Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

mod 10 > 10.7 applicable requirements > Flashcards

10.7 applicable requirements Flashcards

1
Q

what does the AMP tell the organisation?

A

list of tasks to do after flight hours/ flight cycles/ colander time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does the block maintenance system represent?

A

A,B,C,D cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when may basic tasks be carried out?

A

every 200h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the block system good for?

A

long haul flights
older aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the benefits of the block scheme?

A

consistent
sable workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the disadvantages of block scheme?

A

long gaps between cheeks
uneven workloads
out of service for longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the equalized system?

A

smaller cheeks
more frequent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the cheeks that are used in a equalized system known as?

A

E cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can a equalized system offer?

A

deeper inspections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

who are the equalized system good for?

A

short haul
low cost carriers
newer aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the equalized system benefits?

A

consistent workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the disadvantages of equalized system?

A

additional costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when is a A check done?

A

evry 500-800 flying hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how many man hours does a A check take?

A

20-50 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where can an A check be done?

A

termina or hanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is a B cheack done?

A

every 4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how many hours is a B check?

A

150 man hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how long would a B check be and in what place?

A

1-3 days in a hanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what can you do with A and B checks?

A

can be incorporated in to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when would a C be done?

A

20-24 months
pre determined flight hours by manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do C checks include?

A

component inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is needed for a C check?

A

hanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how long is needed for a C check?

A

1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how many man hours is needed for a C check?

A

200h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is a D check?

A

most comprehensive
known as heavy maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when are D cheeks done?

A

every 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is required by a D cheek?

A

entire aircraft striped for inspection and overhaul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how many hours is a D check?

A

50,000h
up to 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when is the scheduling for D checks done?

A

years in advance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how many D cheeks will be done on average before retirement?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are AD’s used to address?

A

unsafe conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

who are required to comply with AD’s?

A

all UK registered aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what must the designer/manufacturer do when there is a AD?

A

propose actions
provide data if relevant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what must be on the AD?

A

unsafe condition
affected aircraft
actions required
tome frame for fix
date of entry in to force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what happens if an AD hasn’t been complied with?

A

aircraft will not be airworthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

can an aircraft operate if there AD applies to it?

A

no expect in accordance with the AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

for continuing airworthiness what does part F require to be complete?

A

AD
anything impacting continuing airworthiness
measures by CAA to safety problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the requirements for a AD to be carried out?

A

listed in the AD or by the CAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

if there is an alternative means of compliance for the AD what must happen?

A

CCA approved
if CAA request it is submitted
level of safety is achieved with original AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

if an AD is changed what is needed?

A

supplementary type certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what would happen to AMOC if AD is suspended?

A

they are invalidated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

if a new AD is applied for hat must happen t the old one?

A

it is archived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

is anything needed when an AD is revised?

A

no application needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

who is SSAD issued by?

A

UK CAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

who do the CAA issue a SSAD to?

A

people who are o the register with the affected aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when are the SSAD updated on to the UK CAA AD publishing tool?

A

after end of SSAD compliance time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are service bulletins?

A

when a type certificate holder finds new ways to improve the original designee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

are service bulletins mandatory?

A

no they are optional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

can a SB ever be made mandatory?

A

yes if the authority deems that it increases safety

and when SB is with AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

can a SB be canceled after issued?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what would happen if the info on the SB became invalid?

A

new SB produced and issued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what must SB’s not be used to cover?

A

routine inspections / checks
standard repairs
revisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is an alert SB?

A

urgent attention
items affected to safety
must contain SB number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are standard service bulletins?

A

when an alert service bulletin is not required

55
Q

what are engine conversion SB?

A

issued with info to convert engine models form one designation to another

56
Q

what must SB’s have?

A

chapter name
brief statement
work involved

57
Q

what does the body of a SB have?

A

planning info
material info
accomplishment instructions

58
Q

what is a service imitation letter?

A

advisory action
info only no instructions

59
Q

what can service limitation letter enhance?

A

safety
reliability reduce costs

60
Q

who must the repair and modification be approved by?

A

CAA
designee organization complying with part 21

61
Q

what can an origination do if the damage is beyond limits or outside the scope?

A

repair by replacement of damaged parts

62
Q

who can we request technical support from for modifications and repairs?

A

type certificate holder
approved part 21 organization
UK CAA approval of particular repair data

63
Q

the person or people maintain an aircraft should have access to what?

A

current maintenance data

64
Q

who can issue maintenance documentation?

A

type certificate holder
supplementary type certificate holder
part 21

65
Q

what maintenance documents are needed?

A

AMM
SRM
IPC
WDM
CMM
TSM

66
Q

what is ATA used for?

A

recommend layout of technical manuals

67
Q

what do the ATA chapter run to?

A

ATA 1 to ATA 100

68
Q

what has the ATA been implemented into?

A

all major manufactures

69
Q

what is ISPEC 2200?

A

common way to enable the electronic use of maintenance and engineering information

70
Q

what is the S1000D?

A

international specification for technical publications

71
Q

what is the purpose of civil aviation working group?

A

develop the necessary modifications to enable S1000D to be the world-wide accepted

72
Q

what is a AMM used for?

A

scheduled maintenance
rectification of faults

73
Q

who produces AMM?

A

manufacturer

74
Q

who is the AMM applicable to?

A

one aircraft

75
Q

who can custom the AMM?

A

operator

76
Q

what would happen if wrong effectivity is used?

A

it could be illigal

77
Q

what are chapters set down in to and what system is used in the AMM?

A

set down in to blocks
use ATA

78
Q

what does the pelimanary pages show at the beginning?

A

ATA chapters
revision numbers and date of issue
list of temp revisions
SB
deactivation reactivation index

79
Q

what does the pelimanary pages show at the beginning of each chapter?

A

revisions
list of effective pages
table of contents

80
Q

who is the illistarted parts catalog produced by?

A

manufacturer

81
Q

what does the IPC contain?

A

all parts that can be replaced

82
Q

all components are listed but not what?

A

drawn

83
Q

the IPC is divided into what?

A

ATA

84
Q

IPC can be customized but what will drawings show?

A

all components

85
Q

what is important about the IPC?

A

its effectivity

86
Q

what does the SRM contain?

A

repairs for primary and secondary structure
info on assessment damage

87
Q

what is the SRM specific to?

A

that aircraft type

88
Q

can the SRM be customized?

A

no

89
Q

what is the SRM divided into?

A

ATA

90
Q

what does the SRM also include?

A

materials, fasteners and substitutions

91
Q

SRM is usually applicable to what?

A

large of complex aircraft

92
Q

what is the wiring manual for?

A

all aspects of electrical systems on aircraft

93
Q

is the wiring diagram manual customized?

A

yes for each operators aircraft

94
Q

what is the wiring diagram annotated with?

A

customer code and revision date

95
Q

what will each part be annotated with?

A

its own effectivity

96
Q

the wiring diagram is subdivided in to what?
what are they?

A

3 parts
aircraft schematic manual
aircraft wiring manual
aircraft wiring list

97
Q

what is the component maintenance manual?

A

maintenance repair and overhaul for components removed from aircraft

98
Q

where would component maintinace manual be used?

A

in workshops
can have useful info for aircraft mechanic

99
Q

what is the technical content for CMM?

A

description and operation
testing
disassembly
cleaning
check
repair
assembly
fits and clearances
special tools
fixtures and equipment
IPC

100
Q

what is the trouble shoting manual?

A

isolate and rectify faults

101
Q

what does TSM often consist of?

A

flow charts

102
Q

what is TSM refrance made to?

A

AMM for rectification actions

103
Q

where do revisions come from?

A

manufacturer

104
Q

when are revisions normally iassued?

A

quarterly
or at time of a major change

105
Q

what must be on the revision?

A

the date of the revision

106
Q

what do revision comes with what?

A

letter of transmittal

107
Q

each revision has what?

A

a unique number with the manual

108
Q

if there are any AMM’s on film what will happen when thee is a change?

A

whole film or disk will be replaced

109
Q

when must revisions be sent from the manufacturer?

A

within 10 days

110
Q

when must the origination incorporate the revisions?

A

as soon as they get it

111
Q

what is a temporary revision?

A

released at short notice to be delt with

112
Q

what is a temporary revision printed on?

A

yellow paper

113
Q

what does the temporary revision have?

A

reference number for the chapter

114
Q

can be temporary revisions be revised?

A

no

115
Q

the record of a temporary revision is published on what?

A

on the record of temporary revisions

116
Q

what must we do for temporary revisions for these AMM’s on disks?

A

have them printed in a folder adjacent to the disk

117
Q

what is the tempory revision replaced by?

A

the next normal revision

118
Q

is MMEL the same for all aircraft?

A

no for a specific type

119
Q

what must happen if something in the MMEL is not listed?

A

must be serviceable for flight

120
Q

who approved the MEL and MMEL?

A

CAA

121
Q

what is the MEL arranged in?

A

ATA chapters

122
Q

what ia A cat for rectification intervals?

A

standard interval specified but rectified in accordance with remarks column

123
Q

if the defect is following calendar hours when must the period start?

A

00:01 on the day following discovery

124
Q

if the defect is following flying hours when must the period start?

A

when the defect id deferred

125
Q

what is B cat?

A

3 calendar days

126
Q

what is C cat?

A

10 calendar days

127
Q

what id D cat?

A

120 days

128
Q

what does the remarks coelom indicated when there is an O in the column?

A

procedure must be adapted with component or system

129
Q

what does the remarks column indicated when there is an M in the column?

A

appropriate maintenance procedure is required prior to flight

130
Q

what is the configuration deviation list?

A

defines any external parts of an aircraft which may be missing at the commencement of flight.

131
Q

who is the CDL established by?

A

holder of the type design and approved by the State of Design.

132
Q

what is CDL published as a part of?

A

part of the Aircraft Flight Manual

133
Q

what does the dispatch deviation list contain?

A

operational and maintenance procedures for the MEL and CDL

134
Q

MEL and CDL are what?

A

reveling documents and there porpoise

mod 10 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions