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Boards Part 1 ?'s > 1-50/254-272 > Flashcards

1-50/254-272 Flashcards

0
Q

Which is not true of stratified squamous epithelium?

a. can be wet
b. can be dry
c. is located in the mouth, cornea and esophagus
d. is located in the anal mucus membrane

A

D. is located in the anal mucus membrane

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1
Q

Where is not a location of stratified cuboidal epithelium?

a. layer of ovaries
b. layer of testes
c. ducts of sweat glands
d. gallbladder

A

D. gallbladder

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2
Q

Which breaks down nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and proteins?

a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. ribosomes
d. golgi bodies

A

B. lysosomes

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3
Q

___________ neurons are the most common type in the human body

a. unipolar
b. bipolar
c. multipolar
d. axillary

A

C. multipolar

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4
Q

Mycetoma is a

a. tumor of the brain
b. tumor of the striated muscle
c. tumor of the smooth muscle
d. fungus ball

A

D. fungus ball

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5
Q

The ________ is about 25 micrometers in length making it the longest.

a. stereocilia
b. cilia
c. flagella
d. microvilli

A

C. flagella

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6
Q

The Islands of Langerhans are cells in the ________ and ________.

a. pancreas, regulate sugar metabolism
b. liver, make insulin
c. liver, regulate sugar metabolism
d. gallbladder, regulate sugar metabolism

A

A. pancreas, regulate sugar metabolism

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7
Q

Which is not a location of simple cuboidal epithelium?

a. Bowman’s capsule of kidney
b. ducts of glands
c. surface of ovaries
d. thyroid

A

A. Bowman’s capsule of kidney

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8
Q

A biceps curl would be an example of a(n) ______ contraction.

a. eccentric
b. concentric
c. isometric
d. isotonic

A

B. Concentric

*Eccentric and concentric contractions are types of isotonic contractions. However, choice (b) is the most correct and specific answer

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9
Q

Which muscle moves the mandible from side to side?

a. temporalis
b. masseter
c. medial pterygoid
d. frontalis

A

C. medial pterygoid

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10
Q

The SCM is innervated by cranial nerve _________.

a. IV
b. VII
c. XI
d. IX

A

C. XI

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11
Q

Lamboidal suture also known as the _______ and the ________ suture is located between the frontal and parietal bones.

a. coronal suture, coronal
b. occipital suture, coronal
c. squamous suture, sagittal
d. sagittal suture, occipital

A

B. occipital suture, coronal

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12
Q

The humeroulnar joint is characterized as a ________ type.

a. pivot
b. gliding
c. hinge
d. saddle

A

C. hinge

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13
Q

Costa is an anatomical term meaning

a. space
b. bone
c. rib
d. long

A

C. rib

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14
Q

The long thoracic nerve innervates the _______; damage to this nerve will cause scapula winging

a. trapezius
b. latissimus dorsi
c. serratus anterior
d. rhomboid major

A

C. serratus anterior

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15
Q

Which is not found on the scapula?

a. scapular notch
b. acromion
c. coracoid process
d. conoid tubercle

A

D. conoid tubercle

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16
Q

Which is not located on the clavicle?

a. costal tuberosity
b. conoid tubercle
c. coracoid process
d. sternal extremity

A

C. coracoid process

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17
Q

The olecranon can be found on the

a. radius
b. humerus
c. ulna
d. capitulum

A

C. ulna

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18
Q

The ulna does not have a(n)

a. coronoid process
b. olecranon
c. nutrient foramina
d. intertubercular sulcus

A

D. intertubercular sulcus

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19
Q

The scaphoid is found directly distal to the ________, which is wider near the ________.

a. radius, wrist
b. radius, elbow
c. ulnar, wrist
d. ulnar, elbow

A

A. radius, wrist

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20
Q

The main storage form of glucose in animas is

a. starch
b. glycogen
c. lipids
d. proteins

A

B. glycogen

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21
Q

All of the following processes increase blood sugar levels except:

a. glycogenolysis
b. glycogenesis
c. gluconeogenesis
d. glucogenesis

A

B. glycogenesis

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22
Q

All of the following are considered low energy compounds except:

a. NADH
b. AMP
c. ADP
d. NADP

A

a. NADH

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23
Q

The breakdown of glycogen is called _______.

a. glycogenolysis
b. glyconeogenesis
c. glycogenesis
d. glycolysis

A

A. glycogenolysis

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24
Q

Glucose plus fructose makes which of the following disaccharides?

a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. isomaltose

A

A. sucrose

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25
Q

The protein portion of an enzyme is called ________.

a. apoprotein
b. holoenzyme
c. coenzyme A
d. cofactor

A

A. apoprotein

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26
Q

Without vitamin ________ collagen will not form in the body.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E

A

c. C

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27
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein?

a. albumin
b. immunoglobulin
c. gamma globulin
d. T lymphocyte

A

A. albumin

28
Q

Glucose-1-phosphate plus ________ gives glucose-6-phosphate.

a. debranching enzyme
b. glycogen phosphorylase
c. phosphoglucomutase
d. pyruvate

A

C. phosphoglucomutase

29
Q

The coenzyme of pantothenic acid (B5) is

a. FAD
b. NADP
c. Coenzyme A
d. FMN

A

c. Coenzyme A

30
Q

Beriberi is associated with a ________ deficiency

a. riboflavin
b. thiamine
c. niacin
d. pantothenic acid

A

B. thiamine

31
Q

All of the following are associated with a folic acid deficiency except:

a. cheilosis
b. megaloblastic anemia
c. tropical sprue
d. lack of conversion of serine to glycine

A

A. cheilosis

32
Q

How many ATP are yielded in the aerobic form of glycolysis?

a. 36
b. 32
c. 24
d. 2

A

a. 36

33
Q

Gluconeogenesis _______ blood sugar; this process takes ________ ATP.

a. lowers, 36
b. lowers, 4
c. raises, 6
d. raises, 2

A

C. raises, 6

34
Q

Which of the following lowers blood sugar levels?

a. insulin
b. cortisol
c. glucagon
d. flavin ring

A

A. insulin

35
Q

Phosphorylation first occurs in step _______ of glycolysis.

a. 1
b. 4
c. 10
d. 8

A

a. 1

36
Q

Which is the phosphate donor in steps 1 and 3?

a. NAD
b. ATP
c. DNA
d. RNA

A

b. ATP

37
Q

Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to fructose 6-phosphate by use of the enzyme ______ in the process of _______.

a. phosphoglucoisomerase, oxidation
b. enolase, oxidation
c. phosphoglucoisomerase, glycolysis
d. enolase, glycolysis

A

C. phosphoglucoisomerase, glycolysis

38
Q

__________ is the enzyme used in the last step of glycolysis.

a. enolase
b. pyruvate kinase
c. hexokinase
d. aldolase

A

B. pyruvate kinase

39
Q

The aerobic form of glycolysis produces ______ molecules of ATP and the anaerobic form produces _______ molecules of ATP.

a. 2, 2
b. 32, 5
c. 6, 24
d. 36, 2

A

D. 36, 2

40
Q

A total of 4 ADP molecules in steps 7 and 10 of glycolysis are converted to 4 ______ molecules.

a. cAMP
b. NADH
c. NAD
d. ATP

A

d. ATP

41
Q

Two pyruvate molecules are formed in the process of glycolysis. What enzyme is responsible for the 10th step of this process?

a. pyruvate kinase
b. phosphoglycerate kinase
c. PFK-1
d. hexokinase

A

A. pyruvate kinase

42
Q

In glycolysis, a _______ carbon molecule of glucose is split into _______ molecules of pyruvic acid.

a. 5, 3
b. 10, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 6, 2

A

d. 6, 2

43
Q

2-Phosphoglycerate is converted to phosphoenolpyruvate by the help of the enzyme _______ in this ______ stage of glycolysis.

a. phosphoglycerate mutase, 5th
b. enolase, 9th
c. pyruvate kinase, 10th
d. enolase, 6th

A

B. enolase, 9th

44
Q

The breakdown of glycogen is called _______.

a. glycogenolysis
b. glycolysis
c. oxidation
d. gluconeogensis

A

A. glycogenolysis

45
Q

Which of the following will lower blood sugar levels?

a. glycogenolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
c. glycolysis
d. glucogenesis

A

C. glycolysis

46
Q

Who discovered penicillin?

a. Salk
b. Sabin
c. Flemming
d. Semmelweis

A

c. Flemming

47
Q

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by which of the following organisms?

a. S. aureus
b. S. pyogenes
c. S viridans
d. S. agalactiae

A

C. S. viridans

48
Q

All of the following are true of endotoxins except:

a. are released by gram negative organisms
b. are released when the cell ceases to live
c. are composed of lipopolysaccharides
d. are released usually by gram positive organisms

A

D. are released usually by gram positive organisms

49
Q

Which causes urinary tract infections in 17 year old girls?

a. S. epidermidis
b. S. saprophyticus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus viridans

A

B. S. saprophyticus

50
Q

The most posterior chamber of the heart is the _________

a) left ventricle
b) right ventricle
c) left atrium
d) right atrium

A

c) left atrium

51
Q

The calcaneus is the insertion for all the following except:

a) plantaris
b) soleus
c) gastrocnemius
d) peroneus longus

A

d) peroneus longus

52
Q

The lateral border of the cubital fossa is the ____________

a) pronator teres
b) humerus
c) ulna
d) brachioradialis

A

d) brachioradialis

53
Q

All of the following are innervated by the obturator nerve except:

a) adductor magnus
b) adductor brevis
c) gracilis
d) iliacus

A

d) iliacus

54
Q

The common hepatic artery supplies blood to all the following except:

a) liver
b) esophagus
c) stomach
d) greater omentum

A

b) esophagus

55
Q

The arch of the aorta branches into all the following except:

a) left common carotid
b) right subclavian
c) left subclavian
d) brachiocephalic trunk

A

b) right subclavian

56
Q

The brachiocephalic trunk branches into the right common carotid artery and the ________ artery

a) right coronary
b) superior mesenteric
c) right subclavian
d) left axillary

A

c) right subclavian

57
Q

The right and left vertebral arteries unite to form the ______ artery

a) left subclavian
b) right subclavian
c) basilar
d) axillary

A

c) basilar

58
Q

The right femoral artery directly branches into the _______ artery

a) right anterior tibial
b) right popliteal
c) right peroneal
d) right dorsalis pedis

A

b) right popliteal

59
Q

The navel is approx. at the level of ______

a) T8
b) T10
c) T12
d) L1

A

b) T10

60
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea is caused by

a) C. botulinum
b) C. tetani
c) E. coli
d) hepatitis B

A

c) E. coli

61
Q

Mononucleosis and Burkitt’s lymphoma are caused by

a) papovirus
b) Epstein-Barr virus
c) adenovirus
d) C. tetani

A

b) Epstein-Barr virus

62
Q

Hepatitis C is most often caused by

a) blood transfusion
b) airborne droplets
c) parasites
d) fecal-oral transmission

A

a) blood transfusion

63
Q

Hepatitis A is transmitted by

a) blood transfusion
b) airborne droplets
c) parasites
d) fecal-oral transmission

A

d) fecal-oral transmission

64
Q

Gastroenteritis is caused by which of the following organisms?

a) clostridium difficile
b) clostridium perfringes
c) rhinovirus
d) papovirus

A

a) clostridium difficile

65
Q

Koplik spots are found in

a) measles
b) rabies
c) mumps
d) african hemorrhagic fever

A

a) measles

66
Q

Legionella is an organism most commonly occurring in

a) air conditioning ducts
b) chicken
c) red meat
d) sand

A

a) air conditioning ducts

67
Q

San Joaquin Valley Fever is called

a) blastomycosis
b) histoplasmosis
c) coccidiocomycosis
d) chromoblastomycoses

A

c) coccidiodomycosis

68
Q

Coccidiodomycosis is found in the ____ of the ____ U.S.

a) street, NE
b) water, NE
c) sand, SW
d) cacti, S

A

c) sand, SW

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