[1] Practice Test

Question 1

QUESTION: What is the appropriate term for an interacting group of individuals of a single type occupying a defined area?

[A] ecosystem

[B] population

[C] species

[D] community

[E] habitat

Answer 1

[A]“Ecosystem” is NOT the correct answer. The entire array of different species within a given ecosystem comprises a community.

[B] “Population” IS THE CORRECT ANSWER. Only the organisms of a given species that have the opportunity to interact with one another are considered to be within the same population.

[C]“Species” is NOT the correct answer. Members of the same species may be geographically isolated and unable to interact with one another.

[D]“Community” is NOT the correct answer. All of the different populations within a given ecosystem compose a community.

[E]“Habitat” is NOT the correct answer. The habitat is the ecological niche inhabited by the members of a population.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: Consider the hierarchy of biological organization.

REVIEW: Biological Organization

Question 2

QUESTION: Which series of terms is in the correct sequence of biological organization, fron the sinmplest to the most complex?

[A] tissue, organ system, organ, cell, organism

[B] molecule, tissue, cell, organelle, organ

[C] cell, tissue, organ, organisms, population, community

[D] community, popiulation, ecosystem, habitat, biosphere

[E] organism, ecosystem, community, population, biosphere

Answer 2

[A] Incorrect. The correct sequence would be cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism.

[B] Incorrect. The correct sequence would be molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ.

[C] Correct! These terms are in order of increasing complexity.

[D] Incorrect. The population lives in a habitat, and the populations of an ecosystem are the community. The biosphere includes all the environments on Earth that are inhabited by life. Thus, the correct order should be popiulation, habitat, community, ecosystem, biosphere.

[E] Incorrect. The correct sequence would be organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: Consider the hierarchy of biological organization.

REVIEW: Biological Organization

Question 3

QUESTION: Emergent properties of living systems are defined as properties that ____.

[A] are due to the arrangement and interactions of parts as complexity increases

[B] are evident during only one portion of the life cycle of an organism

[C] define the cell’s surroundings

[D] are appartent only when an organism is studied at the molecular level

[E] None of hte listed responses are correct.

Answer 3

[A] Correct! Emergent properties are novel properties not present at the level of biological organiation just below. Emergent properties arise from the arrangement and interactions of parts as complexity increases.

[B] Incorrect. Consider the meaning of the term emergent.

[C] Incorrect. Consider the meaning of the term emergent.

[D] Incorrect. Consider the meaning of the term emergent.

[E] Incorrect. One of the choices provides a correct definition of emergent properties. Remember that with each step upward in the hierarchy of biological order, novel properties emerge that are not present at the level just below.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: Remember that emergent properties can be recognized by comparing levels in the hierarchy of biological organization.

Question 4

QUESTION: Which of the following can be considered a biological system?

[A] a salmon’s cardiovascular system

[B] a single liver cell

[C] the biosphere

[D] a pond

[E] All of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 4

[A] Incorrect. While this answer is correct, there is a better option.

[B] Incorrect. While this answer is correct, there is a better option.

[C] Incorrect. While this answer is correct, there is a better option.

[D] Incorrect. While this answer is correct, there is a better option.

[E] Correct! A system is a combination of components that function together. It can be defined at any scale.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: When asked about biological systems, consider the different places and different scales at which a biologist might work.

Question 5

QUESTION: Sequencing a protein to discover the sequence of amino acids that make it up is an example of __________. Understanding how that protein works with other proteins in a cell is an example of __________.

[A] inductive reasoning…reductionism

[B] natural selection…systems biology

[C] systems biology…reductionism

[D] hypothesis-driven science…systems biology

[E] reductionism…systems biology

Answer 5

[A] Incorrect. Although protein sequencing might lead to inductive reasoning, it is part of discovery science. Looking at protein function and interaction is a systems biology approach.

[B] Incorrect. Protein sequencing is part of discovery science.

[C] Incorrect. Make sure you get your answers in the correct order.

[D] Incorrect. Sequencing a protein is discovery science.

[E] CORRECT. Reductionism seeks to reduce complex systems to simpler, more manageable components. Systems biology seeks to understand how all the parts function together.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY:

Question 6

QUESTION: In an ecosystem, nutrients ______ and energy ______.

[A] are created…is lost

[B] disappear…cannot be created nor destroyed

[C] are wasted…is burned

[D] flow through…is recycled

[E] cycle…flows through

Answer 6

[A] Incorrect. In terms of matter (such as nutrients) the Earth is effectively a closed system. Materials are neither created in nor lost from a closed system.

[B] Incorrect. Matter cannot simply disappear; it always has to be accounted for.

[C] Incorrect. Consider what happens to waste from animals in an ecosystem, and what happens to energy in a system such as an ecosystem.

[D] Incorrect. Consider what happens to the energy in sugars produced by producers and what happens to the waste materials, such as carbon dioxide, released by producers.

[E] Nutrients are always recycled. Energy flows through the system, typically entering as solar energy and leaving as heat.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: Consider the characteristics of each of the kingdoms of eukaryotic life.

Question 7

QUESTION: The energy used by most organisms for metabolism and growth ultimately comes from ____.

[A] the sun

[B] carbon dioxide

[C] sugars

[D] decomposition of plants and other organic debris

[E] heat

Answer 7

[A] CORRECT! Energy for most life ultiamtely comes from the light energy of the sun, trapped in the chemical bonds of molecules synthesized by photosynthetic organisms.

[B] Incorrect. Carbon dioxide is a waste product of the oxidation of reduced organic compounds such as sugars, and it is the source of the carbon in the sugar produced by photosynthesis.

[C] Incorrect. Although sugars are oxidized to release energy by many organisms, sugars are built by organisms called producers that rely on a different form of energy.

[D] Incorrect. This process provides nutrients, not chemical energy.

[E] When an energy transformation occurs, there is often a loss of heat energy to the surroundings, but heat is not the ultimate source of energy for most forms of life.

Question 8

QUESTION: Which of the following is the fundamental unit of structure and function in living organisms?

[A] organism

[B] organelle

[C] organ

[D] cell

[E] tissue

Answer 8

[A] Incorrect. An organism consists of one cell (single-celled or unicellular organism) or many cells (multicellular organism). Organisms exhibit the functions of life, but there is a simpler level of biological orgarnization that is life’s fundamental unit of structure and function.

[B] Incorrect. Organelles exhibit some, but not all, of the characteristics of living systems.

[C] Incorrect. An organ consists of two or more tissues, whereas a tissue consists of cells of similar structure and function. Organs exhibit the functions of life, but there is a simpler level of biological organization that is life’s fundamental unit of structure and function.

[D] CORRECT! The cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of both single-celled and multicellular organisms.

[E] Incorrect. A tissue is composed of cells of similar structure and function–for example, nerve cells forming nervous tissue. Tissues exhibit the functions of life, but there is a simpler level of biological organization that is life’s fundamnetal unit of structure and function.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: Consider the lowest level of biological organization that exhibits all the properties of life.

Question 9

QUESTION: What is the molecule that can acocunt for both the unity and the diversity of life?

[A] mutation

[B] lipids

[C] DNA

[D] protein

[E] ribosomes

Answer 9

[A] Incorrect. This is a variation within the common molecule.

[B] Incorrect. Consider which molecule is responsible for the range of different lipids that would be found in a cell.

[C] CORRECT. The uniformity of coding in DNA is virtually universal. Life’s variety arises from variations in the nucleotide sequences of inherited DNA molecules, the substance of genes.

[D] Incorrect. Consider which molecule determines the proteins that you would find in a cell.

[E] Incorrect. Ribosomes are a collection of both RNA and protein molecules, plus you can’t account for the differences between cells and between individuals due to differences in their ribosomes.

TEST TAKING STRATEGY: Think about which molecule must account for the similarities between you and your parents, but also accounts for the differences between you and your parents.

Question 10

QUESTION: How is the information encoded in DNA actually used by organisms?

[A] DNA is translated into protein and then transcribed to RNA.

[B] Proteins are built directly from the information in the DNA.

[C] The information in DNA diffuses throughout the cell.

[D] The information in DNA is transcribed to mRNA and then translated into protein.

[E] DNA leaves the nucleus and interacts directly with other molecules in the cell.

Answer 10

[A] Incorrect. The information in DNA is first transcribed to RNA and then translated into protein.

[B] Incorrect. The information in DNA is first transcribed to RNA and then translated into protein.

[C] Incorrect. The information in DNA is first transcribed to mRNA and then translated into protein.

[D] CORRECT. The information in DNA is first transcribed to RNA and then translated into protein.

[E] Incorrect. DNA remains in the nucleucs (of eukaryotic cells) and only interacts with a few different types of molecules.

HINT: What is the flow of information in the cell?

Question 11

QUESTION: Which of the following domain is prokaryotic?

[A] Eukarya

[B] Archaea

[C] Protista

[D] Fungi

[E] The domain Bacteria, the domain Archaea, and the domain Eukaraya all contain at least some prokaryotic members.

Answer 11

[A] Incorrect. Domain Eukarya contains all eukaryotic organisms (organisms with eukaryotic cells).

[B] CORRECT. Archaea are among the simplest kinds of organisms, the prokaryotes.

[C] Incorrect. Protists are eukaryotic, and Protista is a kingdom, not a domain.

[D] Incorrect. Fungi is a kingdom, not a domain, and it is composed of eukaryotic organisms.

[E] Incorrect. There are no prokaryotes in the domain Eukarya.

HINT: Consider the cellular characteristics of each of the three domains of life.

Question 12

QUESTION: Which kingdom withi the domain Eukarya is composed of organisms that are generally unicellular (single-celled)?

[A] Protista

[B] Archaea

[C] Plantae

[D] Animalia

[E] Fungi

Answer 12

[A] CORRECT. The eukaryotic protists are usually single-celled or unicellular organisms.

[B] Incorrect. Archaea is a domain, not a kingdom, of unicellular prokaryotic organisms.

[C] Incorrect. Plants are multicellular organisms.

[D] Incorrect. Animals are all multicellular organisms.

[E] Incorrect. Althought yeasts are generally unicellular, most fungi are multicellular organisms.

HINT: Consider the cellular characteristics of each of the eukaryotic kingdoms.

Question 13

QUESTION: Eukaryotic organisms that decompose dead organisms and absorb the nutrients are generally found in which kingdom?

[A] Bacteria

[B] Animalia

[C] Plantae

[D] Archaea

[E] Fungi

Answer 13

[A] Incorrect. Bacteria is a domain, not a kingdom. Although many bacteria are decomposers, bacterial cells are prokaryotic, not eukaryotic.

[B] Incorrect. These organisms obtain their food by ingestion; they are not generally decomposers.

[C] Incorrect. These organisms produce their own food by photosynthesis, not by decomposing other organisms.

[D] Incorrect. Archaea is a domain, not a kingdom. Archaea are prokaryotes, not eukaryotes.

[E] CORRECT. These are eukaryotic decomposeres that obtain their nutrients by breaking down dead organisms and organic wastes.

HINT: Consider the metabolic characteristics of each of the eukaryotic kingdoms.

Question 14

QUESTION: Natural selection tends to act at which of the following levels?

[A] kingdom

[B] population

[C] class

[D] species

[E] phylum

Answer 14

[A] Incorrect. A lot of evolutionary change would have to occur before new kingdoms evolved.

[B] CORRECT. Natural selection selects for organisms within a population that are best adapted to their local environment.

[C] Incorrect. Eventually evolution may produce new classes, but natural selection acts at a simpler level.

[D] Incorrect. The members of a given species may be spread over the world in different environments, so the same adaptations would not work for all populations.

[E] Incorrect. Eventually, evolution may produce new phyla, but natural selection acts a simpler level.

HINT: Consider the emergent properties of each of these levels.

Question 15

QUESTION: Which of the following observations and inferences led Charles Darwin to his theory of natural selection as a mechanism for evolution?

[A] Individuals in a population of any species vary in many heritable traits.

[B] Individuals with heritable traits best-suited to the local environment will generally produce a disproportionate number of healthy, fertile offspring.

[C] A population of any species has the potential to produce far more offspring than will survive to produce offspring of their own.

[D] Individuals of a population are unequal in the likelihood of surviving and reproducing.

[E] Darwin synthesized his theory of natural selection from all of the above observations and inferences.

Answer 15

[A] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but there is a better answer.

[B] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but there is a better answer.

[C] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but there is a better answer.

[D] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but there is a better answer.

[E] CORRECT. All of the listed observations and inferences led Charles Darwin to his theory of natural selection as the mechanism for evolution.

HINT: Natural seleciton is an evolutionary process that occurs when a population’s heritable variations are exposed to environmental factors that favor the reproductive success of some individuals over others.

Question 16

QUESTION: With evolution as the core theme of biology, we can explain traits shared by organisms as evidence of ______ and traits that differ among organisms as evidence of ______.

[A] descent from a common ancestor…adaptation through natural selection

[B] coincidence…adaptation

[C] qualitative data…quantitivate data

[D] systems biology…reductionism

[E] descent from a common ancestor…chance

Answer 16

[A] CORRECT. Many shared traits have been derived from common ancestry. The modifications to those shared traits can usually be attributed to adaptive evolution by natural selection.

[B] Incorrect. Most shared traits arise because of descent from a common ancestor. They may also arise because of convergent evoltuion, but coincidence is rarely involved.

[C] Incorrect. Traits can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively, but the type of data does not give an explanation for the observed patterns.

[D] Incorrect. Systems biology and reductionism are ways of approaching biological problems, not explanations of organismal traits.

[E] Incorrect. Although chance does have a place in evolution, different traits are most often a product of natural selection.

HINT: Where do the unity and diversity of life come from?

Question 17

QUESTION: Experimentation is only one part of the process of scientific inquiry, but it is a very important step because it _____.

[A] gives scientists a chance to work in the laboratory

[B] allows rejection of a hypothesis

[C] gives the investigator a systemic, unbiased result

[D] ensures that the variable being tested is measured without error

[E] ensures that hypotheses can be confirmed with certainty

Answer 17

[A] Incorrect. Experimentation is imoprtant because hypotheses can be rejected when contradictory evidence emerges.

[B] CORRECT. Experimentation is important because hypotheses can be rejected when contradictory evidence emerges.

[C] Incorrect. Experimentation is important because hypotheses can be rejected when contradictory evidence emerges. Experimentation cannot “prove” that a hypothesis is correct.

[D] Incorrect. Experimentation is important because hypotheses can be rejected when contradictory evidence emerges. All experiments are subject to error, which is why replication and reproduction of results is so important.

[E] Incorrect. To confirm with certainty is to say the same as “to prove,” and hypotheses cannot be proven.

HINT: Consider the process of scientific inquiry.

Question 18

QUESTION: Radon is a radioactive gas that seeps into homes from the soil. It is thought to be a cause of lung cancer. A research team investigates this theory. They gather large amounts of data on basement radon concentrations and lung canceres rates and conclude that the more radon there is in a home, the more likely that people living in those homes will develop lung cancer. After the study is published, other researchers criticize it by asserting that the studied neighborhoods with higher radon concentrations also have a higher percentage of older people and a higher percentage of cigarette smokers than the low-radon neighborhoods. Both advanced age and cigarette smoking increase the risk of lung cancer. This criticism, if correct, shows that the radno study suffered from _____.

[A] a lack of replication

[B] uncontrolled variables

[C] a small sample size

[D] an unfalsifiable hypothesis

[E] nonsystematic observation and analysis of data

Answer 18

[A] Incorrect. However, any study does need to be replicated before the results can be considered valid.

[B] CORRECT. An important feature of the scientific process is the controlled experiment in which two groups are established and treated exactly alike, except for the one variable the experiment is designed to test.

[C] Incorrect. Although this may have been true, it did not form the basis of the criticism.

[D] Incorrect. The hypothesis is falsifiable.

[E] Incorrect. Observational data were collected systematically and presumably quantitatively analyzed.

HINT: Consider how you would improve the experiment to obtain better results.

Question 19

QUESTION: Which of the following statements is most clearly inductively derived?

[A] Because worms lack bones, they are classified as invertebrates.

[B] If the animals observed require organic molecules as nutrients, then it can be concluded that all animals require organic molecules as nutrients.

[C] If all flying animals are birds, then it can be concluded that bats are birds.

[D] An elephant is warm-blooded because it is a mammal.

[E] A paramecium moves by means of the rhythmic motion of its cilia.

Answer 19

[A] Incorrect. This statement is simply applying a definition to a group of organisms.

[B] CORRECT. Induction moves from a set of specific observations (humans require orgnaic molecules, fish require organic molecules, etc.) to reach a general conclusion (all animals require organic molecules).

[C] Incorrect. Induction moves from a set of specific observations to reach a general conclusion. In this case, a generalization is being applied to a more specific group.

[D] This is a poor attempt to apply a taxonomic classification.

[E] Induction moves from a set of specific observations to reach a general conclusion. This is just one specific observation.

HINT: Consider the process of discovery science and inductive reasoning.

Question 20

QUESTION: Two garden plots were planted with corn. The soil was similar in each, and equal amounts of water were applied to each plot. One plot was fertilized, and other was not. The experimenters measured the yield as bushles of corn from each plot. The plot that idd not receive the fertilizer was the ____.

[A] replicate plot

[B] experimental plot

[C] controlled variable

[D] control plot

[E] dependent variable

Answer 20

[A] Incorrect. There was no replicate plot as there is only the controol plot and the experimental plot. This is a weakness of the experiment.

[B] Incorrect. The experimental plot is the plot that received the experimental treatment or the variable being tested.

[C] Incorrect. In this experiment, the plot is not a variable.

[D] CORRECT. The control refers to the plot that does not receive the experimental treatment or the variable being tested, in this case, fertilizer.

[E] Incorrect. In this experiment, the plot is not a variable.

HINT: Consider the hypothesis-based process of scientific inquiry What are the components of a well-designed experiment?

Question 21

QUESTION: At which point is a scientific investigator most likely to use deductive reasoning?

[A] after the careful analysis of both the qualitative and the quantitative data recorded in the study

[B] during the initial observation(s)

[C] during the formulation of a hypothesis

[D] in establishing a test of a hypothesis

[E] in rephrasing an alternative hypothesis

Answer 21

[A] Incorrect. After data analysis, a new hypothesis may be proposed and then tested.

[B] Incorrect. Initial observations might be a part of discovery science, not deductive reasoning.

[C] Incorrect. The formulation of a hypothesis sets the stage for deductive testing.

[D] CORRECT. In deduction, reasoning flows from the general to the specific. Deductive testing would take the form of “if…then” logic.

[E] Incorrect. Deductive reasoning is a form of logic that would allow you to predict an outcome. When does that happen in the scientific process?

HINT: Consider the process of hypothesis-based scientific inquiry.

Question 22

QUESTION: Which of the following is outside the realm of scientific inquiry?

[A] formulating testable hypotheses in seeking natural causes for natural phenomena

[B] determining the efficacy of a low-carbohydrate diet

[C] explaining naturally occurring events

[D] determining the physical causes for physical phenomena

[E] addressing ethical dilemmas

Answer 22

[A] Incorrect. This is within the realm of science.

[B] Incorrect. This is within the realm of science.

[C] Incorrect. This is within the realm of science.

[D] Incorrect. This is within the realm of science.

[E] CORRECT. Questions of ethics are not amenable to solution by experiments or observations.

HINT: Consider the process of scientific inquiry and the limitations on the kinds of questions that can be answered.

Question 23

QUESTION: A company was testing a new drug it thought would help decrease the risk of transmission of viruses from mother to fetus. In an experiment to test the compound, an investgator gave 400 pregnant female rats a small dose of the experimental drug and inoculated each with a type of virus known to cause disease in rats. At the same time, 400 other pregnant rats were given only the virus. Of the rat pups born to the females that received both the virus and the drug, 203 showed no symptoms of the disease; 205 rat pups born to the virus-only females showed symptoms. From this data, we can best conclude _____.

[A] nothing, because no control group was used in the test of the medication

[B] nothing, because no independent variable could be identified

[C] that the drug seems to have little effect on viral transmission at the dosage given

[D] that the drug is 5% effective and testing on humans should begin

[E] that the drug enhances disease progression

Answer 23

[A] Incorrect. The pregnant rats that were inoculated with the virus and did not receive the new drug represent the control group for the experiment.

[B] Incorrect. There is an independent variable in this experiment, the administration of the drug to only one of the two groups of pregnant rats inoculated with the virus.

[C] CORRECT. Approximately equal numbers of pups were affected in both groups (expeeriment group 400-203 = 197, control group = 205), suggesting that the drug was probably not effective at the dosage given.

[D] Incorrect. It is not that simple to extrapolate from rats to humans. Recalculate the percent effectiveneess of the drug.

[E] Incorrect. No evidence of this was provided. Approximately the same percentage of animals in the control (51%) and experimental (49%) groups produced pups that exhibited the disease.

HINT: Consider the process of hypothesis-based scientific inquiry. How is data analyzed?

Question 24

QUESTION: The best method for determining whether bean plants require sodium is to ______.

[A] look for sodium in leaf tissues using autoradiography

[B] analyze root contents for sodium

[C] grow bean plants with and without sodium

[D] measure how fast radioactive sodium enters the plant

[E] measure the amount of sodium in a few bean plants

Answer 24

[A] Incorrect. The presence of sodiunm in the leaf tissue does not indicate that sodium is a required bean plant nutrient.

[B] Incorrect. The presence of sodium in the root tissue does not indicate that sodium is a required bean plant nutrient.

[C] CORRECT. In hypothesis-based scientific inquiry, the experiment must have an experimental group and a control group. In this case, growing bean plants with sodium would constitiute the experimental group, and growing bean plants without the addition of sodium would constitute the control group.

[D] Incorrect. The movement of sodium into the bean plant tissue does not indicate that sodium is a required nutrient.

[E] Incorrect. The presence of sodium in the plant tissue does not indicate that sodium is a required bean plant nutrient.

HINT: Consider the process of hypothesis-based scientific inquiry that involves the proposing and testing of hypothetical explanation or hypotheses.

Question 25

QUESTION: In experimental procedures, repetition of the procedures _____.

[A] wastes money that can be better spent doing new experiments

[B] is not necessary if the scientist obtains enough background information

[C] should always be done by changing a variable

[D] is too difficult for researchers doing fieldwork

[E] is necessary before concluding that a given set of results is correct

Answer 25

[A] Incorrect. The experiment is not finished unless the results are shown to be repeatable.

[B] Incorrect. Background information does not tell if the tested result will happen everytime.

[C] Incorrect. If a variable is changed, the experiment is not being repeated.

[D] Incorrect. No experimental result is considered correct, regardless of the conditions, if it is not shown to be repeatable.

[E] CORRECT. Repetition of tests is crucial to the process of science. Only when a result is repeatable can it be considered correct.

HINT: Consider the process of scientific inquiry.

Question 26

QUESTION: Should an experiment test only one variable at a time? Why or why not?

[A] No, it is not necessary to test only one variable per experiment, especially when time is of the essence.

[B] As long as the experiment is repeated a sufficient number of times, it doesn’t matter how many variables are used.

[C] Yes, an experiment should only test one variable at a time. That way, the experiment will only have to be performed once.

[D] Yes, an expoeriment should only test one variable at a time. This ensures that the experimental outcome is clearly due to one identifiable factor.

[E] None of the listed responses are correct.

Answer 26

[A] Incorrect. That is why scientific research is so time-consuming. It requires time and infinite care.

[B] Incorrect. It does matter. Repetition of confusion doesn’t eliminate the confusion.

[C] Incorrect. Experimental results must be repeated before they are considered valid.

[D] CORRECT. Treatment of an experimental group should differ from treatment of a control group by only a single variable so that the researcher can determine what causes the observed effect.

[E] Incorrect. One of the other choices listed above are correct.

HINT: Consider the process of hypothesis-based scientific inquiry.

Question 27

QUESTION: A theory is ____.

[A] a well-supported concept that has broad explanatory power

[B] a poorly supported idea that has little backing but might be correct

[C] a concept that, once established in the scientific literature, can be modified but never rejected, even whe new scientific methods produce data that doesn’t fit

[D] not correct unless it is several years old

[E] the same thing as a hypothesis

Answer 27

[A] CORRECT. Theories are comprehensive and become widely accepted if they are supported by a large body of evidence.

[B] Incorrect. Consider how a theory differs from a hypothesis.

[C] Incorrect. Data that might not fit a current theory could be generated due to technological advances. It wouldn’t be wise to stick with an incorrect theory just due to precedent, when new data requires evaluation of the theory’s correctness.

[D] Incorrect. This could be correct if the time allowed the accunmulation of data that supported the hypothesis from which the theory arose. But, this may not be the case.

[E] Incorrect. Then it would be called a hypothesis!

HINT: Consider that there is much work involved in the synthesis of a theory.

Question 28

QUESTION: Which of the following is true when talking about scientific theories?

[A] It is much broader in scope than a hypothesis.

[B] It is supported by a much greater body of evidence.

[C] It is general enough to spin off many new, testable hypothesis.

[D] None of the above are correct whern explaining theories in science.

[E] All the explanations (excluding D) are correct.

Answer 28

[A] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but is it all that a theory in science means?

[B] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but is it all that a theory in science means?

[C] Incorrect. This is a true statement, but is it all that a theory in science means?

[D] Incorrect. Compared to a hypothesis, any of the statements above can describe the meaning of a theory in science.

[E] CORRECT. All of the statements can support an accepted theory in science.

HINT: Remember that a theory is much more than a hypothesis. Our everyday use of the word is different from what it means in science.