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Lab CE Practice Exams > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the serological markers for rheumatic fever?

A

antimyocardial antibodies

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2
Q

What are the serological markers for Wegener’s granulomatosis?

A

antineutrophilic antibodies

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3
Q

What are the serological markers for CREST syndrome?

A

anticentromere antibodies

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4
Q

What are the serological markers for primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

antimitochondrial antibodies

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5
Q

Which culture media is specific for Salmonella typhi?

A

bismuth sulfite

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6
Q

What is the term for amino acids having more than one codon to direct their placement?

A

degeneracy

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7
Q

What is the term for the whole genetic code?

A

genome

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8
Q

What is the term for the formation of amino acids from RNA?

A

translation

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9
Q

What is the term for a short, single-stranded nucleic acid?

A

oligonucleotide

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10
Q

What is the normal BUN range?

A

5-20 mg/dL

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11
Q

What is the normal creatinine range?

A

0.6-1.2 mg/dL

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12
Q

How do the BUN and creatinine levels present in kidney impairment?

A

grossly elevated creatinine accompanied by an elevated BUN

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13
Q

What is the term for fluid accumulation due to malfunction of the body’s ability to form and reabsorb fluid?

A

transudate

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14
Q

What is the term for an excess accumulation of fluid within any of the body’s serous cavities?

A

effusion

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15
Q

What immunodeficiency disorder is actually a group of congenital disorders in which both the humoral and cell-mediated portions of the immune system are dysfunctional?

A

severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of SCID?

A

lymphopenia, hypogammaglobulinemia, small thymus, no tonsils or lymph nodes; patients are vulnerable to recurrent severe infections, retarded growth, and early death

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17
Q

Which immune elements are involved in a positive TB skin test?

A

T-cells and macrophages

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18
Q

Which bacterial genus appears as a Gram+ bacilli with spores (isolated from an aerobic culture)?

A

Bacillus sp.

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19
Q

Which bacterial genus appears as thin, filamentous, branching, poorly-staining Gram+ bacilli that can also be partially acid-fast?

A

Nocardia sp.

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20
Q

Which bacterial genus appears as short, Gram+ bacilli with “picket-fence” or “Chinese lettering” arrangement?

A

Corynebacterium sp.

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21
Q

Which bacterial genus appears as regular, rectangular, non-spore forming Gram+ bacilli with a tendency to form short chains?

A

Lactobacillus sp.

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22
Q

What stain is used to confirm the presence of Heinz bodies?

A

supravital stain (methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue)

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23
Q

What is capillary electrophoresis (CE)?

A

a newer method of highly automated electropheresis in which the separation and migration of the individual solutes occurs inside a capillary tube

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24
Q

What are the two main characteristics of an immunoassay that has high specificity but low sensitivity?

A

identifies the absence of disease, has few false positives

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25
Q

How can Chrysosporium sp. be distinguished from Blastomyces dermatitidis?

A

Chrysosporium is not converted to a yeast at 37*C, and it will not grow on cycloheximide-containing media

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26
Q

How are Chrysosporium and Blastomyces similar?

A

mold form shows small, smooth, oval microconidia, each supported by a conidiophore (“lollipop” appearance)

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27
Q

What characteristics do Sepedonium sp. share with the mold form of Histoplasma capsulatum?

A

production of large, spherical macroconidia, which may have a prickly surface when mature

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28
Q

What characteristic do Malbranchia sp. share with the mold form of Coccidioides immitis?

A

produces alternate-staining arthroconidia

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29
Q

Compare and contrast Scedosporium sp. with Blastomyces dermatitidis.

A

both produce single, oval, microconidia; however, Scedosporium sp. are slightly larger and have a darker pigmentation

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30
Q

Can saprophytic molds grow as molds?

A

no

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31
Q

What is the main limitation of standard PCR that is not present in real-time PCR?

A

inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only

32
Q

What is the effect of dehydration on urea levels?

A

decreases them

33
Q

The gametocytes of which Plasmodium species grows inside a red cell until the cell is destroyed?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

34
Q

What does nephelometry measure?

A

light scatter

35
Q

MacConkey agar without crystal violet is useful in the presumptive ID of what organism?

A

Mycobacterium fortuitum/chelonei

36
Q

What media is used to culture Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

methylene blue-glucose diphasic media

37
Q

What media is used to culture Legionella pneumophila?

A

buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE)

38
Q

What media is used to culture Vibrio parahemolyticus?

A

thiosulfate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS)

39
Q

An increase in unconjugated bilirubin, accompanied by normal serum alkaline phosphate, normal liver enzymes, and no urine bilirubin, would suggest what?

A

increased rate of hemolysis

40
Q

Light grey-white, border to border fungal growth from a clinical specimen is usually suggestive of what?

A

Zygomycete contaminant

41
Q

Which Zygomycete appears under a lactophenol blue mount with non-septate hyphae terminating in large globose phialides with lateral branches giving rise to columella, to which loose clusters of sporangiola are attached?

A

Cunninghamella sp.

42
Q

What kind of infection can Cunninghamella species cause?

A

skin and internal infections in immunosuppressed patients (from disease, chemotherapy, or post-surgery)

43
Q

Sporangiophores with a distinctive backward curve leading to globose sporangia at the tips, and whose sporangiospores commonly stain brown, are characteristic of what organism?

A

Circinella sp.

44
Q

Spherical sporangium at the tip of narrow sporangiophores; distinctive cylindrical arrangement of elongated merosporangia from sporangium surface (“daisy petal”); and tiny sporangiospores aligned in tandem with each merosporangium, are all characteristic of what organism?

A

Syncephalostrum sp.

45
Q

Rheumatoid factor in RA is primarily what class of immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

46
Q

What is the term that describes what the body does to a drug after it is introduced to the body, specifically in terms of absorption, distribution, chemical changes, and excretion?

A

pharmacokinetic

47
Q

What are pharmacodynamics?

A

what a drug does to the body in terms of physiological response

48
Q

Define lookback.

A

procedures that must be followed by a transfusion service when they are told that a previous donor now tests positive for an infectious disease

49
Q

What is the chief biochemical marker of Klebsielleae?

A

Voges-Proskauer

50
Q

What is the chief biochemical marker of Proteeae/

A

phenylalanine deaminase

51
Q

What is the chief biochemical marker of Escherichieae?

A

++– IMViC

52
Q

What does IMViC stand for?

A

indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate

53
Q

What is the chief biochemical marker of Edwardsielleae?

A

hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

54
Q

What are the two main mechanisms of the relationship between cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue?

A

1) inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute; 2) the state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome also contribute to cardiovascular disease

55
Q

Which hemoglobin is increased in delta-beta thalassemia?

A

Hgb F

56
Q

Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity?

A

adiponectin

57
Q

African-American alpha-thalassemia patients most likely have which form of the disease?

A

homozygous minor

58
Q

Agglutination of red cells prior to the addition of antiglobulin reagent has what effect on both the IAT and DAT?

A

can cause false positives

59
Q

What method can distinguish Howell-Jolly bodies from Pappenheimer bodies, and what are the results?

A

Prussian blue stain; Pappenheimer bodies will stain, while Howell-Jolly bodies will not

60
Q

What is the state of bone marrow in alpha- thalassemia?

A

hyperplasia

61
Q

Is an infection from Vibrio vulnificus disseminated or localized?

A

disseminated

62
Q

Is an infection from Staphylococcus aureus disseminated or localized?

A

localized

63
Q

Is an infection from Erysipelothrix musiopathiae disseminated or localized?

A

localized

64
Q

Is an infection from Salmonella typhi disseminated or localized?

A

disseminated

65
Q

How do whole blood glucose levels relate to those of serum?

A

they are lower

66
Q

Electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 can indicate what two things?

A

myocardial infarction, hemolysis

67
Q

What is the animal resevoir for Salmonella enteritidis?

A

poultry

68
Q

What is the animal resevoir for Escherichia blattae?

A

cockroaches

69
Q

What is the animal resevoir for Edwardsiella tarda?

A

reptiles

70
Q

What erroneous effect does cryoglobulin or cryofibrinogen have on an automated platelet count?

A

increases it

71
Q

What erroneous effect do WBC fragments or hemolysis have on an automated platelet count?

A

increases it

72
Q

What erroneous effect does clotting or platelet satellitosis have on an automated platelet count?

A

decreases it

73
Q

What erroneous effect does platelet clumping have on an automated platelet count?

A

decreases it

74
Q

Which lipoprotein transports the majority of cholesterol to cells for steroid hormone synthesis or cell membrane inclusion?

A

LDL

75
Q

True or False: individuals infected with the 2009 influenza A H1N1 virus do not require treatment.

A

true

76
Q

What is the ultimate end product of both epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolism?

A

vanillylmandellic acid (VMA)

77
Q

How does salicylic acid (aspirin) specifically affect platelet function?

A

inhibits cyclooxygenase

Lab CE Practice Exams (10 decks)

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