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MoD-Exam 2 > 10.1 Disease of Infancy and Childhood > Flashcards

10.1 Disease of Infancy and Childhood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 stages of life infants/children are categorized in which help us to understands what disorders we are susceptible to in each stage?

A
  1. Neonate: week 1-4
  2. Infancy: year 1
  3. 1- 4 years old
  4. 5-14 years old
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2
Q

What is the leading cause of death in the first year of life?

What os the leading cause of death in the age categories of 1-4 and 5-9?

A

SIDS

Unintentional injuries

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3
Q

Keep looking at this chart

A

Again thank you

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4
Q

What is a congenital anomaly?

Is it always based on a genetic issue?

A

An anatomical defect that someone is born with, that may not be clinically aparent until later

No

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5
Q

What are the origin of errors of malformations: single gene, chromosomal, or multifactorial defects?

Are clinical effects limited to one body system or multiple?

What are some common examples of malformations?

A

Defects can be in a single gene, chromosomal, or multifactorial, but are most commonly multifactorial

One or multiple body systems can be affected

Ex. anencephaly and congenital heart defects

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6
Q

Which of the following is a primary error of morphogenesis in which there is an intrinsic error in the developmental process?

A. Disruptions

B. Malformations

C. Deformations

D. Sequences

A

Malformations

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7
Q

Which of the following is a secondary destruction of a previously normal body region or organ due to extrinsic disturbance in morphogenesis?

A. Disruptions

B. Malformations

C. Deformations

D. Sequences

A

Disruptions

Everything was fine and dandy until that big disruption…you’re banned (like Amniotic band)

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8
Q

Which of the following errors is due to extrinsic disturbances of development due to localized or generalized compression that most commonly arises tfrom uterine constraint?

A. Disruptions

B. Malformations

C. Deformations

D. Sequences

A

Deformations

All of this constraint causes me to deform

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9
Q

Which of the following is a cascade of anomalies that is due to a single, localized initiating defect like oligohydramnios?

A. Disruptions

B. Malformations

C. Deformations

D. Sequences

E. Malformation syndrome

A

Sequences

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10
Q

What is a classic example of disruptions?

How do these things cause issues?

Are disruptions associated with a risk of recurrence in future pregnancies? Why?

A

Amniotic Bands

These bands form around the amnion and cause it to rupture while also compressing or attaching different portions of the fetus together

There is NO risk of recurrence because disruptions are not heritable

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11
Q

During what gestational weeks is their normally increased compression due to the growth of the fetus outpacing uterine growth and the amount of amniotic fluid available?

What maternal factors (4) increases the likilihood of excessive compression in these times that cause deformations to arise?

What fetal and placental factors (3) increases the likilihood of excessive compression in these times that cause deformations to arise?

A

Weeks 35-38

Maternal:

First pregnancy, uterine size, malformed bicornuate uterus, and leiomyomas

The 1st Bi Leos had uterus problems that lead to their deformation

Fetal and Placental:

Oligohydramnios, Multiple fetuses, Abnormal fetal presentation

too little amnion, too many fetuses, or a weird fetus

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12
Q

What is a common example of Sequences?

What are 2 common phenotypic results of the example?

A

Potter’s Sequence

Flattened Face

Abnormal feet and hand positioning

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13
Q

A common example of Sequences is Potter’s Sequence, in which we often see flattened face and odd positioning of hands in feet. What are other features we might see?

A. Dislocation of hips

B. Amnion nodosum

C. Hypoplastic lungs which might result in the death of the fetus

D. Compromised growth of chest wall

E. All of the above

F. All but A

G. None of the above

A

E. All of the above

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14
Q

Which of the following teratogenic chemicals was once used in tranquilizers and caused limb malformations in newborns of pregnant women?

A. Alcohol

B. Retinoic Acid

C. Thalidomide

D. Warfarin

E. Folic acid antagonist

A

Thalidomide

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15
Q

Which of the following categories of congenital anomalies is the most common genetic cause of genetic malformations, which include cleft lip, cleft palate, and neural tube defects?

A. Genetic causes

B. Environment causes

C. Neither genetic nor environmental causes

D. Multifactorial Inheritance (aka Both a and b)

A

Multifactorial Inheritance (aka Both a and b)

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16
Q

Regardless of the etiological agent, there are two principles that are relevant for the development of the pathology of congenital anomalies. What are those two priniciples?

A
  1. Timing of the agents administration
  2. How the teratogen interacts with any genetic defects present
17
Q

During the embryonic period the embryo is extremely susceptible to teratogenic agent influence between weeks 3-9, and have peak sensitivity occuring between what two weeks?

Why is the level of sensitivity for problems to occur so high between those two weeks?

A

Week 4 and 5

Organogenesis

Organs are being crafted out of the germ layers

18
Q

During the fetal period, the organs are growing and maturing and are less susceptible to teratogenic agents, HOWEVER the organs of the fetus are more susecptible to what?

A

Growth retardation

Injury

19
Q

At what week do we go from embryonic period to fetal period?

A. Week 3

B. Week 4

C. Week 8

D. WEek 16

A

Week 8

20
Q

Which of the following is most susceptible to major morphological defects from about week 3 to midway through week 6?

A. Heart and CNS

B. Arms, Eyes, and LEgs

C. Teeth and Palate

D. Genitals

E. Ears

A

A. Heart and CNS

21
Q

Which of the following is most susceptible to major morphological defects from week 4- week 8?

A. Heart and CNS

B. Arms, Eyes, and LEgs

C. Teeth and Palate

D. Genitals

E. Ears

A

Arms, Eyes, and LEgs

22
Q

Which of the following is most susceptible to major morphological defects from week 6 to week 9?

A. Heart and CNS

B. Arms, Eyes, and LEgs

C. Teeth and Palate

D. Genitals

E. Ears

A

Teeth and Palate

23
Q

Which of the following is most susceptible to major morphological defects from about weeek 7 to almost week 16?

A. Heart and CNS

B. Arms, Eyes, and LEgs

C. Teeth and Palate

D. Genitals

E. Ears

A

Teeth and Palate

24
Q

Which of the following is most susceptible to major morphological defects from about week 4 to almost week 11/12?

A. Heart and CNS

B. Arms, Eyes, and LEgs

C. Teeth and Palate

D. Genitals

E. Ears

A

Ears

25
Q

Prematurity is the second most common cause of neonate mortality and is defined as what? In other words a baby is determined to be premature if they are less than how many weeks?

A

Prematurity is < 37 weeks gestation

26
Q

What does PPROM stand for?

A. Promotional Premature Rupture of Muscles before 37 weeks gestation

B. Preterm Prematuer Rupture of (Placental) Membrane before 37 weeks gestation

C. Preterm Prematuer Rupture of (Placental) Membrane after 37 weeks gestation

D. None of the above

A

Preterm Prematuer Rupture of (Placental) Membrane before 37 weeks gestation

NOTE: PROM stands for after 37 weeks

27
Q

A mother at 20 weeks gestation comes in for her prenatal checkup. She is worried that her current baby is at risk for preterm delivery just like her last child. She admits that she still smokes even though shes reduced her intake and even comments that it’s helped her save money since she is of low SES. She also expresses that she’s had some light vaginal bleeding between weeks 10-15, but it subsided when she started only eating twinkies and apple juice. Which of the following factors contributes to you having to explain to the mother that her child is very much indeed of being premature?

A. Prior history of preterm delivery

B. Her diet of twinkies and water

C. Vaginal bleeding during current pregnancy

D. Low SES

E. All of the above

A

All of the above

28
Q

Chorioamiotitis and Funisitis are the 2 histiological correlates associated with intrauterine infection as seen in 25% in all preterm births. What do each of them mean?

A

Chorioamiotitis: inflammation of placental membrane

Funisitis: inflammation of fetal umbilical cord

29
Q

What are the (6) commonly implicated microorganisms of intrauterine infection through which their binding to TLRs, triggers the inflammation we see in this preterm risk factor?

Got To Go CUM

A

Gonorrhea

Trichomonas

Gardinerella Vaginalis

Ureaplasma Urealyticum

Mycoplasma Hominis

30
Q

What are the 4 major categories for prematurity?

A

PPROM

Intrauterine Infection

Structural abnormalities of the uterus, cervix, and placenta

Twins

Premature infants come out PIST

31
Q

Prominent causes of Fetal Growth Restriction are Fetal Abnormalities which include chromosomal disorders, congenital anomalies, and congenital infections. The congenital infections are offen due to infections from members of the TORCH family which stands 4 what pathogens?

A

Toxoplasmosis

Rubella

Cytomegalovirus

Herpesvirus

32
Q

Which of the following causes of Fetal growth restriction are influences that reduce fetus’ growth potential, DESPITE an adequate supply of nutrients available from the mother?

A. fetal abnormalities

B. placental abnormalities

C. maternal abnormalities

A

fetal abnormalities

33
Q

Which of the following causes of Fetal growth restriction often results in assymetric growth retardation of the fetus?

A. fetal abnormalities

B. placental abnormalities

C. maternal abnormalities

A

B. placental abnormalities

NOTE: fetal abnormalities usually result in symetrical growth

34
Q

Which of the following causes of Fetal growth restriction is the most common cause?

A. fetal abnormalities

B. placental abnormalities

C. maternal abnormalities

A

maternal abnormalities

35
Q

A pregnant woman with diabetes comes for a standard checkup to look at her baby’s risk for developing RDS. Her lecitithin/sphingomyelin ratio is >2.0. What does this mean for her childs likelihood for developing RDS?

A. Her child is fine as only a <2.0 ratio would indicate increased risk of RDS at delivery

B. Her child is fine because >2.0 indicates an increased risk of RDS

C. Her child is still at an increased risk of developing RDS as >2.0 with the mother being diabetic indicates increased risk

D. Only a ratio of <1.5 indicates a very high risk of developing RDS

A

C. Her child is still at an increased risk of developing RDS as >2.0 with the mother being diabetic indicates increased risk

While A and C are correct, the diabetes is a confounding factor for >2.0 L/S ratio

MoD-Exam 2 (11 decks)

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