11-217v1

Question 1

USAF pilots should not file, give or accept a clearance that requires an aircraft to navigate direct to a radial/dme fix. (like a fix to fix) except under what circumstances?

Answer 1

1) Primary navigation is RNAV or advanced RNAV capable and operating normally.
2) Flight will be conducted where radar monitoring by air traffic control (ATC) is available
3) Locally defined arrival departure procedures require it
4) Operational necessity dictates (like AR track) or (Military routes dictate)

Question 2

RNAV approaches must be retrieved from what? and cannot be entered how?

Answer 2

1) Retrieved from known database

2) cannot be manual entered

Question 3

Pilots may not substitute for the navigation aid providing lateral guidance fro the final approach segment? True or false?

Answer 3

TRUE

Question 4

what is the maximum distance off a GPS approach can be (5.11.5.3.2)?

Answer 4

0.1 NM. If more than this – shall not fly the approach

Question 5

What is the tolerance for angle (degrees) off during a course on GPS approach?

Answer 5

1) 5 degrees is the maximum.

- if more the procedure is not authorized

Question 6

If temp below 0 degrees celsius, add temperature corrections to what?

What about mountainous terrain

Answer 6

1) MDA
2) step down fixes

3) all items after the final approach fix
4) if mountainous - add to all parts of approach

Question 7

If under -30 degrees … add temperature corrections to what?

Answer 7

all parts of approach

Question 8

What are the category C and D airspeeds for approaches?

Answer 8

1) 121 - 140 = Cat C

2) 141 - 166 = Cat D

Question 9

Which Procedure is first (or preferred)

ILS Z RWY 28L
ILS Y RWY 28L
ILS X RWY 28L

Answer 9

1) ILS Z RWY 28L
2) ILS Y RWY 28L
3) ILS X RWY 28L

Question 10

What the name of the approach is followed by a letter such as A, B or C … what does it mean?

Answer 10

1) It is designed for circling minimums only.

Question 11

What does a number in parenthesis is on the final approach course (what does it mean?)

Answer 11

• it is for SA … you should not follow.

It’s a reference heading.

Question 12

min safe altitude guarantees what?

emergency safe altitude guarantees what?

Answer 12

1) 1000 agl clearance within 25 miles

2) 1000 agl (2000 agl in mountainous) clearance within 100 miles.

Question 13

What does the A na mean to pilots?

Answer 13

1) The approach cannot be used to qualify the field as an alternate.

Because of lack of weather reporting facilities and/or the lack of capability to monitor the NAVAID

Question 14

what are declared distances associated with?

Answer 14

1) Airports affected by close in development or encroachment.
2) in order to maintain standard safety zones around runways the airport manager may implement declared distances to artificially reduce the size of the runway.

Question 15

what are the following?

1) TORA
2) TODA
3) ASDA
4) LDA

Answer 15

1) Take off run available.
- the length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane takeoff

2) Take-off distance available
- the length of the takeoff run plus the length of the clearway, if provided.

3) acceleration stop distance available
- The runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable fro the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff. (a stopway is comparable to a US military “overrun”. It is paved and weight bearing.)

4) Landing distance available
- The length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing.

Question 16

USAF aircrew must, should, or don’t have to … adhere to FAA’s intent of declared distances?

Answer 16

• USAF pilots MUST adhere to declared distances

Question 17

PICS will ensure TOLD computations for which declared distances?

Answer 17

1) TORA
2) ASDA (if applicable) (Refusal speed)
3) LDA

Question 18

what is decision altitude vs decision height?

Answer 18

1) DA conforms to the international convention where altitudes relate to MSL.
2) Decision Height relate to AGL.
- DA is correct fro Cat 1, 2, and LNAV/VNAV approaches.

Question 19

Ground Checks:

1) Tolerance from known elevation:
2) What are you checking for on the turn needle
3) Check the ball for freedom of movement in the glass tube.
4) Known heading within?

Answer 19

1) 75 feet
2) Check and ensure they turn in the proper direction of turn.
3) Ball. Check the ball for freedom of movement in the glass tube.
4) Within 5 degrees

Question 20

USAF pilots must compute obstacle climb gradients assuming the loss of thrust equal with how many engines?

Answer 20

1) with one engine inoperative

Question 21

what is the DER height assumed for the following:

1) USAF
2) USNA
3) USMA

Answer 21

1) 0 feet
2) 0 Feet
3) 35 feet

• when in doubt assume 35 ft.

Question 22

What are VOCA’s designed to help with?

Answer 22

1) Obstacles that are more than 3 SM from the DER require a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/nm

Question 23

Can USAF pilots use Reduced Takeoff Runway Length Procedures for takeoff?

Can USAF pilot create their own RTRL procedures?

Answer 23

1) No, Unless – the RTRL is published as an ODP in FLIP.

2) No, USAF pilot are prohibited from creating their own RTRL procedure.

Question 24

Pilots must ensure they can meet or exceed any published climb gradient for the departure to be flown?

true or false?

Answer 24

1) True

Question 25

SIDs provide protection graphically, but do not display the obstacle at hand. Therefore, you must adhere to the

7.4.3 - reference.

Answer 25

1) published climb gradient for that runway.

Question 26

What does an asterisk mean on an approach plate?

What does a dagger mean on an approach plate?

Answer 26

1) Asterisk = Obstacle clearance climb rate

2) Dagger = ATC climb gradient

Question 27

What takes precedence on departure?

1 - ODP
2 - vectors
3 - direction from ATC

ref: 7.4.3.2.4

Answer 27

• ODP
• Radar vectors
• Advice from ATC

Question 28

SID Stands alone means what?

ref: 7.4.3.4.1

Answer 28

1) In all cases you must comply with the SID restrictions while flying a SID.
2) if a climb gradient isn’t posted then assume 200 ft/nm

Question 29

If told … cleared as filed and there is a ODP assigned … then do what?

ref: 7.4.5.1

Answer 29

1) IF there is an ODP for the departure runway, USAF pilots will fly the ODP before beginning the cleared as filed” portion of the departure.

Question 30

If there is NO SID or IFR departure procedure … what are your options?

what about if Diverse departures aren’t authorized?

Answer 30

1) Do the Diverse Departure

2) No Diverse departure … you need MAJCOM terps to determine the best departure method and required climb gradient.

Question 31

Holding: USA

1) Standard turn direction
2) Timing For Height
3) Time Inbound? or Outbound?

Answer 31

1) Right turns
2) 1 minute at or below 14,000 and 1.5 minutes above
3) Time Inbound

Question 32

When are you expected to reduce speed when entering holding?

Answer 32

1) 3 miles expected to begin to slow to holding speed.

Question 33

How do you define conveniently aligned on teardrop heading?

Answer 33

1) when your aircraft heading is within 45 degrees of selected teardrop course.

SO if tear drop course is 300 … you are aligned if your current heading is within 255 - 345.

Question 34

when do you triple the drift?

Answer 34

1) Triple the drift on the outbound leg,

2) single the drift on the inbound leg

Question 35

what is the minimum decent rate for ATC?

Answer 35

500 feet per minute.

- if you cannot accomplish contact ATC.

Question 36

On arrival reduce speed to below what by 10,000 feet MSL?

Answer 36

below 250 kias

Question 37

If established in holding, and cleared the approach. What are you suppose to do?

• ref 9.4.4

Answer 37

1) Complete the holding pattern.
2) Once at the IAF, commence the approach.

• unless early turn is approved.

Question 38

When vectored you can expect to have what degrees to final at what distances?

1 mile from the FAF, what degrees?

3 miles from the FAF, what degrees?

Answer 38

1) 1 mile = 20 degrees
2) 3 miles = 30 degrees

if vectored you will be vectored to intercept final no closer than 3 degrees from the final approach fix.

Question 39

When controller says for a STAR … descend via …

what is expected?
ref: 9.8.1.1.2

Answer 39

1) comply with all speeds, routing and all altitudes.

Question 40

When switched to new controller when on a STAR, you must check in with what?

Answer 40

1) controller, call sign, current altitude, descending via the “name of STAR”

Question 41

WHen controller says for a STAR … you are cleared “name of star”

what is expected?
ref: 9.8.1.1.2.2

Answer 41

1) You are cleared the routing, but expected to maintain your last assigned altitude.

Question 42

With a dead reckoning course on an approach are you expected to correct for winds?

Answer 42

1) Yes, as much you can.

Question 43

If in the low altitude structure, you expected to fly the low approach, true or false?

Answer 43

1) true

Question 44

Do not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT in the following situations?

Answer 44

SNERT

1) Sraight in approach
2) No PT routing
3) Established in holding
4) Radar Vectors
5) Timed approach

Question 45

what is the maximum speed for procedure turns recommended by FAA

Answer 45

1) 200 KNOTS

Question 46

The remain distances applies to what?

Answer 46

1) The final approach fix.

Question 47

When do you have to go to the point and when can you apply lead turns?

Answer 47

1) When you are within 90 degrees of the course, you can apply lead turns.

Question 48

When can you descend from the procedure turn fix altitude?

Answer 48

1) When parallel or intercept heading to the outbound track.

Question 49

How long is the final approach segment of an approach?

Answer 49

1) ideally 5 NM but can be as long as 10 NM.

Question 50

What is the published VDP paired with?

Answer 50

1) It is paired with the lowest approach/mda on the plate.