10.2 Flashcards
- Collective bargaining agreements (CBAs) contain what two things for represented employees?
Answer: The terms and conditions of employment. (ref pg 1-4 section 4 b)
- Employees must promptly obey any lawful orders or directives from a supervisor, manager, or officer in charge. If an employee receives a conflicting order or directive, the employee must what?
Answer: respectfully call the conflict to the attention of the supervisor giving the last order. (ref pg 1-4 section 4 d)
- Employees must promptly obey any lawful orders or directives from a supervisor, manager, or officer in charge. If an employee receives a conflicting policy order or directive, respectfully call the conflict to the attention of the supervisor giving the last order. If the person giving the last order does not change or rescind it, is the employee required to obey it outside what would be considered a reasonably-apparent illegal act?
Answer: Yes they must obey it, and is not responsible for disobeying the first order. (ref pg 1-4 section 4 d)
- By policy, the Department has extended POBR rights to all other employees with the exception of who?
Answer: Cadets (ref pg 1-4 section 5a(1))
- When a departmental supervisor or manager is notified of or discovers alleged misconduct on the part of an employee, notification to the next level in the chain of command shall be made when? If the alleged misconduct is egregious, the supervisor or manager shall make notification when to the succeeding level in the chain of command?
Answer: As soon as it is practical / immediately (ref pg 1-4 section 6 a)
A disciplinary legal action taken in response to an employee’s misconduct, or continued failure to meet the rules of conduct, established by law and/or departmental policy. This is a direct example of a:
a. Adverse Action
b. Internal investigation
c. Criminal investigation
a. Adverse Action
True or False: The Department shall only administratively investigate allegations of misconduct when there is a nexus (or connection), between the act(s) and the individual’s employment with the Department. Normally, mere knowledge of employment status with the Department is insufficient to establish a nexus.
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True or False: The POST Commission shall adopt, by regulation, a definition of “Serious Misconduct” that shall serve as the criteria for ineligibility for, or revocation of, certification. Specified in PC Section 13510.8 (b) are nine categories. An example of one of these nine categories is, “Failing to intercede.”
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Absence Without Leave is the unauthorized absence for _____ consecutive working days (whether the absence was voluntary or involuntary) is considered an automatic __________ from state service, effective the last day the employee worked.
a. 7, resignation
b. 5, resignation
c. 10, termination
d. 5, termination
5, resignation
All administrative interrogations shall or should be audio recorded.
Shall
Employees shall be notified that misconduct for which they are being counseled may be charged in a future adverse action if the written document contains the Bazemore admonition. Accordingly, the Bazemore admonition shall be included in all _____________ which are counseling or remedial in nature. The Bazemore admonition shall be stated verbatim.
a. Memoranda of Direction (MOD)
b. Censurable Form 2
c. Notice of Adverse Action
a. Memoranda of Direction (MOD)
The process by which an employee who has resigned (by being absent without leave [AWOL]) has the opportunity to present information to an impartial and uninvolved departmental member with the authority to recommend a final disposition is called?
a. Coleman Hearing.
b. Carter Hearing
c. Coleman Procedure
d. Skelly hearing
a. Coleman Hearing
A formal written reprimand is the lowest penalty in the adverse action process and may be used when a penalty greater than corrective action is necessary.
a. Informal written reprimand
b. Formal written reprimand
c. Informal verbal reprimand
d. Formal verbal reprimand
b. Formal written reprimand
True or False: If the Lybarger Admonishment is given during an administrative Interrogation the subject has the right to refuse to answer administrative questions and their compelled statement cannot be used against them in a criminal proceeding.
False: they do not have the right to refuse to answer administrative questions
Miranda warnings ________be given when an employing agency is conducting a criminal investigation on one of its employees:
a. Should
b. May
c. Shall
d. Should not
c. shall
The predisciplinary hearing is an informal hearing in which an employee is given the opportunity to provide a response and/or mitigation regarding the proposed personnel action. The purpose of the hearing is to determine only if there are reasonable grounds that the charges against the employee are true and support the proposed action. Predisciplinary hearings are also known as:
a. Coleman hearing
b. Bazemore hearing
c. Skelly hearing
c. Skelly Hearing
The POBR Act is comprised of GC Section 3300 et seq., and it established due process rights and protections for peace officers within California. By policy, the Department extends POBR to all employees, except _______.
a. Non-uniformed
b. Executive level staff
c. Cadets
c. Cadets
Minor Discipline which involves a penalty consisting of a one to five working day(s) suspension or equivalent step-reduction in pay applies to only to who?
a. Bargaining Unit 5 members only (officers only).
b. Bagaining Unit 5 members only (officers and sergeants)
c. Bargaining Unit 5 and 7 members only (officers, sergeants and dispatchers)
b. Bagaining Unit 5 members only (officers and sergeants)
True or False: Moral turpitude is defined as “conduct contrary to justice, honesty, modesty, or good morals.” If an employee has entered a deferred entry of judgement or diversion plea
and the criminal charges are later dismissed prior to sentencing, this does not constitute a conviction within the meaning of this section.
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What are the two expectations of supervisors and managers in regards to progressive discipline?
(1) Ensure employees are informed of expectations via briefings, ride-alongs, one-on-one discussions, training days, written acknowledgments of policy review, etc.
(2) Recognize those individuals who are meeting or exceeding standards by providing positive reinforcement and recognition, e.g., CHP 100 Form comments; commendable CHP 2, Incident Report, etc.
What is the goal of progressive discipline?
Answer: improving employee behavior and/or performance
Supervisors and managers may, should, or shall conduct regular and opendiscussions with employees on job-related issues.
Answer: Should
A supervisor’s job is to provide employees with what kind of feedback regarding job performance?
Answer: critical, constructive, and comprehensive
Supervisors must provide fair, engaged, and _________ supervision.
Answer: impartial
What is the goal of written or verbal corrective actions?
Answer: To bring the employee’s performance to an acceptable level and to prevent continued misconduct or poor performance.
What document must be read and understood when considering any form of corrective action?
Answer: Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights Act (POBR)
What are the two types of counseling?
Answer: Informal and Formal counseling.
What forms should formal counseling be documented on?
Answer: CHP 100, CHP 100PSD, or CHP 112.
What are examples of corrective documentation?
Answer: (a) Monthly evaluation comment (e.g., CHP 100, CHP 100PSD, CHP 112).
(b) Memorandum of Counseling.
(c) Memorandum of Direction
(d) Censurable CHP 2.
Which corrective document includes the Bazemore Admonition?
Answer: Memorandum of Direction (MOD)
If an employee does not respond to preventive and/or correction actions what is the next step in progressive discipline?
Answer: Adverse Action
What are the six types of penalties for adverse actions?
Answer:
(a) Formal Written Reprimand.
(b) Salary Reduction within Salary Range of the Class.
(c) Suspension.
(d) Involuntary Transfer.
(e) Demotion.
(f) Dismissal from State Service.
Q - How long is the CHP 7E Internal Investigation Control Log maintained at Division offices:
A - 5 years (Chap 4 pg. 4-3 Section 2(b)
Q - When will divisions update OIA with the CHP 7E via electronic email?
A - NLT close of business every Thursday (excluding holidays) (Chap 4 pg 4-3 Section 2(c)
Q - What rank shall the investigator be?
A - at least one rank higher than the involved employee (Chap 4 pg. 4-4 Section 3(c)
Q - Within how many days does the area and division commander have to forward the investigation to OIA
A- 60 Calendar days (Chap 4 pg 4-5 Section 3(f)
Q - When an employee of the department learns of a fellow employee being investigated by a law enforcement agency, what shall the employee do?
A - they shall immediately notify a supervisor or manager (Chap 4 pg. 4-5 Section 3(g)
Q - When potential criminal misconduct is identified what shall the commander do?
A - Notify Division, OIA and the Office of the Commissioner prior to any contact with a prosecuting authority regarding potential criminal misconduct by any dept. employee (Chap 4 pg. 4-6 Section 4(b)
Q - What are the two methods of conducting a criminal investigation?
A- Concurrent and consecutive (Chap 4 pg 4-6 Section 4(c)
Q - What method of investigation is conducted at the same time by a separate investigator?
A- Concurrent (Chap 4 pg. 4-6 Section 3(1)(a)
Q - Who generally conducts a criminal investigation?
A - The agency with primary investigative authority for the specified crime and or location. (Chap 4 pg 4-7 Section 4(d)
Q - What happens if the agency with primary investigative authority relinquishes or declines to conduct an investigation?
A - The involved Commander SHALL initiate and investigation (Chap 4 pg 4–7 Section 4(d)
Q - Can criminal investigators participate in administrative interrogations?
A - No, Shall not (Chap 4 pg 4-8 Section 4(e)(3)(a)
Q- What shall be included in with the administrative investigation for uniformed employees? What is different for non-uniformed employees?
A - Uniform -A copy of the criminal investigation and/or arrest record Shall be included.
*Non-uniformed employees arrest reports which have not resulted in a conviction cannot be included in the investigative file (Chap 4 pg 4-8 Section 4(e)(4)(b)(1)(2)
Q - When shall a non-uniformed employee be administrable investigated?
A - Any criminal misconduct resulting in a felony conviction, any criminal misconduct constituting a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, or any criminal misconduct where the employed has established a nexus to the dept. (Chap 4 pg 4-9 Section 4(F)
Q - Which citizens’ complaints are required to be investigated?
A - ALL allegations of misconduct filed as a citizen’s complaint shall be investigated. (Chap 4 pg 4-9 Section 5)
Q - Should a formal investigation be undertaken if a complaint from department personnel or anonymous (with evidence to say it’s from within the dept)?
A - An investigation shall not be undertaken without having a basis for believing there is merit to the complaint. (Chap 4 pg 4-10 Section 6 (b)
Q - Who makes the initial inquiry into an employee alleged misconduct?
A - the commander (Chap 4 pg 4-10 Section 6(c)
Q - What shall be considered when the commander is making the initial inquiry?
A - If there is adequate evidence to corroborate the allegations (documents, witnesses), the egregiousness of the alleged misconduct, the employees work history, how the complaint was generated, the statute of limitations as it pertains to administrative and criminal investigations, whether the allegations have already been investigated (Chap 4 pg 4-10 Section 6(c) 1-6)
Q - Who is responsible for investigations involving a cadet?
A - The academy commander (Chap 4 pg 4-11 Section 7(a)
Q - What is the timeframe to conduct an adverse action?
A - 1 year (Chap 4 pg 4-12 Section 8 (a)
Q - An employee must be notified of the proposed disciplinary action within the one-year period except under what circumstances?
A- the investigation cannot be completed due to pending criminal investigation,
* the employees waive the one-year time period in writing,
*a reasonable extension is necessary to coordinate a multi-jurisdictional investigation,
*the investigation involved more than one employed,
*the investigation involved an employee who is incapacitated or otherwise unavailable,
* the investigation involved a matter of civil litigation and the employee is the defendant,
*the investigation a matter under criminal investigation and prosecution, (the one-year time period is tolled while the defendant’s case is resolved)
* the investigation involved allegation of workers’ compensation fraud by the employee (Chap 4 pg 4-13 Section 8 (a)1-8
Q - When can internal investigation of an employee be reopened beyond the one-year time period?
A - *Significant new evidence has been discovered that is likely to affect the outcome of the investigation and, the evidence could not reasonably have been discovered without resorting to extraordinary measures or the evidence resulted from the employee’s disciplinary hearing response or procedure. (Chap 4 pg 4-13 Section 8 (b) 1-2)
Q - When shall a probationary employee be served with a notice of rejection during probation?
A - prior to the last day of the probation period (allowing time for the pre disciplinary hearing.) (Chap 4 pg 4-13 Section 8 (d)
Q - What shall be done to maintain the strict confidentiality of an investigation?
A - *Interviews, interrogations are done at a private location
* Limit the amount of info to witnesses
*Advise witness of the confidential matter (given direct order to not discuss)
*ensure all notes are secure and marked confidential and the chain of custody is maintained (Chap 4 pg 4-14 Section 9 (b)
Q - Can the employee under investigation be subjected to visits by the press or news media without their expressed consent?
A - No, shall not without their consent, nor their address be given (Chap 4 pg 4-14 Section 9 (c)
Q - If an employee is placed on a leave of absence are their peace officer powers revoked?
A - Yes. (Chap 4 pg 4-15 Section 10 (b)
Q - How long after an investigation is completed does the employees need to be notified?
A - 15 calendar days (Chap 4 pg 4-16 Section 10 (c)