05 Investment Companies Flashcards

1
Q

Sector funds concentrate on particular industries. In which of the following sector funds would an investor be especially interested if she anticipated an economic downturn/recession?

A. Restaurants
B. Automotive
C. Communications
D. Pharmaceuticals

A

D. Pharmaceuticals

Rationale:
In a downturn, buy “defensive stocks” in companies that produce products and deliver services that consumers consume even during a downturn. Pharmaceuticals,
food, clothing, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Open- and closed-end funds share all of the following characteristics except:

A. Charge management fees
B. Maybenon-diversified
C. Traded among investors
D. Dearly stated investment objectives

A

C. Traded among investors

Rationale:
Open-end funds are redeemed; only the closed-end fund is traded among investors on the secondary market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Preventing an investor from achieving a discount on quantity purchases is:

A. A violation called “rescission”
B. A violation called “breakpoint selling”
C. A violation called “selling away”
D. A violation called “backing away”

A

B. A violation called “breakpoint selling”

Rationale:
Never prevent an investor from getting a lower sales charge, aviolation called “breakpoint selling.” Selling away is a violation in which the sales representative is selling securities not sponsored by the employing firm. Backing away has to do with refusing to honor a firm quote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The main advantage of reinvesting dividend distributions in a mutual fund is:

A. Purchasing new shares without a front-end load
B. Diversification
C. Tax deferral
D. Anticipating market movements

A

A. Purchasing new shares without a front-end load

Rationale:
Even if the fund charges a front-end load (A shares), that load is avoided on reinvestments. Also, the test wants you to know that reinvesting dividends and/or capital gains distributions has NO EFFECT whatsoever on a person’s tax situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following statements are true of open-end mutual funds except:

A. Covered by FDIC insurance
B. Must redeem shares within 7 days
C. Do not trade on the secondary market
D. Do not have to maintain diversified portfolios

A

A. Covered by FDIC insurance

Rationale:
Bank deposits are FDIC insured, but securities are not bank deposits. There is no requirement that all funds must be diversified—the requirement is that if the fund advertises as being diversified, it has to meet the 75/5/10 rule’s criteria for making such a claim. Fund shares are redeemed/sold back to the issuer, not traded among investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following are non- redeemable investment company products?

A. Closed-end funds
B. Face-amount certificates
C. Unit investment trusts
D. Open-end funds

A

A. Closed-end funds

Rationale:
The closed end fund is the only investment company product that has to be traded either on an exchange or OTC. The other three types are redeemable, which is the opposite of tradable. You either trade your closed end-fund shares, or you redeem the UlT’s, mutual funds, and face-amount certificates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The NAV (net asset value) of an open-end corporate bond fund has increased dramatically. The most likely reason is that:

A. Interest rates have risen
B. Investors have bought substantially more shares
C. Yields have dropped
D. Bond prices have fallen

A

C. Yields have dropped

Rationale:
Remember that buying and selling shares has no effect on NAV, ever. Also remember that the NAV is the price/value of the bonds in the portfolio. So, for the NAV to increase bond prices need to increase, which happens when rates go down, not up. Rates/yields go one way; price always goes the other. The NAV of a bond fund IS the price of the bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Net Asset Value of an open- end bond fund would not be affected if:

A. The fund pays a dividend distribution
B. Redemptions increase dramatically
C. Securities held in the portfolio decrease in value
D. Interest rates rise sharply

A

B. Redemptions increase dramatically

Rationale:
Remember that redemptions and share purchases have no effect on NAV. Remember that If the fund pays OUT money, not all of it will be reinvested by shareholders. NAV is just the assets of the fund (cash, securities) versus the liabilities. Cash goes out and doesn’t come back… that definitely drives down the NAV. Less cash. Cash is an asset, and suddenly there isn’t as much of that asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following investments would be expected to have the lowest volatility?

A. Long-term government bond fund
B. Mid cap fund
C. Money market fund
D. Small cap fund

A

C. Money market fund

Rationale:
Small cap funds or aggressive growth funds have bigger price fluctuations than other funds, and stock funds are more volatile than bond funds. Anyway, you really didn't even have to determine whether stock or bond funds have
higher betas (volatility) for this one, because money market
shares maintain a stable value of $1.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following investments would be expected to have the highest volatility?

A. Small cap growth fund
B. Tax-exempt money market fund
C. Large cap value fund
D. Mid cap growth fund

A

A. Small cap growth fund

Rationale:
For “high beta” or “volatile” look for small cap stocks over mid- and large- cap. Then, if it comes down to a tie between growth and value, tell the exam that the growth fund would be more volatile. So, a large cap value fund would be considered less volatile than a large cap growth fund, should the exam really want to see you sweat. Growth is considered more volatile than value. It’s more expensive and propped up by more speculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning 12 b-1 fees?

A. May not be charged by any “no load” company
B. May be used to cover management fees
C. Annual fees charged quarterly
D. Associated with A-shares only

A

C. Annual fees charged quarterly

Rationale:
12 b-1 fees cover the same distribution costs (selling, printing, mailing, advertising) that sales loads/charges cover, but they are not called “sales loads” or “sales charges.” No load funds usually DO charge 12 b-1 fees; they just have to keep the fee no greater than .25% (25 basis points) of average net assets. Otherwise, they have to drop the “no load” from their marketing/advertising/selling literature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Advantages of closed-end funds over open-end funds would not include the fact that:

A

Rationale:
Closed-end funds trade exactly like shares of common stock, because, that’s what they are—common stock. They trade on exchanges and OTC, so they can be shorted, and
their price is purely up to supply and demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Open-end funds typically do not engage in which of the following?

A. Selling an unlimited number of shares to investors
B. Selling portfolio securities short
C. Selling shares to an unlimited number of investors
D. Closing off purchases to new investors

A

B. Selling portfolio securities short

Rationale:
Margin and short selling go together, because one can not sell short unless one is in a margin account. Mutual funds cant trade on margin or short securities. That’s for “hedge funds,” which are not on the test. Yet. Note that a fund can close itself off to new investors if it has more money than it
knows what to do with, but that doesn make it a “closed-end fund.” Closed end funds are designed to be “closed end” from the get-go.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

XYZ Aggressive Growth Fund reports net income of $1,000,000 and distributes $980,000 directly to investors. Therefore, the fund will be taxed on what amount?

A. $20,000
B. $1,000,000
C. As stipulated in the prospectus
D. $1,200,000

A

A. $20,000

Rationale:
The fund has to send out at LEAST 90% ($900K in this example) to qualify as a “Regulated Investment Company” under “Internal Revenue Code Subchapter M.” If the fund sends out at least 90% to the investors, the fund only pays tax on the remaining 10%. If they send out more than 90%, they have less left to pay taxes on. But if the fund fails to distribute 90%, they would pay tax on ALL of it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following are potential advantages of investing in
open-end funds compared to investing in stocks and bonds directly except:

A. Professional management
B. Simplified tax reporting
C. Leverage
D. Diversification

A

C. Leverage

Rationale:
Open-end funds don’t use leverage, and mutual fund
shares are not purchased on margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mutual funds must report to shareholders:

A. Monthly
B. Semi-annually
C. Daily
D. Quarterly

A

B. Semi-annually

Rationale:
Twice a year, semi-annually, and the annual report must be audited. Download a semi-annual report to increase your understanding of open-end funds and many other testable points, too.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mutual funds must redeem shares:

A. Within 5 business days
B. As stipulated in the prospectus
C. Within 7 days
D. Immediately, on demand

A

C. Within 7 days

Rationale:
And it’s 7 calendar days, not 7 business days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A mutual fund that always invests in both stocks and
bonds is called:

A. A balanced fund
B. A blend fund
C. A mixed fund
D. A diversified fund

A

A. A balanced fund

Rationale:
Memorize it—the “balance” is between stocks and bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following investors may be combined for the purpose of receiving a quantity discount?

A. Investment clubs
B. Mother and 33-year-old daughter
C Three college friends investing in separate accounts
D. Father and 7-year-old son

A

D. Father and 7-year-old son

Rationale:
The other three are not eligible for breakpoints. Minor children in a custodial arrangement (UGMA), yes, but not a parent and adult child, and never an investment club. If the three friends were in a joint account, that would be different.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TRY Fund has a NAV of $10.00 and a POP of $9.50. XLZ Fund has a NAV of $9.00 and a POP of $9.50. Which of the following are true statements?

I. TRY is an open end fund
II. TRY is a closed end fund
III. XLZ could be an open end fund
IV. XLZ could be a closed end fund

A. I, IV
B. II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV

A

D. II, III, IV

Rationale:
If you ever see a fund, like TRY, trading below the NAV,
that has to be a closed-end fund. Open end/mutual funds are never bought below their NAV. XLZ could be an open- end fund ,or a closed-end fund that’s trading at a premium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

One of your investing clients has $100,000 to invest in the ABC Equity Income Fund. The fund offers A, B, and C shares. Which share class would be most suitable for the investor, if her expected holding period is 10 years?

A. The C shares, because of the low 12b-1 fees
B. The A shares, because of the breakpoints and lower operating expenses
C. The B shares, because of the usual 12b-1 fee waiver offered
D. The A shares, because of the high 12b-1 fees associated

A

B. The A shares, because of the breakpoints and lower operating expenses

Rationale:
A-shares offer breakpoints starting usually at $50,000. They also charge lower annual operating expenses, often 75 basis points lower than the expenses charged on B- and C-shares. B- and C-shares have high 12b-1 fees, which is what takes their operating expenses up much higher than those charged to the owners of A-shares. B- shares are suitable for investors with a small amount to invest. C-shares are suitable for shorter-term investors. If the investor has a decent amount to invest and a long anticipated holding period, put him into the A-shares and save yourself a lot of aggravation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum sales charge allowed over the life of a contractual plan operating under the Act of 1940?

A. 50%
B. 20%
C. 8.50%
D. 9%

A

D. 9%

Rationale:
Under 1940, they take 50% the first year. Under 1970, they take 20% the first year. But over the life of the plan (often 20 years), the maximum has to drop down to 9%. 8.5% for mutual funds; 9% for contractual plans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Your client’s objective is maximum current income but she is not comfortable with excessive risk. Therefore, you
would most likely recommend:

A. Investment-grade corporate bond funds
B. Open end funds
C. High-yield bond funds
D. Money market funds

A

A. Investment-grade corporate bond funds

Rationale:

Corporate bonds are good for “maximum current income.” If she were comfortable with risk, you might recommend “high-yield” or “junk” bonds. But she isn’t, so now we’re down to money market and investment-grade bond funds. Maximum current income from a money market fund? More like MINIMUM current income, right?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Your client’s goal is to accumulate money for retirement. She has a good job and no debt beyond a modest mortgage payment. She is not risk-averse. Which of the following funds would you least likely recommend?

A. Aggressive Growth Fund
B. Money Market Fund
C. Science and Technology Fund
D. Overseas Opportunities Fund

A

B. Money Market Fund

Rationale:
You don’t get growth in a money market fund. If you’re real lucky you’ll match the rate of inflation, less management fees. So, you would LEAST likely recommend a money market fund to THIS client, right? Dont make the mistake of thinking that since “money market” sounds safe, that’s what the test wants you to recommend to all clients. You have to make suitable recommendations based on each individual’s needs. Some need safety, others growth, some a little of both, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Jill originally invested $9,000 into the VanWhitman Value
Fund. She has since reinvested dividend distributions of $1,000 and capital gains distributions of $500. If Jill currently holds 1,000 shares of the fund, her cost basis is:

A. Indeterminable
B. $11.50 per share plus commissions
C. $10.00 per share plus sales charges
D. $10.50 per share

A

D. $10.50 per share

Rationale:
All the $ going into her investment has been taxed, so it’s all part of her cost basis of $10,500.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An omitting prospectus for a mutual fund containing performance data must include a legend disclosing which of the following?

I. The performance data quoted represents past performance
II. Past performance does not guarantee future results
lll. The investment return and principal value of an investment will fluctuate so that an investor’s shares, when redeemed, may be worth more or less than their original cost
IV. The fund has less than a .03% chance of finishing in the top 3.0% of its peer group.

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III only
C. I only
D. I, II only

A

B. I, II, III only

Rationale:
Eliminate the answer choice that predicts future results –never, ever, ever. The other warnings/caveats need to be included in a mutual fund advertisement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following investment companies is not considered a management company?

A. Non-diversified fund
B. Open-end fund
C. Unit investment trust
D. Closed-endfund

A

C. Unit investment trust

Rationale:
The “management company” is one of the three types of “investment company,” and it includes both open-end and closed-end funds. The other two types of “investment company” are the face-amount certificate company, and the UIT (unit investment trust).

28
Q

All of the following information is typically found in a mutual fund prospectus except:

A. List of all portfolio holdings
B. Investment policies
C. Dividend and capital gains distribution policy
D. Investment objectives

A

A. List of all portfolio holdings

Rationale:
The portfolio is traded frequently, so a list of all the holdings would be useless a few weeks or months into the future. A list of holdings would be found in the semi-annual and annual reports to shareholders.

29
Q

All of the following represent mutual fund operating expenses except:

A. Management fees
B. Sales charge
C. Custodial services
D. Board of director salaries

A

B. Sales charge

Rationale:
The sales charge is an expense to the investor, deducted from his check. The expenses of a mutual fund, paid out of gross investment income and deducted from fund assets, include board salaries, management fee, custodian bank, transfer agent, 12b-1 fee.

30
Q

Which of the following types of mutual funds probably requires that the investor be able to withstand the largest amount of price volatility?

A. Equity income fund
B. Short-term US Treasury fund
C. Growth fund
D. Long-term corporate bond fund

A

C. Growth fund

Rationale:
Growth funds are extremely volatile. Over a 10-year period it’s not uncommon to see 40% total return one year but 30% drops in another year. The equity income funds smooth out the bumps with the consistent dividend income received from dividend paying stocks in the portfolio.

31
Q

To which of the following investors would a registered
representative most likely recommend an aggressive growth fund?

A. Investor with a short time horizon
B. 47-year-old investor whose insurance needs are adequately met and who participates in a defined benefit pension plan
C. 45-year-old investor with a 16-year- old daughter hoping to attend private college
D. 45-year-old investor whose primary objective is income and secondary objective is growth

A

B. 47-year-old investor whose insurance needs are adequately met and who participates in a defined benefit pension plan

Rationale:
Growth investing involves long time horizons-the investor cant need to touch the money invested any time soon. If the investor’s objective is income, donl put him into a growth fund. Period.

32
Q

An investor is convinced that the asset allocation of his portfolio is underweighted toward equities, even though he plans to retire in two years. He would like to increase the equity allocation but has only $3,000 to invest. Which of the following best addresses suitability in this example?

A. C-shares of a conservative equity income fund might be suitable
B. ETFs would not be suitable, due to the high management fees
C. An investor should never invest in equities—even a small percentage—for a period of less than 10 years
D. Treasury bonds are the most suitable investment for the entire portfolio

A

A. C-shares of a conservative equity income fund might be suitable

Rationale:
C-shares charge high 12b-1 fees and, therefore, high operating expenses. They are only suitable for short-term investments up to approximately $500,000. With an amount larger than that, the A-shares would work out better, since the front-end load would be reduced through breakpoints. ETFs typically have low management fees, not high ones. T-bonds and equities do not go together, of course.

33
Q

An investor purchasing an emerging market equity mutual fund is least exposed to which of the following risks?

A. Business
B. Currency exchange
C. Political
D. Liquidity

A

D. Liquidity

Rationale:
Mutual funds offer liquidity—the investor can redeem/sell her shares for the fair value (Net Asset Value) any day the markets are open. Emerging markets present all kinds of political and business risk, and the currency exchange risk is inherent when investing overseas, even in developed markets like Japan and Singapore.

34
Q

Which of the following represents a true statement concerning a customer redemption order for a mutual fund investment?

A. Customers receive the public offering price as next computed by the fund
B. Customers receive the Net Asset Value as last determined by the fund
C. Customers receive the Net Asset Value as next computed by the fund, minus any back-end sales charges and/or redemption fees
D. Customers receive the Asked price as next computed by the fund

A

C. Customers receive the Net Asset Value as next computed by the fund, minus any back-end sales charges and/or redemption fees

Rationale:
Customers pay the public offering price (POP) and receive the (net asset value) NAV as next determined by the fund when redeeming their shares.

35
Q

Which of the following represents a true statement concerning a customer redemption order for a mutual fund investment?

A. Customers receive the public offering price as next computed by the fund.
B. Customers receive the Net Asset Value as last determined by the fund.
C. Customers receive the Net Asset Value as next computed by the fund, minus any back-end sales charges and/or redemption fees.
D. Customers receive the Asked price as next computed by the fund.

A

C. Customers receive the Net Asset Value as next computed by the fund, minus any back-end sales charges and/or redemption fees.

Rationale:
Customers pay the public offering price (POP) and
receive the (net asset value) NAV as next determined by the fund when redeeming their shares.

36
Q

Which of the following reflect(s) advantages of mutual fund investing compared to investing in common stock directly?

I. Professional portfolio management
II. 12b-1 fees
III. Redemption fees
IV. Simplified tax reporting

A. I
B. I, IV
C. II, III
D. II

A

B. I, IV

Rationale:
Redemption fees are not an advantage. Not that they’re a big deal, either, but certainly not an advantage. In fact, how could any fee could be an advantage to the investor?

37
Q

If an investor were reading a prospectus profiling all of the mutual funds offered within a mutual fund complex, she would expect to see which of the following categorized as having the highest price volatility?

A. Balanced
B. Growth & income
C. Growth
D. Value

A

C. Growth

Rationale:
Growth investing is highly speculative. When the stock market interprets bits of news on a growth company, it tends to over-react both on the upside and the downside. A balanced fund is part bonds and part stock; bonds reduce the volatility of the portfolio.

38
Q

One of ABC’s equity funds focuses on investing in the stocks of companies with long track records suffering temporary setbacks. This fund is a(an)

A. Growth fund
B. Specialty fund
C. Sector fund
D. Value fund

A

D. Value fund

Rationale:
Value funds buy “value stocks,” which are stocks currently out-of-favor with investors, trading at low P/E and price-to-book ratios.

39
Q

All of the following represent operating expenses to a mutual fund except:

A. Sales charges
B. Management fees
C. Legal and accounting services
D. 12b1 asset-based distribution fees

A

A. Sales charges

Rationale:
The sales charge is not an ongoing deduction from the fund’s assets-it is taken out of an investor’s check either when she buys A-shares or sells B-shares.

40
Q

Open- and Closed-end funds share all of the following characteristics except:

A. Trade on the secondary market
B. May be diversified
C. Clearly stated investment objectives
D. May invest in debt securities

A

A. Trade on the secondary market

Rationale:
Open-end funds (Fidelity, Vanguard, etc.) are redeemed,
not traded on the secondary market.

41
Q

All of the following are associated with money market mutual funds except:

A. Sales charges
B. Operating expenses
C. Stable value
D. Commercial paper

A

A. Sales charges

Rationale:
If you had to pay a sales charge, you would be almost guaranteed to get a negative return on a money market mutual fund. In fact, that’s pretty much what’s going to happen, anyway, because there are still operating expenses including 12b-1 and management fees. But no sales charges.

42
Q

An investment in which of the following equity mutual funds generally requires the highest risk tolerance?

A. Mid-cap value
B. Large-cap value
C. Small cap growth
D. Large-cap growth

A

C. Small cap growth

Rationale:
Small cap is the riskiest. If you had to choose between small cap growth and small cap value, small cap growth is more volatile/risky.

43
Q

All of the following represent advantages to mutual fund investing except:

A. Diversification can be achieved with a small minimum investment
B. Your investment is FDIC insured
C. Your investment is managed by a professional investment adviser
D. Transfer agent provides safekeeping of securities

A

B. Your investment is FDIC insured

Rationale:
The first page of a prospectus always warns investors that their mutual fund investment is not a bank product and not insured by FDIC or anybody else.

44
Q

All of the following statements are true of open-end mutual funds except:

A. Must redeem shares within 7 days
B. May not close off purchases to new investors unless assets under management exceed $10 billion
C. Do not trade on the secondary market
D. May impose both a sales charge and a 12b1 asset-based distribution fee

A

B. May not close off purchases to new investors unless assets under management exceed $10 billion

Rationale:
Mutual funds often close off purchases to new investors at some point. If the fund gets too big, it’s too hard to effectively manage.

45
Q

What is true of a mutual fund’s responsibilities when reporting total return figures?

A. All returns shown must be net of all expenses and fees
B. All returns shown must be after-tax
C. The fund may exclude any one of five years when reporting 10-year total return figures
D. The fund must be clear if figures shown include expenses and fees

A

D. The fund must be clear if figures shown include expenses and fees

Rationale:
The prospectus is clear about whether the performance figures cited include expenses or sales charges.

46
Q

The ABC Mutual Fund Family has launched a US Treasury fund. The investment policies stipulate that 100% of fund assets are invested in securities guaranteed by the US Treasury. Therefore, this fund may be described in sales literature in which of the following ways?

A. Your investment is guaranteed against significant loss
B. Your investment in the fund is not a direct obligation of the United States Treasury
C. Your investment in the fund is guaranteed by the United States Treasury
D. Your investment is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation up to $100,000

A

B. Your investment in the fund is not a direct obligation of the United States Treasury

Rationale:
The securities owned by the ortfolio may be guaranteed by
the US Treasury, but the fund itself is not guaranteed.

47
Q

All of the following statements are true of mutual funds except:

A. Must register with the SEC
B. May not close off purchases to new investors
C. Do not trade on the secondary market
D. Do not have to maintain diversified portfolios

A

B. May not close off purchases to new investors

Rationale:
Mutual funds frequently close off to new investors.

48
Q

Which of the following types of fixed income mutual funds is probably least susceptible to interest-rate risk?

A. Long-term US Treasury fund
B. Intermediate-term tax-exempt fund
C. Short-term investment-grade fund
D. Intermediate-term high-yield fund

A

C. Short-term investment-grade fund

Rationale:
Short-term bonds typically offer lower yields, but they are also less susceptible to interest rate spikes.

49
Q

Which of the following types of mutual funds is probably least susceptible to purchasing power risk?

A. Long-term high-yield
B. Small cap growth
C. Intermediate-term US Treasury
D. Money market

A

B. Small cap growth

Rationale:
Associate stock with “inflation protection.” The investment is volatile, but over the long-term stocks tend to do well versus inflation.

50
Q

Which of the following mutual fund portfolios would likely be the most aggressive?

A. Large cap value fund
B. Emerging market fund
C. High-yield bond fund
D. Intermediate-term high-yield bond fund

A

B. Emerging market fund

Rationale:
Stocks are more aggressive than bonds, and emerging markets are by definition aggressive, risky places to invest.

51
Q

Many investors seek to avoid volatility. An investor seeking to minimize price volatility would least likely purchase:

A. Balanced funds
B. Short-term corporate bond funds
C. Equity Income funds
D. Growth funds

A

D. Growth funds

Rationale:
Growth funds are volatile

52
Q

All of the following statements concerning contingent deferred sales charges are correct except:

A. Associated with B shares
B. Charges decline gradually and typically are eliminated within 6 - 8 years
C. Such charges are synonymous with redemption fees that revert to the fund’s portfolio
D. A confirmation for a fund that assesses a contingent deferred sales charge must disclose that a charge may be assessed upon redemption, even if the same disclosure is made in the prospectus.

A

C. Such charges are synonymous with redemption fees that revert to the fund’s portfolio

Rationale:
Redemption fees do not go to the sales people.

53
Q

If an investor were reading a prospectus profiling all of the mutual funds offered within a mutual fund complex, she would expect to see which of the following categorized as having the lowest price volatility?

A. Equity income
B. Growth & income
C. Balanced
D. Growth

A

C. Balanced

Rationale:
A balanced fund has a significant percentage of bonds, which are inherently less volatile than stocks.

54
Q

The Johnson Aggressive Growth Fund had a NAV of $10 at the beginning of the year, ending the year at $9. The fund distributed $.50 in dividends and $1.00 in capital gains. Therefore, the total return was:

A. -25%
B. -10%
C. 25%
D. 5%

A

D. 5%

Rationale:
The share price dropped a dollar, which was canceled out by the capital gains distribution. The dividend of 50 cents, divided by the beginning NAV of $10 = 5% total return.

55
Q

All of the following represent the functions of a mutual fund’s investment adviser except:

A. Deciding which securities to purchase
B. Establishing investment policy
C. Performing economic/portfolio analysis
D. Deciding when to purchase particular securities

A

B. Establishing investment policy

Rationale:
The board of directors establishes policies. The adviser trades the portfolio and adheres to the policies of the board.

56
Q

All of the following represent the functions of a mutual fund’s board of directors except:

A. Managing the portfolio
B. Overseeing the investment adviser
C. Overseeing the custodian and transfer agent
D. Establishing investment policy

A

A. Managing the portfolio

Rationale:
The investment adviser or portfolio manager” manages the portfolio.

57
Q

Which of the following represent(s) accurate statements concerning systematic withdrawal plans from mutual funds?

A. A fixed share withdrawal plan pays out a varying amount of money to the investor
B. A fixed percentage withdrawal plan involves liquidating varying numbers of shares
C. All choices listed
D. Investors should not make further investments into the fund when a systematic withdrawal plan is in place

A

C. All choices listed

Rationale:
If you’re making systematic withdrawals, it’s time to stop
putting money in. For one, you dont want to trigger wash sale rules by purchasing a security
that was just sold at a loss.

58
Q

Joe E. Investor plans to automatically invest $185 per month. If he wants to participate in the equity markets broadly, he should purchase:

A. An exchange-traded fund tracking the S&P 500
B. An actively managed closed-end preferred stock fund
C. A specialized fund
D. An open-end index fund tracking the S&P 500

A

D. An open-end index fund tracking the S&P 500

Rationale:
The specialized fund would not, by definition, cover a broad spectrum. Both ETFs and open-end index funds track the broad market, but the ETFs are only cost-efficient in large doses, since investors pay commissions. Open-end index funds generally are no-load. In feet, if you can’t find an index fund without a load, keep looking.

59
Q

Which of the following is an accurate statement of closed- end investment companies?

A. They are classified as unit investment trusts
B. They may not be referred to as “mutual funds” as they have no board of directors
C. They routinely use more leverage than open-end funds
D. They may issue only common stock

A

C. They routinely use more leverage than open-end funds

Rationale:
The closed-end fund is, like the open-end fund, a management company, as opposed to a UI T or face-amount certificate company. They can use leverage by issuing preferred shares and even bonds.

60
Q

An increase in which of the following would likely increase the expense ratio of a particular mutual fund?

A. NAV
B. Net assets under management
C. Management fee
D. Shareholder purchases

A

C. Management fee

Rationale:
The only expense listed here is the management fee. The expense ratio includes: management (investment advisory) fee, 12b-1 fee, legal and accounting, custodial, board of directors, etc.

61
Q

An accurate statement of breakpoints within mutual funds is that:

A. Shares of the ABC Growth Fund purchased through one broker-dealer may not be combined with shares of that fund purchased through another firm
B. Appreciation of previously purchased shares has no effect on future breakpoints
C. Shares of the ABC Income Fund may be combined for purposes of a breakpoint with shares of the fund purchased through anotherbroker-dealer
D. If previously purchased shares have depreciated, the fund family uses the current market value of the shares to determine a breakpoint on a new purchase

A

C. Shares of the ABC Income Fund may be combined for purposes of a breakpoint with shares of the fund purchased through anotherbroker-dealer

Rationale:
Mutual fund investors can “aggregate their accounts’* so that the ABC Income Fund shares purchased in all sorts of different accounts are combined to calculate a breakpoint. If you buy S10,000 of a fund, and the value drops to, say, $2,000, any breakpoints on future purchases would be based on the $10,000. If the shares had gone up like they were supposed to, the higher market value would be used to calculate a breakpoint.

62
Q

Securities that are issued at a discount from their face value include all of the following except:

A. Banker’s acceptances
B. United States Treasury bill
C. Commercial paper
D. Unit investment trusts

A

D. Unit investment trusts

Rationale:
UIT’s are not debt securities – They are investment companies. You buy them for their current unit value and may redeem them to the trustee for whatever they’re worth at that point.

63
Q

Tommy Tutone is calling it quits concerning the recording career and has elected to commence a withdrawal plan from his mutual fund investment. Tommy would like to receive $2,500 per month. Which of the following statements is accurate?

A. This is known as a fixed-share plan
B. Mr. Tutone is free to continue contributions into the account
C. This is known as a fixed-dollar plan
D. This is known as a fixed percentage plan

A

C. This is known as a fixed-dollar plan

Rationale:
If you want to start liquidating shares automatically, stop investing into the account. The only thing fixed here is the dollar amount… fixed-dollar plan. How long will the shares last? Nobody knows. If you want to receive relatively equal amounts over a fixed time period, choose “fixed- time” as your withdrawal plan.

64
Q

A management fee is charged on all the following investments except a (an):

A. Unit investment trust
B. Open-end fund
C. Closed-end fund
D. Exchange-traded fund

A

A. Unit investment trust

Rationale:
Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) have low management fees, but not zero management fees. UlTs are non-managed … so it would be rude to charge a fee for work they don’t actually perform.

65
Q

Electing to take advantage of Internal Revenue Code Subchapter M’s “conduit theory,” a mutual fund distributes 92% of net investment income to shareholders. Therefore, the amount distributed is:

A. Taxable to the fund, as it exceeds 90%
B. Taxable to shareholders and not the fund
C. Taxable to shareholders and the fund at ordinary income rates
D. Taxable to neither shareholders nor the fund

A

B. Taxable to shareholders and not the fund

Rationale:
If the fund distributes 90% or more, it only pays tax on the remainder.

66
Q

All of the following statements concerning a “fund of hedge funds” are false except:

A. The number of underlying hedge funds is limited to 9
B. Diversification is not an advantage
C. A fund of hedge funds is considered less aggressive than most fixed- income fund investments
D. The fund may not charge any fees in addition to the fees charged by the underylying hedge funds

A

B. Diversification is not an advantage

Rationale:
Tough question to read, and the exam will use “all of the following are false except” against you here and there. The fund of hedge funds does not have to use any particular number of hedge funds, and if they couldn’t charge fees, why would they put together a mutual fund?

67
Q

A packaged product has a net asset value of $10 and a public offering price of $10.03. Therefore:

A. The product must be a unit investment trust
B. The product must be an open-end fund
C. The product could be a closed-end or open-end fund
D. The product must be a closed-end fund

A

C. The product could be a closed-end or open-end fund

Rationale:
Some closed-end funds trade at a premium to their NAV, and all open-end funds trade for at least their NAV.