11: Cancer Lecture III Flashcards

1
Q

DNA Intercalating Agents are anti-tumor _______ produced by Streptomyces. They bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases & cause DNA strand _______, which can block synthesis of DNA, RNA or both.

A

DNA Intercalating Agents are anti-tumor antibiotics produced by Streptomyces. They bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases & cause DNA strand breaks, which can block synthesis of DNA, RNA or both.

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2
Q

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents–Dactinomycin (also known as Actinomycin D):

anticancer antibiotic derived from Streptomyces

intercalates between adjacent G-C base pairs

interferes with DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, causing inhibition of DNA _______

also causes _______ strand breaks** in DNA

used for treatment of _______ tumor, _______ sarcoma and _______ sarcoma in children

Toxicity is anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Also gives hematopoietic suppression with pancytopenia.

A

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents–Dactinomycin (also known as Actinomycin D):

anticancer antibiotic derived from Streptomyces

intercalates between adjacent G-C base pairs

interferes with DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, causing inhibition of DNA transcription

also causes single strand breaks** in DNA

used for treatment of Wilm’s tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma and Ewing’s sarcoma in children

Toxicity is anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Also gives hematopoietic suppression with pancytopenia.

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3
Q

Tha _______ are DNA intercalating agents that include Daunorubicin, Doxorubicin, Epirubicin, Idarubicin.

A

Tha anthracyclines are DNA intercalating agents that include Daunorubicin, Doxorubicin, Epirubicin, Idarubicin.

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4
Q

Doxorubicin and other anthracycline drugs intercalate between DNA base pairs. Anthracyclines are reduced to intermediates that donate electrons to oxygen to form superoxide. Superoxide then reacts with itself to make _______ _______, which is cleaved in the presence of iron to form the destructive _______ radical that cleaves DNA.

A

Doxorubicin and other anthracycline drugs intercalate between DNA base pairs. Anthracyclines are reduced to intermediates that donate electrons to oxygen to form superoxide. Superoxide then reacts with itself to make hydrogen peroxide, which is cleaved in the presence of iron to form the destructive hydroxyl radical that cleaves DNA.

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5
Q

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents (Anthracyclines)–Doxorubicin:

has _______ clinical spectrum; one of the most widely used anticancer drugs

used for treatment of sarcomas, breast and lung carcinomas, and lymphomas

A

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents (Anthracyclines)–Doxorubicin:

has broad clinical spectrum; one of the most widely used anticancer drugs

used for treatment of sarcomas, breast and lung carcinomas, and lymphomas

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6
Q

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents (Anthracyclines)–Daunorubicin and Idarubicin:

used in combination with Ara-C (Cytarabine) antimetabolite for treatment of _______

A

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents (Anthracyclines)–Daunorubicin and Idarubicin:

used in combination with Ara-C (Cytarabine) antimetabolite for treatment of AML

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7
Q

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents (Anthracyclines)–Epirubicin:

used in combo regimen (FEC) for treatment of metastatic _______ cancer

A

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents (Anthracyclines)–Epirubicin:

used in combo regimen (FEC) for treatment of metastatic breast cancer

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8
Q

Anthracyclines Toxicity:

Dose-limiting _______!

_______ is an iron-chelating agent that blocks the formation of free radicals and protects against cardiotoxicity of anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.

Anthracyclines give _______ so do not give to patients with heart issues!

Neutropenia, Stomatitis, alopecia

A

Anthracyclines Toxicity:

Dose-limiting cardiotoxicity (cardiomyopathy)!

Dexrazoxane is an iron-chelating agent that blocks the formation of free radicals and protects against cardiotoxicity of anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.

Anthracyclines give cardiomyopathy so do not give to patients with heart issues!

Neutropenia, Stomatitis, alopecia

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9
Q

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents–Bleomycin:

a mixture of two peptides obtained from Streptomyces

binds to DNA, induces _______- and _______-stranded DNA breaks**

cell cycle specific, acts in the _______ phase of the cell cycle**

A

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents–Bleomycin:

a mixture of two peptides obtained from Streptomyces

binds to DNA, induces single- and double-stranded DNA breaks**

cell cycle specific, acts in the G2 phase of the cell cycle**

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10
Q

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents–Bleomycin:

used as a component of PEB combo regimen for treatment of _______ carcinomas or as a component of ABVD regimen for _______ disease

also effective against squamous cell carcinomas

Toxicity

dose-related _______ toxicity (_______ fibrosis)** so do not give Bleomycin to smokers

minimally myelosuppressive

cutaneous toxicity (hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis, erythema)

A

Specific DNA Intercalating Agents–Bleomycin:

used as a component of PEB combo regimen for treatment of testicular carcinomas or as a component of ABVD regimen for Hodgkin’s disease

also effective against squamous cell carcinomas

Toxicity

dose-related pulmonary toxicity (pulmonary fibrosis)** so do not give Bleomycin to smokers

minimally myelosuppressive

cutaneous toxicity (hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis, erythema)

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11
Q

Microtubule Inhibitors are plant natural products that bind to tubulin and interfere with microtubule function. Microtubule Inhibitors cause mitotic _______ (act in the _______ phase of cell cycle).

Microtubles are important for _______ formation and chromosome segregation during mitosis so microtubule inhibitors are cell cycle specific in the M phase.

A

Microtubule Inhibitors are plant natural products that bind to tubulin and interfere with microtubule function. Microtubule Inhibitors cause mitotic arrest (act in the M phase of cell cycle).

Microtubles are important for spindle formation and chromosome segregation during mitosis so microtubule inhibitors are cell cycle specific in the M phase.

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12
Q

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Vinca Alkaloids)–Vinblastine, Vincristine:

bind to tubulin, and prevent _______ of tubulin into microtubules

Vinblastine is a component of combination regimen (ABVD) for _______ lymphoma

Vincristine is used with glucocorticoids in the treatment of childhood _______; also a component of MOPP regimen for _______ lymphoma

A

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Vinca Alkaloids)–Vinblastine, Vincristine:

bind to tubulin, and prevent polymerization (assembly) of tubulin into microtubules

Vinblastine is a component of combination regimen (ABVD) for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Vincristine is used with glucocorticoids in the treatment of childhood ALL; also a component of MOPP regimen for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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13
Q

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Vinca Alkaloids)–Vinblastine, Vincristine:

Vinblastine- myelosuppression, nausea, vomiting

Vincristine- dose-limiting _______** (peripheral _______); relatively low toxicity in the bone marrow

Resistance: amplification of P-glycoprotein or mutations in tubulin resulting in reduced binding of the drugs to their target.

A

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Vinca Alkaloids)–Vinblastine, Vincristine:

Vinblastine- myelosuppression, nausea, vomiting

Vincristine- dose-limiting neurotoxicity** (peripheral neuropathy); relatively low toxicity in the bone marrow

Resistance: amplification of P-glycoprotein or mutations in tubulin resulting in reduced binding of the drugs to their target.

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14
Q

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Taxanes)–Paclitaxel, Docetaxel:

bind to tubulin, and prevent _______ of microtubules

Paclitaxel and docetaxel are components of regimens used for treatment of metastatic _______, ovarian, lung, and head and neck cancers

Docetaxel is useful against hormone-refractory prostate cancer

A

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Taxanes)–Paclitaxel, Docetaxel:

bind to tubulin, and prevent depolymerization (dissasembly) of microtubules

Paclitaxel and docetaxel are components of regimens used for treatment of metastatic breast, ovarian, lung, and head and neck cancers

Docetaxel is useful against hormone-refractory prostate cancer

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15
Q

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Taxanes)–Paclitaxel, Docetaxel:

Mitotic spindles are formed from microtubules in mitosis.

Vinca alkaloids block microtubule _______ and Taxanes block microtubule _______, both are required for chromosome segregation so they prevent mitosis.

Toxicity of (Taxanes)–Paclitaxel, Docetaxel: neutropenia, peripheral _______**, hypersensitivity reactions

A

Specific microtubule Inhibitors (Taxanes)–Paclitaxel, Docetaxel:

Mitotic spindles are formed from microtubules in mitosis.

Vinca alkaloids block microtubule assembly and Taxanes block microtubule dissasembly, both are required for chromosome segregation so they prevent mitosis.

Toxicity of (Taxanes)–Paclitaxel, Docetaxel: neutropenia, peripheral neuropathy**, hypersensitivity reactions

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16
Q

Topoisomerase Inhibitors:

Topoisomerases mediate DNA strand breakage and resealing during replication or transcription of DNA. Topoisomerase I breaks and reseals _______-stranded DNA, whereas topoisomerase II breaks and reseals _______-stranded DNA. Inhibitors of topoisomerases cause permanent DNA strand breaks by preventing the _______ of nicked strands of DNA.

Topo 1 = fixes _______ breaks (Irinotecan, Topotecan inhibit Topo1)

Topo2 = fixes _______ breaks (Etoposide, Teniposide inhibit Topo2)

A

Topoisomerase Inhibitors:

Topoisomerases mediate DNA strand breakage and resealing during replication or transcription of DNA. Topoisomerase I breaks and reseals single-stranded DNA, whereas topoisomerase II breaks and reseals double-stranded DNA. Inhibitors of topoisomerases cause permanent DNA strand breaks by preventing the resealing of nicked strands of DNA.

Topo 1 = fixes ssDNA breaks (Irinotecan, Topotecan inhibit Topo1)

Topo2 = fixes dsDNA breaks (Etoposide, Teniposide inhibit Topo2)

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17
Q

Specific Topoisomerase Inhibitors (Epipodophyllotoxins)–Etoposide, Teniposide:

inhibit topoisomerase _______, cells have an accumulation of _______ breaks with this drug

Etoposide has broad clinical spectrum; used for treatment of testicular carcinoma, lung cancer, and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Teniposide mainly used for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Toxicity: dose-limiting myelosuppression (neutropenia), oral mucositis.

Remember that myelosuppression = bone marrow suppression

A

Specific Topoisomerase Inhibitors (Epipodophyllotoxins)–Etoposide, Teniposide:

inhibit topoisomerase II, cells have an accumulation of dsDNA breaks with this drug

Etoposide has broad clinical spectrum; used for treatment of testicular carcinoma, lung cancer, and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Teniposide mainly used for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Toxicity: dose-limiting myelosuppression (neutropenia), oral mucositis.

Remember that myelosuppression = bone marrow suppression

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18
Q

Specific Topoisomerase Inhibitors (Camptothecin Analogs)–Irinotecan, Topotecan:

inhibit topoisomerase _______ & give accumulation of _______ breaks.

Irinotecan is approved for treatment of advanced colorectal cancer; also used for lung, ovarian, cervical and brain tumors

Topotecan is indicated for treatment of ovarian and small cell lung cancer

Toxicity: severe neutropenia, severe diarrhea

A

Specific Topoisomerase Inhibitors (Camptothecin Analogs)–Irinotecan, Topotecan:

inhibit topoisomerase I & give accumulation of ssDNA breaks.

Irinotecan is approved for treatment of advanced colorectal cancer; also used for lung, ovarian, cervical and brain tumors

Topotecan is indicated for treatment of ovarian and small cell lung cancer

Toxicity: severe neutropenia, severe diarrhea

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19
Q

Hormones and their Antagonists are used for treatment of hormone-dependent neoplasms.

Hormonal therapy is useful in three clinical settings:

  1. _______ and leukemias
  2. _______ cancer
  3. _______ cancer
A

Hormones and their Antagonists are used for treatment of hormone-dependent neoplasms.

Hormonal therapy is useful in three clinical settings:

  1. Lymphomas and leukemias
  2. Breast cancer
  3. Prostate cancer
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20
Q

Hormone Therapy for Lymphomas and Leukemias

Glucocorticoids: Prednisone, Dexamethasone have cytotoxic effects on _______; inhibit mitosis in lymphocytes.

Prednisone plus vincristine produce remission in patients with _______.

Prednisone is also a component of combination regimens (MOPP and CHOP) for Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s _______

Dexamethasone is used to reduce edema following radiation therapy of brain tumors

A

Hormone Therapy for Lymphomas and Leukemias

Glucocorticoids: Prednisone, Dexamethasone have cytotoxic effects on lymphocytes; inhibit mitosis in lymphocytes.

Prednisone plus vincristine produce remission in patients with ALL.

Prednisone is also a component of combination regimens (MOPP and CHOP) for Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas

Dexamethasone is used to reduce edema following radiation therapy of brain tumors

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21
Q

Hormone Therapy for Breast Cancer

Breast cancer is usually estrogen-dependent and can be suppressed by administration of estrogen antagonists

Anti-estrogen therapy includes

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Modulators (SERMs): _______

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Downregulators (SERDs): _______

Aromatase Inhibitors (AIs): Aminoglutethamide, Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane

A

Hormone Therapy for Breast Cancer

Breast cancer is usually estrogen-dependent and can be suppressed by administration of estrogen antagonists

Anti-estrogen therapy includes

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Modulators (SERMs): Tamoxifen

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Downregulators (SERDs): Fulvestrant

Aromatase Inhibitors (AIs): Aminoglutethamide, Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane

22
Q

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Modulators (SERMs): Tamoxifen

Tamoxifen competes with estrogen for its receptor and forms an inactive receptor complex so it _______ estrogen binding and activity.

used for treatment of ER-_______** early-stage and metastatic breast cancer

used for _______** of breast cancer in high risk women (family history)

Toxicity:

hot flushes, hair loss, nausea and vomiting

weak _______** of ER in endometrium; increased risk of endometrial _______ and thromboembolism.

So Tamoxifen is antagonist in the _______, but weak agonist in the _______ & increases chance of endometrial cancer!

A

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Modulators (SERMs): Tamoxifen

Tamoxifen competes with estrogen for its receptor and forms an inactive receptor complex so it blocks estrogen binding and activity.

used for treatment of ER-positive** early-stage and metastatic breast cancer

used for prevention** of breast cancer in high risk women (family history)

Toxicity:

hot flushes, hair loss, nausea and vomiting

weak agonist** of ER in endometrium; increased risk of endometrial cancer and thromboembolism.

So Tamoxifen is antagonist in the breast, but weak agonist in the endometrium & increases chance of endometrial cancer!

23
Q

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Downregulators (SERDs): Fulvestrant

Fulvestrant is the first FDA approved SERD binds to ER with a much _______ affinity (>100 fold) than tamoxifen and inhibits hormone-receptor complex formation

also _______ ER expression (that’s why called downregulateor)

approved for postmenopausal women with ER-_______** metastatic breast cancer

A

Selective Estrogen-Receptor Downregulators (SERDs): Fulvestrant

Fulvestrant is the first FDA approved SERD binds to ER with a much higher affinity (>100 fold) than tamoxifen and inhibits hormone-receptor complex formation

also reduces ER expression (that’s why called downregulateor)

approved for postmenopausal women with ER-positive** metastatic breast cancer

24
Q

Aromatase Inhibitors (AIs) inhibit the enzyme aromatase, which is necessary for estrogen synthesis. AIs include: Aminoglutethamide, Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane.

AIs cause profound estrogen _______ in postmenopausal women so very good breast cancer treatment.

Aromatase acts on either testosterone or androstenedione!

When Aromatase acts on Androstenedione, _______ is formed.

When Aromatase acts on Testosterone, _______ is formed.

Aromatase acts on ovary in premenapausal women & in the peripheral tissues of post menapausal women.

Aromatase activity is increased in breast cancer.

A

Aromatase Inhibitors (AIs) inhibit the enzyme aromatase, which is necessary for estrogen synthesis. AIs include: Aminoglutethamide, Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane.

AIs cause profound estrogen deprivation in postmenopausal women so very good breast cancer treatment.

Aromatase acts on either testosterone or androstenedione!

When Aromatase acts on Androstenedione, Estrone is formed.

When Aromatase acts on Testosterone, Estradiol is formed.

Aromatase acts on ovary in premenapausal women & in the peripheral tissues of post menapausal women.

Aromatase activity is increased in breast cancer.

25
Q

Specific Aromatase Inhibitors–Aminoglutethamide:

a _______-generation AI; it has beneficial effects against breast cancer, but has significant toxicity; replaced by third generation AIs

A

Specific Aromatase Inhibitors–Aminoglutethamide:

a first-generation AI; it has beneficial effects against breast cancer, but has significant toxicity; replaced by third generation AIs

26
Q

Specific Aromatase Inhibitors–Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane:

_______-generation AI; potent and selective inhibitor of aromatase

Anastrozole and Letrozole are _______-steroidal _______ inhibitors of aromatase

Exemestane is a _______ inhibitor of aromatase; it competes with the natural substrate androstenedione & _______ inactivates aromatase.

third generation AIs are most commonly used for the treatment of early-stage and advanced breast cancer & have replaced _______ as first-line therapy for postmenopausal ER+ breast cancer

A

Specific Aromatase Inhibitors–Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane:

third-generation AI; potent and selective inhibitor of aromatase

Anastrozole and Letrozole are non-steroidal reversible inhibitors of aromatase

Exemestane is a steroidal inhibitor of aromatase; it competes with the natural substrate androstenedione & irreversibly inactivates aromatase.

third generation AIs are most commonly used for the treatment of early-stage and advanced breast cancer & have replaced tamoxifen as first-line therapy for postmenopausal ER+ breast cancer

27
Q

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Androgen _______ therapy** (ADT) through either surgical or medical castration is useful for treatment of advanced prostate cancer.

A

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Androgen deprivation therapy** (ADT) through either surgical or medical castration is useful for treatment of advanced prostate cancer.

28
Q

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Leuprolide, Goserelin:

are _______ analogs

bind to GnRH receptor and inhibit the release of FSH and LH, resulting in _______ testicular production of testosterone

do _______ inhibit adrenal androgen (testosterone) synthesis

A

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Leuprolide, Goserelin:

are GnRH analogs

bind to GnRH receptor and inhibit the release of FSH and LH, resulting in reduced testicular production of testosterone

do not inhibit adrenal androgen (testosterone) synthesis

29
Q

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Flutamide, Bicalutamide:

are _______-steroidal androgen-receptor (AR) blockers that compete with natural hormone testosterone for binding with the AR

A

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Flutamide, Bicalutamide:

are non-steroidal androgen-receptor (AR) blockers that compete with natural hormone testosterone for binding with the AR

30
Q

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

_______ androgen ablation therapy** is GnRH analog plus AR blocker.

AR blocker blocks the testosterone made in the _______ cortex.

A

Hormone Therapy for Prostate Cancer:

Complete androgen ablation therapy** is GnRH analog plus AR blocker.

AR blocker blocks the testosterone made in the adrenal cortex.

31
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–Hydroxyurea:

inhibits _______ reductase**, which catalyzes the conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides

useful for treatment of myeloproliferative neoplasms (polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia)

also approved for treatment of sickle cell disease

A

Miscellaneous Agents–Hydroxyurea:

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase**, which catalyzes the conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides

useful for treatment of myeloproliferative neoplasms (polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia)

also approved for treatment of sickle cell disease

32
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA):

approved for treatment of acute _______ leukemia (APL) a.k.a. AML M3

promotes differentiation of promyelocytes

A

Miscellaneous Agents–All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA):

approved for treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) a.k.a. AML M3

promotes differentiation of promyelocytes

33
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–Arsenic Trioxide:

a heavy _______ toxin highly effective in the treatment of relapsed APL

A

Miscellaneous Agents–Arsenic Trioxide:

a heavy metal toxin highly effective in the treatment of relapsed APL

34
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–Thalidomide:

approved for treatment of multiple myeloma and MDS

inhibits the production of _______, which is a growth factor for myeloma cells

inhibits angiogenesis

A

Miscellaneous Agents–Thalidomide:

approved for treatment of multiple myeloma and MDS

inhibits the production of IL-6, which is a growth factor for myeloma cells

inhibits angiogenesis

35
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–Interferon-alpha:

approved for treatment of hairy cell leukemia, CML and AIDS-related _______ sarcoma

A

Miscellaneous Agents–Interferon-alpha:

approved for treatment of hairy cell leukemia, CML and AIDS-related Kaposi’s sarcoma

36
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors:

Imatinib (Abl inhibitor) for treatment of _______

Gefitinib/Erlotinib (EGFR inhibitor) for treatment of non-small cell lung cancer

A

Miscellaneous Agents–Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors:

Imatinib (Abl inhibitor) for treatment of CML

Gefitinib/Erlotinib (EGFR inhibitor) for treatment of non-small cell lung cancer

37
Q

Miscellaneous Agents–Monoclonal Antibodies:

Trastuzumab for treatment of metastatic _______ + breast cancer

Cetuximab (a mAb against ErbB1) for treatment of metastatic colon cancer

A

Miscellaneous Agents–Monoclonal Antibodies:

Trastuzumab for treatment of metastatic HER2+ breast cancer

Cetuximab (a mAb against ErbB1) for treatment of metastatic colon cancer

38
Q

Multi-drug Resistance (MDR):

Resistance to multiple anti-cancer drugs may occur due to increased expression of cell surface _______ involved in drug efflux

Such drug transporters use _______ to drive drug molecules out of the cancer cells

Verapamil (a calcium channel antagonist) _______ these drug transporters

A

Multi-drug Resistance (MDR):

Resistance to multiple anti-cancer drugs may occur due to increased expression of cell surface glycoproteins (P-glycoproteins) involved in drug efflux

Such drug transporters use ATP to drive drug molecules out of the cancer cells

Verapamil (a calcium channel antagonist) inhibits these drug transporters

39
Q

P-Glycoprotein Mediated Drug Resistance:

The _______ membrane-spanning loops of the P-glycoprotein form a central channel for the _______-dependent pumping of drugs from the cell.

A

P-Glycoprotein Mediated Drug Resistance:

The six membrane-spanning loops of the P-glycoprotein form a central channel for the ATP-dependent pumping of drugs from the cell.

40
Q

Name the main toxicity of Bleomycin

A

Pulmonary toxicity (pulmonary fibrosis)

41
Q

Name the main toxicity of Cisplatin

A

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicty, peripheral neuropathy

42
Q

Name the main toxicity of Cyclophosphamide

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

43
Q

Name the main toxicity of Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin)

A

Cardiotoxicity (cardiomyopathy)

44
Q

Name the main toxicity of Methotrexate

A

Renal toxicity, hepatotoxicity, bone marrow toxicity

45
Q

Name the main toxicity of Paclitaxel

A

Peripheral neuropathy

46
Q

Name the main toxicity of Vincristine

A

Neurotoxicity (peripheral neuropathy)

47
Q

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents used in drug combination regimens to treat testicular carcinoma is most likely to cause nephrotoxicity?

A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Etoposide
D. Luprolide
E. Vinblastine
A

Answer: B. Nephrotoxicity is a dose-limiting toxicity of Cisplatin

48
Q

If allopurinol is used to offset hyperuricemia in a cancer patient, the dosage of which of the following drugs should be reduced to 25% of normal?

A. Cytarabine
B. 5-Fluorouracil
C. 6-Mercaptopurine
D. Etoposide
E. Paclitaxel
A

Answer: C. The anti-metabolite 6-mercaptopurine is metabolized by the enzyme xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase. In the presence of allopurinol, plasma levels of mercaptopurine may increase rapidly to toxic levels. Therefore, the dosage of 6-MP should be reduced if the cancer patient is receiving allopurinol.

49
Q

Which one of the following anticancer drugs induces mitotic arrest?

A. Belomycin
B. 5-Fluorouracil
C. 6-Mercaptopurine
D. Etoposide
E. Paclitaxel
A

Answer: E. Paclitaxel binds to tubulin and prevents disassembly of microtubules, which is necessary for chromosome segregation during mitosis.

50
Q

Resistance to which anticancer drug is associated with decreased expression of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT)?

A. Methotrexate
B. 5-Fluorouracil
C. Gemcitabine
D. 6-Mercaptopurine
E. Cytarabine
A

Answer: D. 6-Mercaptopurine is a pro-dug. It is converted to the active metabolite 6-thioinosinic acid by the enzyme HGPRT. Decreased expression of HGPRT will result in reduced production of 6-thioinosinic acid, causing decreased inhibition of purine biosynthesis and resistance to 6-MP.