10.3 Disease of Infancy and Childhood Flashcards

1
Q

Most inborn errors of metabolism are rare disorders that are inherited by which of the following means?

A. X-linked and Autosomal Recessive

B. Autosomal Dominant and X-linked

C. Autosomal Dominant and Autosomal Recessive

D. Mitochondrial Inheritance and Genomic Imprinting

A

A. X-linked and Autosomal Recessive

NOTE: Mitochondrial disorders form their own distinct class too, but are not the most common contributers

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2
Q

BElow is a table depicting abnormalities that suggest inborn errors of metabolism

A

Look again

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3
Q

Which of the following correctly describes Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A. Autosomal recessive disorder where phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) is deficient

B. Autosomal recessive disorder where phenylalanine decarboxylase is deficient

C. X-linked recessive disorder where phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) is deficient

D. Mitochondrial inheritance disorder where phenylalaine hydroxylase is deficient

A

A. Autosomal recessive disorder where phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) is deficient

NOTE: Deficiency in PAH or DHPR can result in PKU developing

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4
Q

A mother with a history of PKU comes into your clinic looking for advice on preparing for pregnancy. She isn’t worried about her child having PKU because the father is not a carrier. Moreover, she was successfully treated with dietary restriction of phenylalaine early in life, and though she has since discontinued the practice since reaching adulthood, she has not experienced any issues. If she were to become pregnant before resuming strict dietary restriction of phenylalanine, what might we see in her infant?

A. No symptoms as phenylalanine is not a teratogen that’s able to cross the placental membrane

B. Mental retardation, microcephally, and congenital heart disease is seen only if the child is homozygous recessive

C. Mental retardation, microcephally, and congenital heart disease is seen even if the child is homozygous dominant

D. Mental retardation, microcephally, and congenital heart disease is seen even if the child is heterozygous

A

D. Mental retardation, microcephally, and congenital heart disease is seen even if the child is heterozygous

NOTE: the above is describing children with Maternal PKU

NOTE: Phenylalanine is teratogenic and can cross the placenta, and the severity of Maternal PKU is dependent on the mothers phenylalanine levels

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5
Q

Select all of the following that are variants from the classic phenylketonuria.

A. People with at least 4% activity of PAH

B. People with at least 6% or more activity of PAH

C. People who abnormally synthesize tetrahydrobiopterin BH4 due to DHPR deficiency

D. None of the above

A

B. People with at least 6% or more activity of PAH

C. People who abnormally synthesize tetrahydrobiopterin BH4 due to DHPR deficiency

NOTE: DHPR folks can’t be treated with phenylalanine dietary restriction

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6
Q

Galactosemia is an auosomal recessive disorder where there’s a deficiency in ________ that leads to an accumulation of ______ in tissues like the liver, heart mucsle, cerbral cortex, eye lens, kidneys, and erythrocytes.

A. Galactohydrolase; galactose-2-phosphate

B. Galactohydrolase; galactose-1-phospahte

C. Galacose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase; galactose-1-phosphate

D. Galactokinase; galactose-1-phosphate

A

C. Galacose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase; galactose-1-phosphate

D. Galactokinase; galactose-1-phosphate

NOTE: C is more common

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7
Q

A woman comes in with slurred speech and some mild ataxia. Her husband is worried that she’s hiding a drinking problem even though she denies it. The husband wants you to perform a liver biopsy to check for cirhossis of the liver and prove his wife is a liar. You, who lacks a moral compass, perform a liver biopsy and get back what looks like a cirrhotic liver covered with fat cells. However, because your psychic (or because its not relevant to this chapter) you know the woman does not have a drinking problem. Instead, what is most likely going on here?

A. Hepatomegaly from fatty change due to an autosomal recessive mutation of Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

A

A. Hepatomegaly from fatty change due to an autosomal recessive mutation of Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

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8
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to an abnormal ECl- channel protein encoded by a gene found on what chromosome?

A

Chromosome 7q31.2

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9
Q

Normally a CFTR mutation causes a compensatory increase in ENaC activity bringing more sodium into the cells. However, in what location in the human body do we see DECREASED activity of ENaC in people with CFTR mutation?

A. Sweat glands

B. Salivary Glands

C. Pancreas

D. Submandibular glands

A

Sweat glands

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10
Q

Which of the following classes of CF do we see defective protein synthesis that results in a complete lack of CFTR found in the apical membrane?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

F. Class VI

A
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11
Q

Which of the following classes of CF do we see errors in the folding, packaging, and trafficking of CFTR protein that results in lack of CFTR on the apical surface?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

F. Class VI

A

B. Class II

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12
Q

Which of the following classes of CF do we see CFTR present on the apical surface, but defective regulation prevents it from ever being activated?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

F. Class VI

A

Class III

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13
Q

Which of the following classes of CF do we see decreased conductance where the mutation is usually found in the transmembrane doamin that forms the pore for the Cl- ion?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

F. Class VI

A

Class IV

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14
Q

Which of the following classes of CF do we see milder clinical symptoms due to the mutation causing a decreased abundance of the apical surface?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class III

D. Class IV

E. Class V

F. Class VI

A

Class V

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15
Q

Look at this chart. Know criteria for diagnosis

A

What is it?

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16
Q

SIDS is defined as the sudden death of an infant under 1 year of age that us unexplained after a thorough case investigation, autopsy, examination of the scene at death, and review of clinical history. Explain how SUID is different that SIDS?

A

SUID is sudden death of an infant that is found to have an UNEXPECTED anatomical or biochemical basis for cause of death that is found during autopsy

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17
Q

REcognize the risk factors and post mortem findings associated with sudden infant death syndrome

A

Read again

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18
Q

Although autopsy usually fails to show clear cause of death, which of the following correctly characterizes the most common morphology of SIDS seen postmortem?

A. CNS astroglosis of brainstem and cerebellum, and maybe accompanying hypoplasia of arcuate nucleus or decreased size of brainstem

B. Histological evidence of recent infection in upper respiratory system like larynx and trachea

C. Gross lungs look congested, engorged vascularly, with or without presence of pulmonary edema

D. Multiple petechiae often found in the thymus, visceral and parietal pleura, and epicardium

A

D. Multiple petechiae often found in the thymus, visceral and parietal pleura, and epicardium

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19
Q

The most accepted pathogenesis that leads to sides is a “triple-risk” model of three factors that overlap and contribute to SIDS. What are those 3 factors in your own words?

A
  1. vulnerable infant
  2. developmental period of homeostatic control
  3. exogenous stressor
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20
Q

Define the two categories of tumor-like lesions that are NOT TRUE TUMORS

  1. Heterotopia
  2. Hamartoma
A

1. Heterotopia

Normal cell in the wrong place

2. Hamartoma

Overgrowth of the normal cell in the right place

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21
Q

The most common tumors of childhood originate from ________, while for adults they originate from _______.

A. Epidermis; soft tissue

B. Soft tissue; epidermis

C. Epidermis; epithelium

D. Soft tissue; epithelium

A

D. Soft tissue; epithelium

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22
Q

Which of the following benign tumors of childhood is differentiated from adult tumors based on the presence of consititutively activated ETV6-NTRK3?

A. Lymphatic tumors

B. Hemangiomas

C. Fibrous Tumors

D. Teratomas

A

C. Fibrous Tumors

NOTE: ETV6-NTRK3 is unique to infantile fibrosarcomas, which is useful because infantile fibrosarcomas are indistinguishable from adult fibrosarcomas

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23
Q

Which of the following benign infantile tumors are the most common?

A. Lymphatic Tumor

B. Hemangioma

C. Fibrous Tumor

D. Teratomas

A

B. Hemangioma

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24
Q

Which of the following is true of infant hemangiomas? Bonus: highlight the words that made the wrong answers wrong

A. Greatly differ architectually from adult hemangiomas

B. Cavernous hemangiomas in the infant tend to be more cellular compared to the adult

C. Most are found in the face and butt

D. Produce flat to elevated, irregular blue masses sometimes called “port-wine stains”

A

A. Greatly (DO NOT) differ architectually from adult hemangiomas

B. Cavernous (Capillary) hemangiomas in the infant tend to be more cellular compared to the adult

C. Most are found in the face and butt(scalp)

D. Produce flat to elevated, irregular blue masses sometimes called “port-wine stains”

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25
Q

All of the following represents lymphangiectasis, EXCEPT which of the following that describes lymphangiomas?

A. Increases in size after birth due to accumulation of fluid

B. Represents abnormal dilations of pre-existing lymph channels

C. Can cause considerable distortion or deformation as a result of the dilation of subQ and deep lympatics

D. Presents as a diffuse swelling of part or all of the extemity

A

A. Increases in size after birth due to accumulation of fluid

NOTE: Lymphangiectasis are NOT progressive, and do not continue to grow

26
Q

Lymphangiomas are characterized by cavernous and cystic spaces, which may occur in the skin but are often found in the deeper regions of which of the following locations?

A. Neck and Axilla

B. Mediastinum

C. Retroperitoneal tissue (SAD PUCKER)

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

27
Q

Which of the following is true of teratomas?

A. Most common childhood teratomas are sarcococcygeal teratomas and are 4x’s more likely to occur in girls vs boys

B. MAlignant teratomas tend to be found in children < 4 months, vs older children

C. About 10% of teratomas are associated with congenital anomalies primarily defects in the foregut

D. None of the above are correct

A

A. Most common childhood teratomas are sarcococcygeal teratomas and are 4x’s more likely to occur in girls vs boys

  • B. MAlignant teratomas tend to be found in children < 4 months, vs older children - <4 months tend to be benign*
  • C. About 10% of teratomas are associated with congenital anomalies primarily defects in the foregut -associated with hindgut and cloaca*
  • D. None of the above are correct*
28
Q

Be able to write out and understand this chart

A

Again please, cool

  • 2 Ladies Reveal Nothing, but 1 Woman Can’t Handle 3 Soft Tacos…i’ll Explain Later*
  • 4 9 14*
29
Q

Which of the following is not a common site for cancer development in children?

A. Kidney

B. Hematopoietic system

C. Nervous Tissue

D. Lung

E. Bone

A

D. Lung

  • lung is the common site for adults as well as breast, skin, prostate, and colon
30
Q

Which of the following characteristics of non-hematologic pediatric neoplasms contribute to why they are called

-blastomas?

A. Primitive (embryonal) undifferentiated appearance

B. Small, round nuclei in cell sheets

C. Illustarte features of organogenesis that is specific to their site of origin

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

A

C. Illustarte features of organogenesis that is specific to their site of origin

NOTE: THe primitive histological appearance by sheets of cells with small, round nuclei is why a lot of childhood tumors have been called Small Round Blue Cell Tumors

31
Q

Neuroblastic tumors include tumors of sympathetic and adrenal medulla that are derived from which of the following?

A. Mesenchyme

B. Apiblast

C. Neural Crest Cells

D. Endoderm

A

Neural Crest Cells

32
Q

All of the following are characteristics of neuroblastic tumors EXCEPT?

A. Differentiation into mature tumors can be spontaneous

B. Differentiation into mature tumors can be induced by therapies

C. Tumor can regress spontaneously

D. Clinical behavior and prognosis can be variable

E. All of the above are correct

F. None of the above are correct

A

E. All of the above are correct

Neuroblastic tumors appear randomly and regress randomly, therapy can cause them, and clinical behaviro and prognosis vary

33
Q

What is the most important member of Neuroblastic Tumors?

What are two reasons that it is the most important? Hint: what is it common for?

A

Neuroblastoma

  • most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood
  • most frequently diagnosed tumor of infancy
34
Q

Which of the following has been identified as a major contributor/cause of familial predisposition to neuroblastoma?

A. Somatic gain-of-function mutation in anabolic lymphoma kinase gene

B. Somatic gain of function mutation in ETV6-NTRK3

C. Germline mutation in ETV6-NTRK3

D. Germline mutation in ALK gene

A

D. Germline mutation in ALK gene

NOTE: (A) Somatic gain-of-function mutation in anabolic lymphoma kinase (ALK) is related to about 10% of sporadic neuroblastoma development

35
Q

True or False: NOTE: Therapies may be able to target and inhibit this kinase activity within tumors harboring the ALK mutations in either sporadic or familial cases

A

True

36
Q

Which of the following is true in regards to prognosis of neuroblastomas? (Bonus: change the incorrect word/phrase in the wrong options to make them correct)

A. Age and stage of neuroblastoma have a remarkable affect on prognosis

B. Children younger than 18 months have a significantly worse prognosis

C. Long term prognosis for low-risk subsets remain modest with a 5-year survival in the range of 40%

D. None the above are correct

A

A. Age and stage of neuroblastoma have a remarkable affect on prognosis

B. Children younger than 18 months have a significantly worse (greater) prognosis

C. Long term prognosis for low-risk (high-risk) subsets remain modest with a 5-year survival in the range of 40%

37
Q

In childhood, about 40% of neuroblastomas arise in what structure?

A. Adrenal Cortex

B. Adrenal Medulla

C. Sympathetic ganglia

D. Medulla oblongata

A

B. Adrenal Medulla

NOTE: The ramainder arise along the sympathetic chain

38
Q

Neuroblastomas that occur along the sympathetic chain occur in the __________ 25% of the time, and __________ 15% of the time.

A. Neck; Posterior Mediastinum

B. Posterior Mediastinum; Paravertebral region of the abdomen

C. Neck; Pelvis

D. Paravertebral region of the abdomen; Posterior Mediastinum

A

D. Paravertebral region of the abdomen; Posterior Mediastinum

NOTE: pelvis, neck and within the brain are also sites it can arise, but just less frequent

39
Q

Which of the following correctly characterizes the morphology of neuroblastomas?

A. Sharply demarcated with fibrous pseudocapsles

B. Infiltrative and able to invade surrounding tissues like the kidney, renal vein, vena cava, and eventually envelop the aorta only

C. Necrotic areas with cystic softening and hamorrhage especially on large tumors

D. Can leave fibrous or calcified areas when they spontaneous regress

E. All of the above

F. All except A

G. None of the above

A

E. All of the above

  • Sharply demarcated with fibrous pseudocapsles
  • Infiltrative and able to invade surrounding tissues like the kidney, renal vein, vena cava, and eventually envelop the aorta only
  • Necrotic areas with cystic softening and hamorrhage especially on large tumors
  • Can leave fibrous or calcified areas when they spontaneous regress
40
Q

What are the histologic features of a classic neuroblastoma? (Hint: Think of a classically good movie for a pretencious person…)

A
  • small cells with dark nuclei
  • poorly defined borders
  • little cytoplasm
  • Karyorrhexis (nuclear breakdown)
  • Mitotic activity
  • Pleiomorphism (shapes & sizes are not uniform)
  • neuropils surround Homer-Wright pseudorosettes
  • Classic Movie: A little dark with an ambiguous structure in a small setting, it breaks down your brain, and keeps you split, because of its lack of uniformity. It’s a pill, and its due to the Home Writer*
41
Q

ENuroblastomas have a positive immunohistochemical reaction for which of the following?

A. Secretory vesicles filled with catecholamine

B. Neuron-specific enolase

C. Neuron-specific hydrolase

D. All of the above

A

B. Neuron-specific enolase

NOTE: Neuroblastomas do show secretory vesicles filled with catecholamines seen in their ultrastructure

42
Q

The presence of Schwannian stroma with organized fasicles and fibroblasts is a histological pre-requisit for designation of which of the following?

A. Neuroblasomas

B. Wilms tumor

C. Ganglioneuromas

D. Schann-neuroblastomas

A

C. Ganglioneuromas

NOTE: The presence of Schwannian stroma is associated with a favorable outcome

43
Q

In which of the following children are we most likely to see large masses in the abdomen, fever, and weightloss if they have neuroblastoma?

A. 1 year old

B. 3 year old

C. 5 year old

D. 9 years old

A

A. 1 year old

Children under 2 have these symptoms, while older children don’t have symptoms often until metastes presents and causes relative organ issues

44
Q

In older children with neuroblastomas we often don’t see symptoms until metastases produce manifestations. These manifestations are based on where metastes occurs, which is commonly in what 4 locations?

A

Liver

Lungs

Bone Marrow

Bone

LL BBean

45
Q

Which of the following accuratley expresses why some neonates are termed “blue berry muffin babies”?

A. They love blueberry muffins

B. There skin turns a deep blue due to cutaneous metasteses of disseminated neuroblastomas

C. There blood turns a deep blue due to hematopoeitic metastes of disseminated neuroblastomas that cause blood to have low [O2]

D. None of the above

A

B. There skin turns a deep blue due to cutaneous metasteses of disseminated neuroblastomas

46
Q

What is the difference between Stage 4 and Stage 4S of neuroblastomas?

A. Only one implies that traveling to skin, liver and or bone marrow has occurred

B. Contralateral LNs are negative in one

C. 4S involves a localized primary tumor and 4 involves any primary tumor

D. 4 involves a localized primary tumor and 4S involves any primary tumor

A

C. 4S involves a localized primary tumor and 4 involves any primary tumor

iPhone 4S was my primary phone

47
Q

Which of the following is true of the neuroblastomas Stages after 2B?

A. There is no presence of unresectable unilateral tumor that infiltrates across the midline

B. The prognosis becomes markedly worse

. C. There is no presence of localized unilateral tumor with contralateral regional LN involvement

D. None of the above are correct

A

B. The prognosis becomes markedly worse

NOTE: A and C are desccribing Stage 3 if you remove the “no”

48
Q

Choose Between: Near-Diploid and Hyper-diploid

Which is associated with a better prognosis as the underlying defect of the neuroblastoma is in the mitotic machinery that ends up creating relatively banal karyotypes?

Which is associated with a more aggressive genomic instability and can even influence MYCN and other oncogenes?

A

Which is associated with a better prognosis as the underlying defect of the neuroblastoma is in the mitotic machinery that ends up creating relatively banal karyotypes?

hyper-diploid

Which is associated with a more aggressive genomic instability and can even influence MYCN and other oncogenes?

near-diploid

49
Q

Age and stage are usually the most important determinants of outcome (<18 months; Stage 1, 2A, 2B), but which of the following causes the most profound exception to the rule?

A. Overproduction of Catecholamines

B. Downregulation of MYCN oncogene

C. Amplification of MYCN oncogene

D. Defective mitotic machinery and genomic instability

A

C. Amplification of MYCN oncogene

50
Q

Wilms tumor afflics about _________ children in the US, which makes it the most common primary renal tumor of childhood and the 4th most common pediatric malignancy in the US.

A. 1/100

B. 1/1,000

C. 1/10,000

D. 1/100,000

A

C. 1/10,000

51
Q

95% of Wilms tumors occur before 10 years of age, with the peak incidence occuring between what ages?

A. 1 to 5

B. 2 to 5

C. 3 to 5

D. 4 to 5

A

B. 2 to 5

52
Q

Wilms tumors affects the kidneys and can be described as synchornus or metachronus. What do the two bolded terms mean?

Which one has an earlier median age of onset?

A

Synchronus: both at the same time

Metachronus: 1 after the other

Synchronus has an earlier median age of onset

53
Q

WAGR syndrome is one of the 3 groups of congenital malformations that are associated with distinct chromosomal loci. What does WAGR syndrome stand for?

A

Wilms Tumor

Aniridia

Genital anomalies

Mental Retardation

54
Q

WAGR syndrome has congenital malformations associated with distinct chromosomal loci. In what chromosomal loci do we find the germline deletion?

What are the 2 genes that are found on the loci?

Which gene is implicated in the development of aniridia?

A

Chromosome 11p13

I’d WAGR like 11 to 13 pesos, to get this disease, idc if its only a 33% risk

WT1 and Pax6

Pax6 is implicated in aniridia

55
Q

Patients with Denys-Drash syndrome have a 90% risk of developing Wilms Tumor, and it is characterized by the presence of what?

A. Gonadal Dysgenesis

B. Early onset nephropathy that leads to renal failure

C. Aniridia and Genital anomalies

D. All of the above

E. A and B

A

A and B

Gonadal Dysgenesis

Early onset nephropathy that leads to renal failure

56
Q

With Denys-Drash Syndrome we also see germline abnormalities in WT1 that occur as a dominant-negative missense mutation in what region of WT1?

Patients with Denys-Drash also have an increased risk of developing what -blastoma?

A

Zinc-finger region

Gonadoblastoma

Miss Denys-Drash jabbed me in my Gonads with he Zinc-Finger

57
Q

T/F: The big difference between BWS vs Denys-Dash and WAGR, is BWS genetic basis is more heterogenous and no singlular 11p15.5 gene is involve in all cases

A

True

58
Q

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome (BWSis characterized by what 5 things?

BWS serves as a non-classical model for a non-classical mechanism of tumorgenesis that is what?

What is the implicated chromosomal loci in BWS?

A

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome (BWSis characterized by what 5 things?

organomegally, macroglossia, hemihypertrophy, omaphocele, adrenal cytomegaly

BWS serves as a non-classical model for a non-classical mechanism of tumorgenesis that is what?

Genomic imprinting

What is the implicated chromosomal loci in BWS?

11p15.5

The Weidemann I knew was huge and at 11 he looked 15.5

59
Q

A subset of patients with BWS have a significantly lower risk for developing Wilms tumor if they harbor mutations in what cell cycle regulator?

A. CDK-N1C

B. KIP2

C. p57

D. All of the above

A

All of the above

NOTE: CDK-N1C= KIP2 = p57

60
Q

PResence of which of the following histologic descriptions in a biopsy of a patient with Wilms tumor is associated with the presence of mutant p53 (TP53) and the emergence of becoming resistant to chemotherapy?

A. Heterologous elements including squamous or mucinous epithelium, smooth muscle, adipose tissue, cartilage, and osteoid and neurogenic tissue

B. Sheets of small blue cells that describe blastemal components

C. Primitive tubules or glomeruli that describe epithelial components

D. Fibrocytic or myxoid cells with potential presence of skeletal muscle differentiation that describe stromal components

E. Large hyperchomatic, pleimorphic nuclei and abnormal mitoses that describe anaplasia

A

E. Large hyperchomatic, pleimorphic nuclei that describe anaplasia

61
Q

The picture below most likely comes from a patient with which of the following diseases?

A. Neuroblastomas

B. Wilms Tumor

C. Denys-Dasher syndrome

D. Nephrogenic Rests

E. Gangneuroblastoma

A

B. Wilms Tumor

62
Q

Good luck

A

Dope