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Oto Board Pearls of Wisdom - Section I Anatomy and Basic Science > 12 Basic Science > Flashcards

12 Basic Science Flashcards

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1
Q

Mechanism of Type III immune rxns

A

IgG and IgM complexes deposit in basement membranes of blood vessels resulting in outflow of plasma into tissues, activation of complement, and influx of neutrophils

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2
Q

Mechanism of Type IV immune rxn

A

overenthusiastic T cell response to an environmental Ag where macrophages damage adjacent tissues

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3
Q

Which cells can antigen present

A

monocytes, macrophages, dentritic cells, Langerhans cells, B cells

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4
Q

Which subtype of TH cell requires IL-1 to proliferate in response to Ag

A

TH2

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5
Q

What determines the class of an Ig

A

The heavy chain

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6
Q

Which Ig prevents parasite infxn

A

IgE

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7
Q

What immune cell displays CD2, CD16, CD56 and kills some types of tumor cells without depending on prior immunization

A

NK cells

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8
Q

In which are of the inner ear are immunologically active structures most commonly found and what is the predominant Ig there?

A

Endolymphatic sac; IgA

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9
Q

What is the concentration of Ig in perilymph vs serum

A

1/1000th

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10
Q

What is predominant Ig in perilymph

A

IgG

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11
Q

How long does it take for most acid-fast bacilli to grow

A

7-10 days

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12
Q

what infectious organisms are eukaryotic

A

fungi and protozoa

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13
Q

which cell type contains peptidoglycan in its cell wall

A

prokaryotes

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14
Q

The ability of bacteria to take up extracellular DNA from their environment is known as what

A

competence

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15
Q

Which bacterial infxn accounts for more deaths than any other vaccine-preventable bacterial dz?

A

strep pneumoniae

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16
Q

What percent of population is colonized in NP with strep pneumoniae

A

40%

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17
Q

What are 5 stages of biofilm development

A
  • Initial attachment
  • Irreversible attachment
  • Maturation I
  • Maturation II
  • Dispersion
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18
Q

What type of cell receptor do thyroid hormone use

A

Nuclear

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19
Q

What hormone normally regulates protein synthesis and breakdown

A

insulin

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20
Q

1/2 life of T4

A

7 days

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21
Q

Thyroid hormone is stored as _____, the main component of colloid

A

Thyroglobulin

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22
Q

Most of the circulating thyroid hormone is bound by _______

A

Throxine-binding globulin

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23
Q

In pts treated for thyroid CA, post-tx thyroglobulin levels are less usefull in the presence of elevated _____

A

antithyroglobulin antibodies

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24
Q

What hormone receptors are present in JNAs?

A

Dihydrotestosterone and testosterone

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25
Q

What part of the pituitary gland is derived from Rathke’s pouch?

A

anterior pit

26
Q

secretion of TSH from ant pit results in increased or decreased colloid production in thyroid gland?

A

decreased

27
Q

what is the major inhibiting hormone of TSH

A

T3

28
Q

when during day does growth hormone production peak

A

2-3 hrs into sleep (stage III or IV)

29
Q

What is the major inhibiting hormone to growth hormone

A

somatostatin

30
Q

what effect do exercise and stress have on growth hormone secretion

A

stimulate secretion

31
Q

what is the m/c cause of DI

A

50% idiopathic

32
Q

what happens to PTH levels as ppl age

A

rise

33
Q

What will happen to reverse T3 and T3 levels during fasting, systemic illness, and acute psychiatric illness

A

Reverse T3 will increase and T3 will decrease

34
Q

Which thyroid blood test correlates best with the metabolic state of the pt

A

Free thyroxine index (fT4I) = t4 x THBR (thyroid hormone binding ratio)

35
Q

How long does it take for 100% Wallerian degeneration to occur after

  • complete nerve transection?
  • compressive conduction block?
A
  • 3-5 days

- 14-21 days

36
Q

B/w which days after injury is the degree of axonotmesis and neurotmesis unclear

A

6-14

37
Q

Waht are the 3 types of nerve injury and which result in wallerian degeneration

A

Neuropraxia (no)
Axonotmesis (yes)
Neurotmesis (yes, more rapid rate of WD)

38
Q

What is Sutherland’s classification for nerve injury

A
  • 1st degree: reversible conduction block (neuropraxia)
  • 2nd: WD occurs but endoneurium intact, recovery usu complete
  • 3rd: Endoneurium destroyed but perineurium intact; recovery incomplete
  • 4th: epineurium intact; recovery poor
  • 5th: complete transsection, recovery not expected
39
Q

Where is B-2 transferrin found

A

CSF, perilymph, vitreous humor

40
Q

Where in the brain is the biological clock

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

41
Q

Which rootlet makes greater occipital nerve

A

C2

42
Q

“The parasympathetic nervous system originates in the___ segments of the spinal cord while the sympathetic nervous system originates in the___ segments of the spinal cord

A

Craniosacral; thoracolumbar

43
Q

What are the products of plt degranulation

A

TGF-B and PDGF

44
Q

T/F: TGF-B stimulates cell proliferation

A

False, it inhibits it via stimulation of the SMAD proteins

45
Q

What does p53 do

A

tumor suppressor gene on 17p that is upregulated in presence of cellular injury and DNA damage. It is supposed to arrest cell cycle at G1/S checkpoint

46
Q

What is the role of cyclin D1 in H&N CA?

A

It is a kinase that leads to phosphorylation of RB protein (inactivating it) allowing cell to enter S phase

amplified in up to 1/3 of H&N CA

47
Q

What is the role of cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) in H&N CA?

A

Upregulation of cyclooxygenase has been shown to increase prostaglandins, decrease apoptosis, and increase angiogenesis via vascular endothelial growth factor in H&N tumors

48
Q

What happens when epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) is bound by EGF or TGF-alpha?

A

Intracellular tyrosine kinase is activated, leading to inhibition of apoptosis and activation of cell proliferation and angiogenesis.

49
Q

What is the role of EGFR and TGF-alpha in H&N CA?

A

Overexpressed in 80-90% of SCCa of the H&N

50
Q

What is the prognostic significance of EGFR expression?

A

High levels of EGFR expression are correlated with poor prognosis and resistance to RT

51
Q

“Autosomal recessive conditions are frequently associated with___ defects whereas autsosomal dominant conditions are frequently associated with___ defects.

A

enzyme; protein structure

52
Q

Which type of inheritance pattern has a recurrence risk that varies with the number of affected family members

A

Polygenic inheritance

53
Q

Hurler-Scheie syndrome is caused by which gene mutations with which inheritance pattern?

A

This syndrome is inherited in an Auto Rec pattern with the phenotype a product of 2 different mutations of the IDUA gene (compound heterozygotes)

54
Q

What is a syndrome

A

pattern of multiple anomalies pathogenetically related

55
Q

What is a microdeletion syndrome

A

Variable phenotypic pattern resulting from duplication or deletion of a small segment of linked chromosome material/genes that are functionally unrelated

56
Q

What syndrome is caused by a microdeletion in chrom 17 and is a/w MR, broad feet and hands, peripheral neuropathy, HL, and recurrent OM, disturbed sleep patterns, and inserting foreign objects into bodily orifices

A

Smith-Magenis syndrome

57
Q

What is a sequence

A

multiple defects arising from a single structural anomaly where the order of maldevelopment is understood

58
Q

What is an association

A

malformations occurring together more frequently than would be expected from chance alone

59
Q

What is genetic anticipation

A

a phenomenon seen in d/o caused by unstable trinucleotide repeats where the age of onset of the d/o is younger and the phenotype becomes more severe with each succeeding generation

60
Q

“A classic example of genetic imprinting is seen with microdeletions of the region 15q11 to 15q13. A microdeletion of the paternal chromosome 15 causes___ and microdeletion of the maternal chromosome 15 causes____.

A

Prader-Willi syndrome; Angelman syndrome

Oto Board Pearls of Wisdom - Section I Anatomy and Basic Science (13 decks)

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