance limit. If at a fix where an approach begins commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time if one has been provided, or if one has not been provided, as close as possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed time en route.
If the clearance limit is not at a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time, if one has not been received upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA.
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30
Q

Do you have to have TCAS operating when installed in the aircraft?

A

Yes (91.221)

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31
Q

Supplemental O2 requirements (crew) part 91?

A

12,500 ft- 14,000 ft cabin pressure altitude O2 required for portion of flight at those altitudes greater than 30 minutes. 14,000ft cabin pressure altitude O2 used at all times at flight above those altitudes. (91.211)

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32
Q

Pilot requirements use of O2 part 135?

A

Unpressurized aircraft. Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen continuously when flying-
(1) at altitudes above 10,000 ft through 12,000 feet MSL for part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; and
(2) above 12,000 feet MSL
(B) pressurized aircraft. (1) whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated with the cabin pressure altitude more than 10,000ft MSL, each pilot shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section.
(2)whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated at altitudes above 25,000ft through 35,000 ft MSL, unless each pilot has an approved quick donning type oxygen masks-
(I) at least one pilot at the controls shall wear, secured and sealed, an oxygen mask that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft MSL; and
(ii) during that flight, each other pilot on flight deck duty shall have an oxygen mask, connected to an oxygen supply, located so as to allow immediate placing of the mask on the pilots face sealed and secured for use.
(3) whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated at altitudes above 35,000 feet MSL, at least one pilot at the controls shall wear, secured and sealed, an oxygen mask required by (b)(2)(I)
(4) if one pilot leaves a pilot duty station of an aircraft when operating at altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an approved oxygen mask until the other pilot returns to the pilot duTy station of the aircraft. (135.89)

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33
Q

Airborne weather radar requirements?

A

No person may begin a flight under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar equipment, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar equipment required by (a) is in satisfactory operating conditions.
(C) if the airborne weather radar equipment becomes inop en route, the aircraft must be operated under the instructions and procedures specified for that even in the manual. 135.175

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34
Q

What weather is required before flight under part 135?

A

Destination weather at or above minimums at ETA (135.219)

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35
Q

Can you continue an approach when inside the FAF when the weather is below landing minimums?

A

Yes (135.225)

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36
Q

Duty times and requirements part 135?

A

Within the preceding 24 hours starting at the end of the trip each pilot shall have 10 consecutive hours of crew rest. No pilot shall fly more than 8 hours in any 24 hour period. (We are not allowed to go over this since we are single pilot operation) each pilot shall have 13 rest periods of 24’consecutive hours each calendar quarter. Each pilot is limited to not more than 500 flight hours In any calendar quarter, 800 hours I any two consecutive calendar quarters and 1400 hour I many year. 135.263, 135.267

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37
Q

What are the takeoff and landing runway requirements for part 135?

A

Landing distance at destination allows a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway, and at the alternate can accomplish a full stop landing within 70 percent of the effective length of the runway.

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38
Q

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?

A

ID code or voice is removed or radiate test code (AIM 1-1-3 c)

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39
Q

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and the displayed distance to the VORTAC?

A

High altitude near the VORTAC.

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40
Q

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

A

VOR within the preceding 30 days and altimeter and transponder within the preceding 24 calendar months.

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41
Q

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR check?

A

Date, place, bearing error, and signature in aircraft log

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42
Q

What functions are provided by an ILS?

A

Guidance (Loc-glideslop)
Range (marker beacon-DME)
Visual (approach and runway lights)

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43
Q

What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative outer marker for an ILS approach?

A

Compass locator, DME or precision radar

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44
Q

How does the LDA differ from an ILS?

A

The LDA is not aligned with the runway 3 degree. If the LDA is not within 30 degrees of the runway, circling

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45
Q

May a pilot approaching a runway with VASI descend below glide slope to make a short approach?

A

No

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46
Q

How does the SDF differ from the ILS LOC?

A

The SDF is fixed at 6 or 12 degrees. The SDF May or may not be aligned with the runway.

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47
Q

What is the maximum speed to be used I’m a procedure turn and within what distance from the fix?

A

200 knots and the specified distance, normally 10 miles

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48
Q

When is a procedure turn required?

A

When it is necessary to reverse course to establish aircraft on inboard course

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49
Q

Is the pilot required to read back hold short instructions?

A

Yes

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50
Q

When the pilot has accepted visual separation from traffic does ATC retain wake turbulence separation?

A

No

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51
Q

Under what conditions does a pilot receive a void time in a clearance?

A

If operating from an airport not served by an operating control tower.

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52
Q

What actions are expected from the pilot if all communications is lost with the center?

A

Contact the nearest FSS for communication assignment

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53
Q

When no climb gradient is specified o. A departure procedure, what is the minimum climb gradient that is to be maintained?

A

200ft per nautical mile to the MEA unless required to level off by a crossing restriction

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54
Q

What are the required items In a position report?

A

Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA next waypoint, and the following waypoint.

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55
Q

When holding at an NDB, at what point should timing begin for the second leg outbound?

A

Over or abeam the fix whichever occurs last

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56
Q

What is the max authorized holding sped at 8,000ft?

A

MHA-6000 200
6001-14000 230
14001- above 265

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57
Q

What atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?

A

Upper winds blowing across the front

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58
Q

What weather difference is found on each side of a dry line?

A

Dew point difference, a dew point front or dry line is formed when two air masses of similar density and temperature meet

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59
Q

What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?

A

A trough is an elongated area of low flow pressure

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60
Q

Where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and fronts?

A

The jet stream is normally located north of the surface systems

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61
Q

What type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low level stratus clouds?

A

Rime ice forms when drops are small such as those in level stratus clouds

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62
Q

What condition is necessary for the formations of structural icing in flight?

A

Flying thru visible moisture and the temperature where the water strikes the aircraft must be freezing

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63
Q

What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?

A

Freezing rain at higher levels

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64
Q

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?

A

When both the temperature and dew point are below freezing. Occurs on clear nights with little or no winds

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65
Q

What temperature conditions are indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?

A

The temperature is above freezing at flight level

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66
Q

What type of precipitation is an indication that super cooled water is present?

A

Freezing rain at flight level

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67
Q

Radiation fog occurs when there is a surface based temperature inversion, what characterizes a ground based inversion?

A

Poor visibility

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68
Q

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion?

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, calm night

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69
Q

What causes advection fog to form?

A

Warm moist air flowing over colder surfaces

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70
Q

What causes upslope fog to form?

A

Moist, stable air moving over higher ground, cooling adiabatically

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71
Q

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?

A

More than 4000ft thick

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72
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Rain begins to fall

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73
Q

What is and where do squall lines most often develop?

A

A narrow band of active thunderstorms, develops ahead of a cold front in moist unstable air

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74
Q

Which types storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?

A

Steady state (frontal) thunderstorms

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75
Q

You are observing cumulonimbus mamma clouds. What inference can be made to this sighting?

A

Violent thunderstorms and tornadoes, turbulence.

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76
Q

Where is the greatest are of thunderstorm turbulence?

A

Under the anvil

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77
Q

What is the recommended flight separation from thunderstorms?

A

20 miles

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78
Q

What is a definition of a wind shear?

A

Rapid airspeed changes of more than 15 knots, rapid vertical speed changes of more than 500ft/min

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79
Q

Which wind shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

A

Tailwind shearing to a headwind

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80
Q

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?

A

All sides and directly under the center

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81
Q

What is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?

A

A calm or light wind near the surface and a stronger wind above the inversion, 2000 to 4000ft winds 25kts or more

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82
Q

Where are the jet streams located?

A

They are found in the breaks in the polar and topical tropopause.

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83
Q

Which type of clouds may be associated with the jet stream?

A

Cirri-form clouds

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84
Q

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jet stream occur?

A

Near the core center

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85
Q

What kind of temperature changes can be expected in the tropopause?

A

Intensive temperature gradients

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86
Q

One of the tools used in recognizing severe weather is the convective outlook. What information is provided?

A

Describes activities for the following 24 hours

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87
Q

If squall lines are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?

A

Sudden increase of winds, 15 to 20kts for one minute

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88
Q

When flying over the top of severe thunderstorm the cloud should be overflown by how many feet?

A

Clear the top by 1000ft for each 10kts of wind

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89
Q

What is the maximum amount of area coverage, by thunderstorms, at which the entire area should be circumnavigated?

A

6/10 th

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90
Q

At what altitude of cloud tops should a thunderstorm be considered extremely hazardous?

A

Tops above 35,000ft

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91
Q

If you can see under the thunderstorm, is it ok to fly under?

A

No, turbulence and wind shear could be disastrous

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92
Q

What is the first rule of wind shear escape?

A

Avoid

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93
Q

Once wind shear has been encountered what is the accepted recovery?

A

Increase power, increase pitch, maintain configuration

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94
Q

One way to improve flight crew’s ability to recognize and respond quickly to a wind shear encounter is to;

A

Develop strong CRM

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95
Q

When encountering a wind shear on the runway with insufficient runway to stop or accelerate to a normal speed, what procedure should the pilot use?

A

Rotate early and except a lower airspeed and higher pitch attitudes

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96
Q

What separation is recommended from any thunderstorm?

A

20 miles 40 miles to fly between

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97
Q

What adjustments to cockpit lighting should be made?

A

Turn up lighting to max

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98
Q

What techniques may be used for airborne radar?

A

Tilt antenna up and down to scan for other activities

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99
Q

Upon entering a thunderstorm, what type of course should the pilot take?

A

Set straight course through the storm

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100
Q

Where is a likely location of CAT?

A

Polar side of the jet stream

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101
Q

What action is recommended regarding an altitude change to avoid the jet stream turbulence?

A

Temperature drop - descend
Temperature rises - climb
(Temp constant near core)

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102
Q

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?

A

Establish a straight course through

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103
Q

What action is recommended of turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or direct tailwind?

A

Change altitude (winds elongate and make areas long and shallow)

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104
Q

CAT associated with mountain waves may extend how far vertically and laterally from mountains?

A

5000ft above the tropopause and 100 miles downwind

105
Q

What is the difference between occasional, intermittent and continuous chop?

A

1/3, 1/3 to 2/3, and more than 2/3

106
Q

What color are the runway edge lights for the last 2000ft of a runway?

A

Yellow

107
Q

Describe the aiming point marking and it’s location on the runway.

A

There are two broad white stripes, 1000ft. from runway approach end.

108
Q

Runway hold position markings consist of 4 yellow lines, 2 solid and 2 dashed. Which ones are on the side where the aircraft should hold?

A

The two solid lines

109
Q

Name and describe the classes of airspace?

A

A-FL180-FL600 must be IFR on an IFR flight plan
B-surface to 10,000 (mostly) 3sm vis. Clear of clouds, 250 kias, 30nm mode C veil clearance to enter
C- surface to 4,000agl 3sm vis. 1000’ above 2000’ horizontal and 500’ below clouds 2 way communications to enter, mode C in or above
D-surface to 2,500’agl 3sm vis. 1000’ above 2000’ horizontal and 500’ below clouds, 2 way communications to enter
E- surface, 700, 1200 or 14,500 up to but not including overlaying airspace, 3sm vis. 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal and 500’ below clouds below 10k, 5sm, 1000’ above, 1000’ below and 1 mile horizontal above 10k, 250kias below 10k
G-all airspace that is not A-E, 1sm and clear

110
Q

What is the correct aircraft equipment suffix for filing a flight plan for a 414 or king air?

A

King air and 414’s “g” for GPS

111
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds?

A

0-6000=200, 6000-14000=230,14000 and above =265

112
Q

Where can the minimum safe altitude for an airport be found?

A

IAP charts

113
Q

What approach category is your airplane?

A

C-414=A

BE10=B

114
Q

What does the term minimum fuel mean?

A

AIM chapter 5, section 5, para 15=A fuel status advisory that allows for no undue delay

115
Q

Who is issued a copy of the OPS manual?

A

Flight crew members, representative of FAA assigned to certificate holding district office (CHDO) managing flight options certificate.

116
Q

Who is responsible for keeping the manual current?

A

Each employee to whom a manual was issued.

117
Q

Who is the president of executive air?

A

Terry boer

118
Q

Who is the director of operations/ chief pilot?

A

Mark Lindquist

119
Q

Who is the director maintenance?

A

Victor Grahn

120
Q

You are assigned a trip that plans to dispatch at 8am. What time are you required to report for duty?

A

At least one hour prior 7am (Indoc training)

121
Q

With respect to weight and balance procedures, for your company, how is the weight of passengers obtained?

A

Asked actual weight

122
Q

With respect to the above question, how is the weight of cargo obtained?

A

Weighed

123
Q

How can you determine if the VOR equipment, in your assigned aircraft, has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days?

A

By checking aircraft log/load manifest EAT Form 4

124
Q

Your passengers show up and as you the baggage you note camping equipment to include a camp stove for cooking. May you transport this piece of equipment?

A

Cannot carry stove fuel or a pressurized tank, cannot carry anything that contains a label appearing on DOT chart 14

125
Q

What crew member is responsible for visually checking each item on a checklist to ascertain that the correct action has been taken?

A

You are PIC and are responsible even if there is another pilot in the right seat.

126
Q

With respect to checklist usage, when may your crew members utilize the term/response: “as required”?

A

Never. As required on the checklist means you have a choice; choose one and respond with that choice

127
Q

With respect to changes in altitude assignment by ATC,mow hat procedure does your company utilize to insure both crew members are aware of the new assignment?

A

Single pilot: PF sets new altitude, PF verbalizes new altitude, PF verifies autopilot or heading director is set correctly for the climb or descent, PF verifies that autopilot levels off at new altitude.

Crew: PNF sets new altitude. PNF calls out new altitude and points to it. PF confirms.

128
Q

With respect to operations during ground icing, and during deciding of the aircraft, fluid is first applied to the aircraft at 10am and the procedure takes 8 minutes to complete. What time will the crew member utilize for determining holdover times?

A

10 am

129
Q

During the conduct of a 135 flight you land at your destination airport. You are met by the FAA inspector who desires to conduct a ramp inspection. What documents must you be able to produce?

A

ARROW requirements of part 91 and GOM, load manifest

130
Q

Is executive air authorized to utilize ILS-PRM approaches?

A

No

131
Q

Who is responsible to insure that adequate and current charts are on board the aircraft and that the IFR GPS databases are current for each flight?

A

Chief pilot and PIC

132
Q

What is executive air transport, inc’s accident notification procedure?

A

Each pilot involved in an accident will, by the most expeditious means possible, report the accident to the director of operations. The director of operations will notify the director of maintenance, the Vice President and the president of executive air, and the appropriate government officials.

133
Q

What are the PICs responsibilities if a mechanical irregularity exists?

A

Address all associated checklists and ensure the safety of passengers and crew. Enter the mechanical irregularity in the aircraft maintenance record. Contact the director of maintenance. Follow any instructions given by the director of maintenance. Do not make another takeoff until the problem has been corrected and entered on the aircraft maintenance record.

134
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating and ensuring completeness and correctness of the aircraft maintenance records?

A

DOM

135
Q

How often is an executive air aircraft weighed?

A

Within the preceding 36 months

136
Q

When may a crew accept a visual approach?

A

Any time the weather conditions allow sufficient seeing ability to identify and avoid obstacles and safety maneuver the aircraft using external visual references while maintaining minimum altitudes. Must meet part 91VFR requirements. Must be able to maintain a visual reference with the landing surface. Must maintain radio contact with ATC or with an air/ground facility.

137
Q

Is it legal to depart an uncontrolled airport VFR and get a clearance after airborne?

A

For part 91 flights :yes

138
Q

Can we fly contact approaches?

A

No because we don’t have a training program for them.

139
Q

Does the aircraft status book have to be on board prior to departure?

A

Yes

140
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the aircraft status book?

A

The PIC of that particular aircraft or maintenance

141
Q

Under current operating policies, does the PIC have to fill out a load manifest?

A

The PIC will ensure that all a/c performance limitations and weight and balance data have been reviewed before each flight. Load manifests are not required for part 91 operations.

142
Q

Can an EAT aircraft be fueled with passengers on board?

A

No

143
Q

According to the operations manual, what passenger briefing items must be covered?

A

Smoking, use of seatbelts and compliance with lighted signs and crew member instructions, seat backs upright for takeoff and landing, stowage of food and beverage trays, location and means of opening entry door and emergency exit, location of survival equipment, location and use of floatations devices, normal and emergency use of oxygen, location and operation of fire extinguisher, non use of portable electronic devices.

144
Q

Who must be notified first, in the event of an emergency involving the safety of persons or property that required a deviation from the FARs?

A

The director of operations

145
Q

Are EATs aircraft permitted to carry hazardous materials?

A

No

146
Q

What is the preferred method for removing snow and ice accumulations?

A

Gently remove as much snow as possible by sweeping the aircraft surfaces with a broom. Then have aircraft towed into a heated hanger. Once all surfaces are contaminate free, spray with de-icing fluid to prevent the melted water from refereeing. If a heated hanger is not available, use hot de-icing fluid

147
Q

When is the PIC required to make a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

This check is required 5 minutes prior to takeoff in ground icing conditions or when the holdover time has been exceeded.

148
Q

Does EAT have an MEL program?

A

No

149
Q

Are we authorized to use lower than standard takeoff minimums?

A

Yes

150
Q

What are the alternate airport IFR weather minimums?

A

For an airport that has at least one approach procedure, a ceiling derived by adding 400’ to the authorized category I HAT or the authorized HAA and a visibility derived by adding 1sm to the CAT I landing minimum. For an airport that has at least two approaches to two different suitable runways, a ceiling derived by adding 200’ to the authorized CAT I HAT or the authorized HAA and a visibility derived by adding 1/2sm to the higher of the CAT I landing minimum of the two approaches. For a more complete answer see page C-55 in the operations specifications

151
Q

Are we able to file to airports without weather reporting capabilities?

A

No

152
Q

During low IFR conditions, is there a limit to the number of approaches that can be flown down to the minimums and gone missed approach?

A

Yes, no more than two approaches with a missed can be shot.

153
Q

Aircraft operations from sunset to sunrise are prohibited at which airports?

A

Aspen, rifle,eagle, telluride, sun valley, and truckee and more.

154
Q

What is the scheduling guideline for crew duty days?

A

12 hours from first takeoff to last landing.

155
Q

What is the scheduling guideline for crew rest?

A

10 hour rest period from 30 minute after last scheduled flight end to one hour before next scheduled flight.

156
Q

Can the crew duty day be lengthened and the rest period be shortened?

A

No

157
Q

Are LAHSO authorized?

A

No

158
Q

What are the steps for engine securing?

A 
Throttle-close
Prop- feather
Mixture-idle cut off
Fuel selector- off
Aux fuel pump- off
Magnetos- off
Prop synch- off
Alternator- off
Cowl flaps- close
159
Q

What are the memory items for an engine failure during takeoff below Vmca?

A

Throttles- close

Brakes- as required

160
Q

What are the steps for an engine failure after takeoff (98 kias gear up)?

A 
Mixture- full rich
Propellers- full forward
Throttles- full forward (38.0 inches)
Landing gear- check up- flaps up
Inop engine- throttles closed/propeller feather/mixture idle cut off
Bank- 5 degrees toward good engine
Climb- 98 or 108 depending on obstacles
Trim tabs- 5 degrees bank with 1/2 ball on TC
Cowl flaps- closed on inop engine
Secure inop engine
Fuel selector- off
Aux fuel pump- off
Magneto- off
Alternator- off
Land as soon as practical
161
Q

What are the steps for an engine failure in flight (above Vmca)?

A 
Inop engine-determine
Op engine-adjust as required
Trouble shooting:
Fuel flow- check (aux fuel pump on)
Fuel selector- main tanks
Fuel quantity- check
Oil pressure/temp- check
Magneto switches- check
Mixture- lean until MP begins to increase then richen as power increases
Engine does not start:
Inop engine
Throttle- close
Prop- feather
Mixture- idle cutoff
Fuel selector- off
Aux fuel pump- off
Prop synch- off
Alternator- off
Cowl flap- close
Op engine:
Power- as required
Mixture- adjust
Fuel elector- as required
Aux fuel pump- on
Cowl flap- as required
Trim- 5 degrees toward good engine
Electrical load- decrease to min required
Land as soon as possible
162
Q

What are the steps for engine failure during flight (below Vmca)?

A

Rudder- apply
Power- reduce to stop turn
Pitch attitude- lower nose to accelerate above Vmca
Inop engine prop- feather
Op engine- increase power as speed increases
Inop engine- secure
Trim- adjust 5 degrees bank to good engine
Op engine cowl flap- adjust as required

163
Q

What are the steps for an engine inop landing?

A

Fuel selector- main tank
Aux fuel pump- on (op engine)
Alternate air control- in
Mixture- full rich or lean for smooth operation
Prop synch- off
Prop- full forward
Approach- 108 kias with excessive altitude
Landing gear- down within gliding distance
Wing flaps- down when landing is assured
Speed- reduce below 94 if landing is assured
Vmca- 79

164
Q

What are the steps for an engine inop go around?

A 
Throttle- full forward 38.0 inches
Wing flaps- retract
Positive rate of climb- establish
Landing gear- retract
Cowl flap- open
Speed- 108 kias Vyse
Trim- 5 degrees bank toward good engine
165
Q

What are the steps for a both engines failure during flight?

A 
Wing flaps- up
Landing gear- up
Propellers- feather
Cowl flaps- close
Airspeed- 120
Langing- forced landing procedure
166
Q

What are the steps for doing an air start?

A 
Aux fuel pump- off
Magnetos- on
Fuel selector- mains
Throttle- 1 1/2 inches open
Mixture- full rich then retard approx 2 inches
Prop- forward of detent
Starter button- press
Primer switch- activate
Starter and primer- release when engine fires
Aux fuel pump- low
Mixture- adjust for smooth operation
Power- increase after 200 degrees F cylinder temp
Cowl flaps- as required
Alternator- on
167
Q

What are the steps for a fire on the ground?

A 
Throttles- close
Brakes- as required
Mixture- idle cut off
Battery- off (use gang bar)
Magnetos- off (use gang bar)
Evacuate as soon as possible
168
Q

What are the steps for an in flight wing or engine fire?

A 
Aux fuel pumps- both off
Op engine fuel selector- main tank
Emergency cross feed shut off- off (pull up)
Inop engine- secure
Throttle- close
Prop- feather
Mixture- idle cut off
Fuel selector- off
Cowl flap- close
Magnetos- off
Prop synch- off
Alternator- off
Cabin heater- off
Land and evacuate
169
Q

In flight cabin electrical fire or smoke?

A

Electrical load- reduce to minimum
Fuel selectors- main tank
Emergency cross feed shut off- off (pull up)
Attempt to isolate source of fire or smoke
Cabin air controls- open all vents including windshield defrost
Pressurization air contamination procedure- initiate
Land and evacuate

170
Q

What are the steps for a pressurization air contamination?

A 
Pressurization air controls- pull LH/RH as needed
With both air sources dumped:
Ram dump control- pull
Cabin pressurization switch- depressurize 
If above 10,000 use supplemental O2
O2 knob- pull
Put on mask
Check passengers are on O2
171
Q

What are the steps for an emergency descent?

A 
Throttles- idle
Props- full forward
Mixtures- adjust for smooth op
Wing flaps- up
Landing gear- up
Bank angle- moderate till descent is established
Airspeed- 235 kias
172
Q

What are the steps for an emergency descent in turbulent air?

A 
Throttles- idle
Props- full forward
Mixtures- adjust for smooth op
Wing flaps- down 45 degrees
Landing gear- down
Bank angle- moderate till descent is established 
Airspeed- 146 kias
173
Q

What are the steps for a forced landing with power?

A 
Drag landing field with flaps 15 degrees and speed 105
Plan wheels down landing if surface is smooth and hard normal landing
Rough or soft surface= gear up
Airspeed- 105
Flaps- 15 degrees
Pressurization air controls- pull
All switch except magnetos- off
Mixtures- idle cutoff
Magnetos- idle cutoff
Fuel selectors- off
Emergency cross feed shutoff- pull up
174
Q

What are the steps for a forced landing no power?

A 
Mixtures- idle cutoff
Props- feather
Fuel selectors- off
Emergency fuel cross feed shutoff- pull up
Switches (not battery)- off
Approach speed- 120kias
Landing gear- down when field made
Gear hyd C/B pull, emer gear T handle pull, 3 green no red, test gear warn horn
Flaps- as needed
Approach speed- 105 kias
Battery- off
Normal landing
(If field is soft land gear up)
175
Q

What are the steps for an engine driven fuel pump failure?

A

Fuel selector- main tank
Aux fuel pump- on
Cowl flap- as required
Mixture- full rich…adjust flow to coincide with power setting
Land as soon as practical
Cross feed is unusable if the other engine is operating

176
Q

What are the steps for a single alternator failure?

A

Electrical load- reduce
If breaker is tripped:
Affected alt- off
Circuit breaker- reset
Affected alt- on
If breaker re-trips- alt switch off
Reduce electrical load
C/B does not trip
Monitor output on volt ammeter
If output is normal disregard failure light and have checked after landing
If output is insufficient, turn off alternator and reduce load to one alternator capacity
Complete loss, check field fuse and replace if necessary
If intermittent light and volt ammeter fluctuation is observed, turn off alternator and reduce load
Restrict load to 80% of rated alternator load

177
Q

What are the steps for duel alternator fail indicated by failure lights?

A 
Reduce electrical load
If C/Bs are tripped
Turn off alternators
Reset breakers
Turn on left alt and monitor output
If alternator is charging leave it on and disregard fail light
If still inop try same with right alt
If breakers reopen prepare to terminate flight
178
Q

Duel alternator fail indicated by failure lights.

A

Reduce electrical load
If C/Bs are not tripped
Turn off alternators
Check field fuses and replace if necessary
Turn on left alt and monitor output
If alternator is charging leave it on and disregard fail light
If still inop try same with right alt
If both are still inop turn off alternators and turn on emergency power alternator field switch
Turn on left alt and monitor output
If alternator is charging leave it on and disregard fail light
If still inop try same with right alt
If both still inop, turn off alternator, nonessential electrical items and prepare to terminate flight

179
Q

What are the steps for landing without flaps?

A 
Mixture- full rich or as required for smooth op
Props- full forward 
Fuel selectors- main tanks
Min approach speed- 107 kias
Landing gear- down
180
Q

What are the steps for an avionics bus failure?

A

Avionics bus switch- off

Emergency power avionics bus switch- on

181
Q

What are the steps for hydraulic pressure light illuminated after gear cycle?

A

Landing gear switch- rapidly recycle
If hydraulic pressure light is still illuminated:
Landing gear down
Gear hyd C/B- pull
If if still illuminated land ASAP to prevent damage to system

182
Q

What are the steps for a landing gear down and locked light illuminated with gear handle up and hydraulic press light out?

A

Perform “landing gear will not extend hydraulically” checklist
Note: failure of any one of the three down lock switches in the down position may result in that gear not locking down during a gear down cycle if the other two gears lock down first. The down and locked light for the affected gear may remain on continually regardless of actual gear positions.

183
Q

What are the steps for a landing gear will not extend hydraulically?

A 
Airspeed- 130 kias or less (reduces gear load)
Landing gear switch- down
Gear hyd C/B- pull
Emergency gear ext T-handle- pull
Gear down lights- on
Gear unlocked light- off
If mains don't lock- yaw airplane
Gear warning horn- check
Land as soon as practical
184
Q

What are the steps for a landing gear will not retract?

A 
Landing gear switch- down
Gear down lights- on
Unlocked light- off
Gear warning horn- check
Land as soon as practical
185
Q

What are the steps for a vacuum pump failure?

A

Failure indicated by left or right red failure button exposed on vacuum gauge.
Automatic valve will select operative source.
Vacuum pressure check for proper vacuum from op source

186
Q

What are the steps for an air inlet or filter icing?

A 
Alternate air control- pull out
Props- increase to 2550 RPM
Mixtures- lean as required
Pressurization air controls pull LH or RH as necessary
With both air sources dumped:
Ram dump control- pull
Cabin pressurization- switch depressurize
If above 10,000 use supplemental O2
O2 knob pull
Put on mask
Check pax are on O2
187
Q

What are the steps for an impending skin or window failure?

A 
Cabin pressurization switch- depressurize
RAM dump control- pull
Pressurization air controls- pull
If above 10,000 use supplemental O2
O2 knob pull
Put mask on
Check passengers are on O2
188
Q

What are the steps for cabin over pressure (+5.3 PSI)?

A

Pressurization air controls- pull
If above 10,000 use supplemental O2
Descend and land as soon as practical

189
Q

What are the steps for a loss of pressurization above 10,000 feet?

A

O2 knob pull
Put on mask
If no O2, emergency descend to 10,000 feet
Descend as soon as practical to 10,000 feet

190
Q

What are the steps for a prop synchro phaser failure?

A

Prop synch switch- off
Prop synch C/B- pull
Note: during use, the synchro phaser may go out of limits and need to be turned off and then back on to operate. Try this first to make sure the synchro phaser is really failed before doing the above check.

191
Q

What are the steps for an emergency exit window removal?

A

Cabin pressurization switch- depressurize
Cabin differential pressure- check zero differential
Emergency release handle plastic cover- pull off
Release handle- turn counter clockwise
Emergency exit window- pull in and down, then toss out of the airplane

192
Q

What are the steps for spin recovery?

A

Throttles- close immediately
Ailerons- neutralize
Rudder- hold full opposite to the spin
Control wheel- forward briskly 1/2 turn of spin after applying rudder
Inboard engine- increase power to slow spin
After spin stops:
Rudder neutral
Inboard engine- equalize power setting with other eng
Control wheel- smoothly recover from dive

193
Q

What is the minimum oil level for flight operations?

A

9 quarts

194
Q

What is the max power setting?

A

38” mp and 2700RPM

195
Q

If you push the throttles to the full forward position on the ground during takeoff what is the maximum manifold pressure that the engines should go to?

A

38”mp controlled by the waste gate

196
Q

Why would airspeed changes cause changes in the manifold pressure?

A

Above 20,000 feet the waste gate is fully closed and since any air pressure change at the compressor inlet is magnified 8-10 times at the compressor outlet.

197
Q

Will the waste gate control manifold pressure above 20,000 feet?

A

No, the waste gate will be fully closed and the throttle will have to be used to control manifold pressure.

198
Q

Where is the power setting for cruise at 16,000 feet found?

A

Power setting tables on the RAM engine chart kept in the aircraft

199
Q

After adequate terrain clearance has been obtained, what power and prop setting should be set?

A

32” mp and 2450 RPM (RAM ENGINE CHART)

200
Q

What is the recommended cruise climb airspeed and why is it recommended?

A

115-140 kts, to provide better engine cooling, less engine wear, reduced fuel consumption, lower cabin noise, better forward visibility

201
Q

Where is the optimal cylinder head temp for high performance cruise power found?

A

RAM engine chart

202
Q

What is the recommended airspeed for final approach on a visual landing?

A

A speed that allows a stabilized speed of 94kias at 50’ AGL with gear and full flaps, normally 100kias

203
Q

What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speed?

A

145 kias Va or 146

204
Q

Vso

A

71 kias

205
Q

Vs

A

81 kias

206
Q

Vmc

A

79 kias

207
Q

Vx

A

88 kias

208
Q

Vxse

A

98 kias

209
Q

Vyse

A

108

210
Q

Va

A

145 kias

211
Q

Vle/lo

A

177 kias

212
Q

Vfe

A

15 degrees- 177 kias

45 degrees - 146 kias

213
Q

Vno

A

203 kias

214
Q

Vne

A

237 kias

215
Q

Transition speed for balked landing?

A

82 kias

216
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind?

A

19 knots

217
Q

N2734B max speed with visible ice on the aircraft?

A

185 kias

218
Q

How many gallons useable do out chancellors have?

A

206 gallons

219
Q

Where is the overheat reset button for the combustion heater located?

A

Inside the nose wheel well.

220
Q

Can the pilot check the hydraulic oil level in the chancellor?

A

A sight gauge is located in the now baggage area.

221
Q

What does activation of the gear warning horn indicate?

A

Flight: the power is reduced below 15” and the gear is up or if the flaps are lowered passed 15 degrees and the gear is up
Ground: gear lever is in the up position

222
Q

Do the brakes use the same hydraulic oil reservoir as the gear?

A

No

223
Q

Do the toe brakes need to be depressed while engaging the parking brake?

A

Yes, the parking brake holds the pressure applied by the toe brakes

224
Q

Specifically, what happens when the emergency gear control T-handle is pulled?

A

It released dry nitrogen into the shuttle valve, which moves the shuttle valve from the hydraulic position to the air position, nitrogen then releases the up-locks and then moves into the landing gear cylinders which drives the gear into the down and lock position.

225
Q

How many amps do the alternators put out at full output?

A

100 amps each 200 total

226
Q

Where is the battery located?

A

Left wing stub

227
Q

What is the purpose of the emergency power alternator field switch?

A

It is used when the alternators won’t self excite

228
Q

Why does this aircraft have two spare fuses?

A

One for each alternator field fuse

229
Q

Is it permissible to reset a circuit breaker?

A

Yes, after a three minute cool down.

230
Q

Where is the external power receptacle locate?

A

In the left wing aft of the nacelle fairing

231
Q

How many fuel pumps are there?

A

2 engine driven, 2 auxiliary electrical 1 for the heater

232
Q

What positions are selectable with either fuel pump switch?

A

Off, lo and high

233
Q

What is the purpose for having a low setting on the fuel pump?

A

Vapor suppression

234
Q

Should the fuel pump be used during normal takeoff and landing?

A

Yes

235
Q

What is the approximate fuel flow at 75% power?

A

38 gph total

236
Q

What is the purpose of the emergency cross feed shutoff lever, and when would you use it?

A

It shuts off cross feed fuel flow and the heater. It is used I. The event of a wing, nacelle or center section fire or if a wheels up landing is made.

237
Q

What is the max allowable amount of oil?

A

12 quarts

238
Q

Where would you find the recommended tire inflation pressure?

A

In the handling and servicing section of the AFM

239
Q

What holds the landing gear up?

A

Mechanical up-locks that are hydraulically released on extension

240
Q

What holds the landing gear down?

A

Internal locks on the landing gear actuators

241
Q

Will the landing gear retract or extend normally without power and why?

A

No, the landing gear is operated by 2 electrically powered hydraulic pumps one located on each engine

242
Q

How many indicator lights are associated with the landing gear?

A

4, three green position lights and one red gear in transition/warning light

243
Q

Should the battery be on before external power is plugged in and turned on?

A

Yes, so the battery can absorb transients from the external power

244
Q

What type of flaps does the chancellor have?

A

Split flaps

245
Q

Can the chancellor be towed with the airless on gust lock in place?

A

No this is because of the the aileron/rudder interconnects

246
Q

Which flight controls have trim tabs?

A

Aileron, elevator, and rudder

247
Q

What will happen if the rudder gust lock is left engaged during flight?

A

You will have to pull full aft elevator on the ground to release it.

248
Q

List the parts that must be functional for the aircraft to be certified for flights into known ice.

A

Boots, prop heat, windshield heat, pitot heat,stall heat, both alternators, ice light

249
Q

Do the tail and wing device boots inflate at the same time?

A

No, the tail boots are inflated for 6 seconds and then the wing boots are inflated for 6 seconds.

250
Q

Can the pilot determine which section of the prop device pads are operating?

A

No, only that the system is on or off.

251
Q

What is the windshield heater limitation I’d the windshield is covered in ice?

A

Do not leave on the more than 20 seconds to prevent overheat and windshield damage

252
Q

How does a pilot control the stall heaters?

A

By turning the stall and vent heater switch on

253
Q

Can the chancellor be flown un-pressurized?

A

Yes, select depressurize and pull the RAM dump knob.

254
Q

What is the max cabin differential pressure that is flown?

A

5.3 PSI

255
Q

What is the normal cabin differential pressure range?

A

0.0-5.0 PSI

256
Q

What is the chancellors max altitude?

A

30,000 feet

257
Q

Can you fly the chancellor at max altitude?

A

No, the aircraft is not RVSM approved

258
Q

What would you set the cabin altitude selector to for a pressurized flight at 23,000 feet?

A

Inside scale should be set to 24,000 feet even though the manual calls for +500 feet

259
Q

For flights below 12,000 feet, why does the cabin at the same rate as the aircraft for the first 1000 or so feet?

A

Because the pressurization system will climb the cabin to the set cabin height before pressurizing the cabin.

Aircraft/Flying (9 decks)

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