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10. Emergency Services Administration Planning Flashcards

1
Q

__________ planning involves defining the organization’s mission and vision, core values, goals, and objectives to develop the strategies necessary to operate successfully in the particular environment. (p. 241)

A

strategic

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2
Q

__________ mandates provide the basis for developing the strategic plan in an environment that is rapidly changing. (p. 241)

A

organizational

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3
Q

What is part of a management concept that includes the planning, implementation, and control functions? (p. 242)

A

strategic planning

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4
Q

This specific statement expresses the fundamental purpose of the organization and identifies its customers. (p. 242)

A

define the organization’s mission and vision

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5
Q

These are the foundation upon which the organization was founded. State why the organization was established and what it does. They are intended to govern the ethical responsibility of all organization members. (p. 242)

A

define the organization’s values

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6
Q

What are the end results of the activities of the organization determined in the SWOT analysis that support the mission statement? (p. 242)

A

establish goals and objectives

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7
Q

The implementation of a strategic plan starts from the __________, but is the responsibility of the middle and lower level chief officers and company officers. (p. 243)

A

top-down

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8
Q

__________ plans may be long or short term and include the creation and implementation of projects and programs. (p. 243)

A

operational

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9
Q

The __________ function of strategic management involves establishing measurements to judge the plan’s effectiveness. (p. 243)

A

monitoring

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10
Q

What type of evaluation will determine how well a program is meeting the original goals or objectives established for it? (p. 244)

A

goals-based

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11
Q

What type of evaluation will determine how a program actually works and highlight its strengths and weaknesses; particularly useful for long-standing programs or if a program is determined to be inefficient and complaints are prompted by it? (p. 244)

A

performance-based

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12
Q

The __________ plan may include the evaluation, procurement, training, and implementation of a new type of ventilation equipment or procedure. It focuses on all the projects, programs, and activities that will occur within the budget or calendar year. (p. 244)

A

short-term

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13
Q

Apparatus __________ plans are usually based on the manufacturer’s recommended service schedule, trucking industry standards, or local maintenance histories. (p. 245)

A

preventative maintenance

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14
Q

Changes of this type require time to plan and implement, and they fall into the intermediate-term planning cycle. If major changes are indicated, the plan may have to be phased in, such as shifting hazardous materials response responsibilities from all fire companies to a single unit or branch. (p. 245)

A

reorganization

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15
Q

Long-term planning requires a thorough knowledge of the applicable codes and standards adopted by the local jurisdiction. The chief must know NFPA 1500, 1710, __________ and applicable U.S. codes or federal regulation as they apply to response times and minimum staffing levels. (p. 246)

A

1720

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16
Q

What can assist in determining the proper location for facilities? (p. 247)

A

computer models

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17
Q

Ensuring that personnel are likely to stay __________ years or more is essential to keeping costs down and maintaining the required minimum staffing level. (p. 248)

A

20

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18
Q

__________ is generally the responsibility of a chief officer, although a Level II company officer may be assigned the duty. (p. 248)

A

training

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19
Q

How many criteria generally determine training requirements? (p. 249)

A

six

  1. legal mandates
  2. training standards
  3. hazards assessment
  4. building and fire codes
  5. community
  6. risk analysis
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20
Q

What criteria is used to determine training requirements? (p. 249)

A

legal mandates

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21
Q

The requirements for training for hazardous materials responses, respiratory protection training, maritime training, and airport/aircraft incident training as well as incident management training fall to what level of government? (p. 249)

A

federal

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22
Q

Requirements for basic firefighting training, apparatus driver/operator training, inspector/investigator training, and fire officer training usually fall to what level of government? (p. 249)

A

state/provincial

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23
Q

__________ adopted building and fire codes regulate the construction, renovation, use, and safety features of the structures within the response area. (p. 249)

A

locally

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24
Q

NFPA __________ series defines the methods used to provide training. (p. 249)

A

1400

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25
Q

__________ should never be compromised due to the lack of financial support. (p. 250)

A

safety

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26
Q

When designing a training program, the officer in charge follows two basic steps: identify its purpose and __________? (p. 251)

A

consider program design factors

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27
Q

Provide a clear line of __________ and accountability for achieving an organization’s training goals. (p. 252)

A

authority

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28
Q

Training personnel should be familiar with NFPA __________, Standard for Fire Service Instructor Professional Qualifications. (p. 252)

A

1041

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29
Q

Individuals must be held __________ for their skills. (p. 254)

A

accountable

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30
Q

These topics enable personnel to perform their responsibilities based on job descriptions and responsibilities. (p. 254)

A

need-to-know

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31
Q

What is the act of instructing firefighters and firefighter candidates in the knowledge and skills required to perform their duties? (p. 255)

A

training

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32
Q

What is often a result of training? (p. 255)

A

certification

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33
Q

A permanent training facility has to provide an infrastructure with adequate water supply. Water volume and pressure required to support training operations based on the number of attack and backup hose lines used. You can find this information in NFPA __________, Standard on Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting.

A

1142

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34
Q

A permanent training facility has to provide an infrastructure with a __________. (p. 255) (learn all)

A
  1. adequate water supply
  2. fuel source
  3. breathing air supply
  4. equipment decon area
  5. apparatus staging, approach, and operational area
  6. communications system
  7. water decon system
  8. weather monitoring equipment
  9. environmental controls
  10. security
  11. location
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35
Q

What is the area that is designated for the washing and cleaning of personal protective clothing, hoses, nozzles, and other equipment? (p. 256)

A

equipment decontamination area

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36
Q

A permanent training facility has to provide an infrastructure with a __________. Radio frequency dedicated for the training function or two-way communication devices with limited range. All personnel engaged in training exercises must have contact with one another. (p. 256)

A

communications system

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37
Q

This is a system that separates and removes contaminants using oil separators, containing contaminated water in a pond that separates the oil and water through natural processes (ponding), adding hydrocarbon-eating bacteria into water to destroy the oil (bacterial breakdown), or using a combination of these processes. (p. 256)

A

water decontamination system

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38
Q

A permanent training facility has to provide an infrastructure with __________. (p. 256)

A

environmental controls

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39
Q

A basic training site needs: rooms that provide a comfortable learning atmosphere with minimal distractions. What are these called? (p. 257)

A

classrooms

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40
Q

A basic training site needs: __________ courses. Simulated streets, alleys, parking lots, cul-de-sacs, and dead-end driveways should be provided for driver/operator training. (p. 257)

A

driving

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41
Q

A basic training site needs: __________ buildings. Structures specifically designed for use in live-burn exercises must provide a realistic training experience for students. (p. 257)

A

burn and smoke

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42
Q

A basic training site needs transportation incident props, what is one of the ways these props can be used? (p. 258)

A

hazardous-materials spill control

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43
Q

__________ training units consist of trailer-or vehicle- mounted classrooms, computer-controlled simulators, smoke trailers, and fire behavior (flashover) simulators. (p. 259)

A

mobile

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44
Q

In order for an instructor to teach, they must meet the Instructor I requirements of NFPA __________. (p. 260)

A

1041

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45
Q

Personnel have responsibilities other than attending training: inspections, incident responses, special events, and scheduled leave. What should the chief officer be asking? (p. 261)

A

how will the training schedule affect other job activities

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46
Q

When a training must be taught _________, it is best to schedule training when the weather is suitable. (p. 261)

A

outdoors

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47
Q

__________ training, can provide training at multiple location at convenient times. This form of training reduces out-of-service time, the fuel costs, and interruptions. (p. 261)

A

technology-based

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48
Q

When developing a training schedule, what is the first step that can assist the chief officer? (p. 261)

A

develop a consistent procedure for creating and publicizing training schedules

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49
Q

The __________ the time period a training schedule covers, the easier it is for personnel to prepare for training. (p. 261)

A

longer

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50
Q

This is especially important in a volunteer organization, where personnel must plan their personal lives around the organization’s activities. (p. 261)

A

awareness

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51
Q

How many people should be responsible for: tracking schedules, handling cancellations, rescheduling and sharing of time slots or facilities with other organizations? (p. 262)

A

one

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52
Q

Some educational institutions have __________ fire service training facilities and programs. (p. 262)

A

permanent

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53
Q

Many states and provinces have fire and emergency services training __________ that operate facilities providing on-site training for career, combination, and volunteer organizations. (p. 263)

A

associations

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54
Q

These training programs and facilities provide localized resources to large or remote geographic areas or areas with high population density. (p. 263)

A

regional

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55
Q

How many regional networks does the TRADE system include? (p. 263)

A

ten

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56
Q

An alternative to conducting in-house training is to contract with an instructor to conduct a particular __________ for the fire and emergency services organization in its local community. (p. 263)

A

seminar

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57
Q

When partnerships with businesses in the response area result in joint training opportunities. These are considered. (p. 263)

A

private sources

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58
Q

What does RSVP stand for? (p. 264)

A

retired senior and volunteer professionals

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59
Q

The __________ risk analysis is an approach for prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response, continuity, and recovery that addresses a full range of threats and hazards. (p. 264)

A

all-hazard

60
Q

__________ hazards result from the perceived careless actions of individuals or groups. An example would be storing ignitable liquids improperly. (p. 265)

A

behavioral

61
Q

What type of hazards result from actions that are meant to cause property destruction or life loss? (p. 265)

A

intentional

62
Q

Arson is an example of a(n) ______ hazard? (p. 265)

A

intentional

63
Q

An effective fire cause determination or investigation program helps to pinpoint the causal factor and provide __________ for a judicial case. (p. 265)

A

evidence

64
Q

Building and fire codes, along with __________ restrictions (those that prevent structures from being built in natural hazards-prone areas), can help reduce the potential effects of these hazards. (p. 266)

A

zoning

65
Q

__________ structures are those that have a high financial value or contain a large number of people, posing a high life loss risk. (p. 267)

A

high-value

66
Q

When the all-hazard risk analysis is completed, the information must be compiled into what? (p. 267

A

written report

67
Q

A(n) __________ ________ is a brief review of the key points in the written analysis. (p. 267)

A

executive summary

68
Q

What involves participants representing all areas of fire prevention as well as other advocates and stakeholders to the plan and its recommended outcomes? It is committed to action, with a few strategic recommendations being converted to a national plan that stakeholders will be asked to support with documentation of specific actions and benchmarks instead of a long list of recommended practices that everyone agrees are important. (p. 268)

A

vision 20/20

69
Q

Organizations involved in emergency management should divide the process into how many phases? (p. 269)

A

Four

  1. Mitigation/prevention
  2. preparation
  3. response
  4. recovery
70
Q

Activities performed before an emergency event to reduce the probability of occurrence or extent of damage; includes performing hazard analyses, strengthening codes and regulations, and developing plans to lessen or eliminate negative effects. (p. 269

A

mitigation/prevention

71
Q

Activities taken before an event occurs to protect a community; includes identifying hazards, gathering intelligence data, developing response plans, identifying/allocating resources, and establishing interagency agreements. (p. 269)

A

preparedness

72
Q

Activities that take place after the emergency event is stabilized to return a community to normal; includes performing cleanup and disposing of debris, restoring utility/transportation services, and rehabilitating affected areas. (p. 269)

A

recovery

73
Q

__________ are any occurrences that inflict widespread destruction or distress. They may affect humans, animals, properties, the economy, or the environment. (p. 269)

A

disasters

74
Q

__________ fires are usually small-scale events involving single structures, vehicles, or dumpsters that can escalate into disasters. (p. 270)

A

arson

75
Q

What is it considered when fires occur because of human action or inaction but are not premeditated? (p. 271)

A

human error

76
Q

What is defined as the unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political and social objectives? (p. 271)

A

terrorism

77
Q

The NFPA __________, Standard for an Active Shooter/Hostile Event Response (ASHER) Program describes active shooter/hostile event response. (p. 271)

A

3000

78
Q

What is an incident where individual(s) have been actively engaged in attempting to kill people in a populated area with firearms, explosives, toxic substances, vehicles, edged weapons, fire, or a combination thereof? (p. 271)

A

active shooter/hostile event

79
Q

The NFPA 3000, Standard for an Active Shooter/Hostile Event Response (ASHER) Program provides guidance for major incident plans, incident management systems, and communications with other agencies. What method is this? (p. 271)

A

preparation/prevention

80
Q

This involves the failure of technology on a widespread basis covering large geographic areas. (p. 272)

A

technological disasters

81
Q

A comprehensive community disaster plan depends on the ability of local agencies to? (p. 272)

A

work together

82
Q

__________ can be illustrated in two ways: vertical or horizontal. (p. 272)

A

jurisdiction

83
Q

This type of jurisdiction is an incident that covers multiple jurisdictions. (p. 273)

A

horizontal

84
Q

The Federal Emergency Management Agency recommends the creation what type of plans to prepare for responding to multi jurisdictional incidents? (p. 273)

A

area contingency plans

85
Q

If an emergency involves an area or facility for which the federal government exercises exclusive or preeminent responsibility and authority, the President may unilaterally direct the provision of emergency assistance under what act? (p. 273)

A

Stafford Act

86
Q

What is described as a facility that houses communications equipment, plans, contact/notification list, and staff that are used to coordinate the response to an emergency? (p.274)

A

emergency operations center

87
Q

Who provides the leadership of the jurisdiction and involved agencies with a protected site from which to manage the incident? (p. 274)

A

emergency operations center

88
Q

What is described as having many configurations, but in general it is an administrative workspace, sponsored by a state or local government, that supports the intelligence needs of multiple agencies (state/local/federal/tribal) including: law enforcement, fire and emergency medical services, public health, private sector, and emergency planners during steady state and emerging situations? (p. 275)

A

fusion center

89
Q

Who are fusion centers owned and operated by? (p. 275)

A

state and local authorities

90
Q

What happens to the information after it is submitted to the fusion center? (p. 276)

A

fused

91
Q

The resulting fused data is used to inform the fire and emergency services of threats through the production of _____, ______, and _____. (p. 276)

A

threat reports, alerts, and briefings

92
Q

What is the first step of the fusion process? (p. 276)

A

collected

93
Q

During community disaster planning, resources are identified and assigned based on what? (p. 277)

A

type of disaster

94
Q

A state of emergency requiring the activation of the __________ may occur before, during, or after the incident. (p. 278)

A

comprehensive disaster plan

95
Q

What determines when the comprehensive disaster plan is activated? (p. 278)

A

type of incident and severity

96
Q

At what stage is the comprehensive disaster plan implemented? It’s when there is strong indication that a potential disaster is about to occur. Efforts focus on preparing for the disaster through evacuation, reinforcement of levies, or relocation of resources. (p. 278)

A

before the incident

97
Q

What needs to be made of both actual incidents and training exercises? (p. 278)

A

post-incident analysis

98
Q

What does the phases of termination depend on? (p. 279)

A

type and magnitude of the disaster

99
Q

Which personnel remain until all victims or human remains have been recovered? (p. 279)

A

medical

100
Q

Who has the ultimate authority to declare incident termination? (p. 279)

A

incident commander

101
Q

This is when you initiate and approve a strategic planning process and budget development. (p. 242)

A

program creation

102
Q

These are rank ordered based on the established criteria, and the best option is selected. Strategies and contingency plans should also be developed. (p. 242)

A

identify strategic alternatives

103
Q

The best option is developed into a written action plan that includes timelines, resources, monitoring criteria, evaluation procedures, policies, and steps for making revisions. (p. 242)

A

develop an implementation strategy

104
Q

Every aspect of the strategic plan must be __________ and/or complimentary. (p. 242)

A

compatible

105
Q

What type of evaluation identifies the benefits to the community or consumer of the service? It refers to the actual benefits that the community enjoys such as reduced fire loss or improved quality of life. (p. 244)

A

outcome-based

106
Q

The operational plans developed to support the goals and objectives of the strategic plan fall into __________ broad categories based on the time frame for the plan. (p. 244)

A

three

  1. Short-term (up to 1 year)
  2. Intermediate-term (1 to 3 years)
  3. long-term (over 3 years)
107
Q

The __________ of resources may change based on the operating environment, governmental requirements, or changes in operating standards. (p. 246)

A

allocation

108
Q

_________ plans should include the ability to replace small portions of the equipment over a set period to amortize the cost. (p. 246)

A

replacement

109
Q

A good policy is to __________ long-term plans with the appropriate code or standard that justifies it. (p. 246)

A

annotate

110
Q

Fire stations typically have a life expectancy of __________ years or more. (p. 247)

A

50

111
Q

A project management team should be established to create the __________ location plan which considers factors such as population density, target hazards and access. (p. 247)

A

station

112
Q

NPFA __________ Annex D recommends apparatus over 15 years old be placed into reserve status and replaced at 25 years. The preventative maintenance schedule, local history, mileage, engine hours, and vehicle condition can be used to establish a schedule. (p. 247)

A

1901

113
Q

__________ aims to ensure operations are conducted in a safe, effective, consistent, and efficient manner. (p. 248)

A

training

114
Q

What is something a training officer must be able to do? (p. 249)

A
  1. evaluate and forecast the organization’s training requirements
  2. develop a training program
  3. determine funding sources
  4. determine alternative training sources
  5. evaluate the training program
115
Q

A __________ assessment is a review of occupancies and facilities within the service area and the types of hazards each creates for the community and the fire and emergency services organization. (p. 250)

A

hazards

116
Q

basic training site needs: (p. 257-258)

A
  1. classroom
  2. parking
  3. driving courses
  4. burn and smoke buildings
  5. transportation incident props
117
Q

Develop the training program’s core __________ and strive to meet it. (p. 252)

A

philosophy

118
Q

Who evaluates individual courses and learners? (p. 253)

A

instructors

119
Q

__________ are essential to the delivery of any training program. (p. 253)

A

Resources

120
Q

Chief officers should consult NFPA __________, Guide to Building Fire Service Training Centers, when planning training because it details the types of structures suitable for training. (p. 255)

A

1402

121
Q

What is the area that is designated for the washing and cleaning of personal protective clothing, hoses, nozzles, and other equipment? (p. 256)

A

equipment decontamination area

122
Q

Class __________ foam training props selected form a training facility should reflect the types of hazards located within the jurisdiction. (p. 258)

A

B

123
Q

6 steps that assist in developing a training schedule: (p. 261-262)

A
  1. develop a consistent procedure for creating and publicising training schedules.
  2. assign ONE individual to create and keep a record of training schedules.
  3. schedule a reasonable amount of training programs within a given time period.
  4. schedule all resources in a timely manner and confirm that these resources are available.
  5. publish and distribute schedules.
  6. develop alternative plans
124
Q

When developing a training schedule, what is the fourth step that can assist the chief officer? (p. 262)

A

schedule all resources in a timely manner and confirm that these resources are available

125
Q

Structures acquired for live burns must comply with local air quality ordinances, air quality management district’s requirements, and the requirements of NFPA _________ before they can be used for any live-fire exercises. (p. 260)

A

1403

126
Q

Effective __________ can teach, lead, motivate, inspire, and change the attitudes of an organization. (p. 260)

A

instructors

127
Q

When developing a training schedule, what is the fifth step that can assist the chief officer? (p. 262)

A

publish and distribute schedules

128
Q

__________ that equipment or vehicles are available when needed. (p. 262)

A

confirm

129
Q

What usually refers to the source of a risk? (p. 264)

A

hazard

130
Q

A __________ is the likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard. (p. 264)

A

risk

131
Q

__________ activities can exacerbate the severity of some natural events, such as landslides, floods, and forest fires. (p. 266)

A

human

132
Q

__________ is responsible for ensuring that the owner/occupants adhere to building code requirements. (p. 266)

A

The fire and emergency services organization

133
Q

No plan, no matter how comprehensive, can address all possible situations, the plan needs to be __________ enough so that it can be modified to meet as many potential threats as possible. (p. 268)

A

generic

134
Q

When planning for terrorist attacks, what is typically focused on? (p. 271)

A

weapons that attackers may use

135
Q

This can result from protests turning violent or destructive, or the disorder may begin as a riot. It usually occurs as a response to perceived injustices or governmental decisions on controversial topics like human rights or environmental policy. (p. 271)

A

civil disorder

136
Q

In the Incident Command System, this is a shared command role in which all agencies with geographical or functional responsibility establish a common set of incident objectives and strategies. (p. 272)

A

unified command

137
Q

6 steps of the fusion process: (p. 276)

A
  1. information collection
  2. information integrated
  3. information evaluated
  4. information analyzed
  5. information disseminated
  6. informed response
138
Q

What is the fifth step of the fusion process? (p. 276)

A

disseminated

139
Q

What is the second step of the fusion process? (p. 276)

A

integrated

140
Q

What is the first step of the fusion process? (p. 276)

A

collected

141
Q

If the disaster causes multiple deaths and health concerns, representatives from what department will play a key role in the recovery effort? (p. 278)

A

department of health and human services

142
Q

At what stage is the comprehensive disaster plan implemented, when an emergency rapidly overwhelms resources or threatens to involve exposures or hazards? (p. 278)

A

during the incident

143
Q

What to all comprehensive disaster plans and multiagency emergency incident management plans include? (p. 278)

A

contingency plans

144
Q

This is usually the task of public works personnel or private contractors. (p. 279)

A

debris removal

145
Q

During the recovery and rehabilitation phase of a disaster, __________ of equipment and apparatus is necessary for the restoration of emergency response services. (p. 280)

A

decontamination

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