03 - Testing in Sports Performance Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Sports performance testing?

A

A systematic approach to problem-solving that provides the sports performance professional with a basis for making educated decisions about exercise and acute variable selection.

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2
Q

How should assessments be scheduled?

A

In a systematic way, routine and on a schedule

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3
Q

What do assessments help to provide?

A

Assessments allow continuous monitoring of an athlete’s needs, functional capabilities, and physiological effects of exercise, enabling the athlete to reach peak performance.

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4
Q

What should assessments not do?

A

Diagnosis any condition - always refer out.

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5
Q

What information is provided by a sports performance assessment?

A

A fundamental representation of an athlete’s goals, needs and status can be created through the sports performance assessment.

  • Medical history
  • Movement
  • Cardiorespiratory fitness
  • Strength
  • Power
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6
Q

How important are quality assessment?

A

The quality of the assessment is the basis for the quality of the program! The more information a sports performance professional knows about an athlete, the more individualized the program.

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7
Q

Which athletes should be cleared before training?

A

Any athlete with suspected medical conditions, scholastic or professionals. The physician should provide documentation stating the athlete is cleared for activity and provide information on any medical concern which the sports performance professional should be aware of prior to the onset of physical activity.

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8
Q

What type of information should the medical history provide?

A

Medical history is crucial as it provides information about any life-threatening chronic diseases (such as coronary heart disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, etc.), and information about the structure and function of the athlete by uncovering important information like past injuries, surgeries, imbalances, and chronic conditions.

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9
Q

What is subjective information during the assessment?

A

general and medical history

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10
Q

What is objective information during the assessment?

A

physiological, postural and performance assessments

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11
Q

Where do you check for a radial pulse?

A

under the wrist by the thumb on the radial artery

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12
Q

Where do you check for a carotid pulse?

A

On the neck to the side of the larynx (wind pipe).

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13
Q

What is subjective vs objective information?

A

subjective information = information referred to the trainer by the client

objective information = quantifiable information gathered by the trainer from the client

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14
Q

How should assessments be picked by client?

A

Based on the specificity and demands of their sport.

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15
Q

Assessments should be based on what sport specific criteria?

A
  • Metabolic specificity of the sport and position being played.
  • Mechanical specificity of the sport and position being played.
  • Training status of the athlete.
  • Experience and age of the athlete.
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16
Q

What are some Physiological assessments?

A

athlete’s resting heart rate (RHR), blood pressure, body fat, and circumferences

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17
Q

What are some Physiological assessments?

A

athlete’s resting heart rate (RHR), blood pressure, body fat, and circumferences

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18
Q

What is a healthy blood pressure reading?

A

systolic <= 120 and diastolic <= 80

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19
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

The pressure of the heart pumping

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20
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

minimum pressure in the arteries.

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21
Q

Not taking a body fat measurement at the correction location would result in what level of error?

A

up to 25%

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22
Q

What type of fat is measured with body fat calipers?

A

subcataneous fat (fat beneath the skin)

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23
Q

What variables should be kept the same when using body fat calipers?

A

using the same calipers, same location, same time of day, pre-workout

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24
Q

What body fat measurement formula is recommended by NASM?

A

Durnin formula (aka: Durnin/Womersley)

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25
Q

Why is the Durnin formula recommended by NASM?

A

Because it only requires four locations.

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26
Q

Where are the four locations used by the Durnin formula?

A
  1. Biceps: A vertical fold on the front of the right arm over the biceps muscle, halfway between the shoulder and the elbow
  2. Triceps: A vertical fold on the back of the upper arm, with the arm relaxed and held freely at the This skinfold should also be taken halfway between the shoulder and the elbow The midpoint is best found with the arm flexed. Once the site is found, the athlete lets the extended arm hang while the sports performance professional keeps fingers on the site. This one is easy to measure improperly; it must be on the posterior aspect and halfway down the arm. For practice, one can take this measurement an inch medial, lateral, proximal and distal of the correct site and notice the differences. To ensure just the fat is measured and not the underlying triceps, the athlete should gently extend their elbow against a resistance (like the professional’s leg) while the professional holds the skinfold. Any muscle in the skinfold will pop right out from the fingertips.
  3. Subscapular: A 45-degree angle fold of 1–2 cm, below the inferior angle of the scapula If there is trouble finding the landmark, the athlete should touch the center of the back with the right The scapula will “wing” out easily showing the inferior angle. The angle can be located manually and then the athlete will return the arm to their side before the measurement is taken.
  4. Iliac crest: A 45-degree angle fold, taken just above the iliac crest at the anterior axillary line.
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27
Q

How should the body fat calipers be used for taking measurements?

A

Pinching a 1” section of skin\fat. Take three readings and take the average of the three in millimeters. The averages of all 4 sites are used to find the body fat percentage.

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28
Q

Formula for determining the amount of fat mass?

A

scale weight * body fat % = fat mass

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29
Q

Formula for determining the amount of lean body mass?

A

scale weight - fat mass = lean body mass

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30
Q

Formula for determining the amount of lean body mass?

A

scale weight - fat mass = lean body masshat is

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31
Q

What is the most consideration for circumference measurements?

A

Consistency

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32
Q

Where are the 7 sites located for body circumference measurements?

A
  1. Neck is measured level with the Adam’s apple
  2. Chest is measured across the nipple line
  3. Waist is measured at the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the iliac If there is no apparent narrowing of the waist, measure at the naval
  4. Hip measurements are taken at the widest portion of the buttocks
  5. Thigh is measured 10 inches above the top of the patella
  6. Calves are measured at the maximal calf circumference between the ankle and the knee
  7. Biceps are measured at the maximal circumference of the biceps; measure with arm extended, palm facing forward
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33
Q

What is the order of assessments?

A

general, medical history, physiological, postural (static, transitional and dynamic) and performance assessments

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34
Q

What happens with a deviation to correct static posture?

A

the center of gravity changes which impacts functional and movement efficiency

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35
Q

What is Posture?

A

The independent and interdependent align- ment (static posture) and function (transitional and dynamic posture) of all components of the human movement system at any given moment.

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36
Q

What is Structural efficiency?

A

The alignment of the musculoskeletal system, which allows the center of gravity to be maintained over a base of support.

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37
Q

what is Functional efficiency?

A

The ability of the neuromuscular system to monitor and manipulate movement during functional tasks, using the least amount of energy, and creating the least amount of stress of the kinetic chain.

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38
Q

What is Functional strength?

A

The ability of the neuromuscular system to contract eccentrically, isometrically, and concentrically in all three planes of motion.

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39
Q

What is the optimum length (length-tension in a muscle)?

A

Where the maximum number of myosin and actin cross bridges can be made. Not overly stretched or contracted.

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40
Q

What views are used for the static posture assessment?

A

posterior and lateral.

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41
Q

What are the five kinetic checkpoints?

A

feet, knees, hips (LPHC), shoulders and head

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42
Q

What are the general movement patterns for dynamic posture assessments?

A

squatting, pushing, pulling, and balancing

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43
Q

What does the overhead squat assessment check for?

A

This assessment is designed to measure dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control.

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44
Q

What are the main causes of knee valgus during the overhead squat?

A

influenced by decreased hip abductor and hip external rotation strength, increased hip adductor activity, and restricted ankle dorsiflexion.

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45
Q

What type of shoes should be worn for the overhead squat assessment?

A

none, to better view the foot and ankle complex.

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46
Q

Overhead squat: feet turn out compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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47
Q

Overhead squat: knee valgus compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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48
Q

Overhead squat: knee varus compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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49
Q

Overhead squat: excessive forward lean compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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50
Q

Overhead squat: low back arches compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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51
Q

Overhead squat: low back rounds compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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52
Q

Overhead squat: arms fall forward compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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53
Q

Overhead squat: foot flattens compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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54
Q

Overhead squat: heel of foot rises compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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55
Q

Overhead squat: asymmetrical weight shift compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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56
Q

What does the single leg assessment test for?

A

dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control

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57
Q

What are the main causes of knee valgus during the single leg squat?

A

decreased hip abductor and hip external rotation strength,
increased hip adductor activity, and restricted ankle dorsiflexion

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58
Q

What compensations are viewed from the anterior with the single leg squat?

A
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59
Q

Single leg squat: knee valgus compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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60
Q

Single leg squat: hip hike compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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61
Q

Single leg squat: hip drop compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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62
Q

Single leg squat: inward trunk rotation compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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63
Q

Single leg squat: outward trunk rotation compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
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64
Q

What does the pushing assessment test for?

A

assesses movement efficiency and potential muscle imbalances during pushing movements.

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65
Q

Pushing assessment: low back arches compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
66
Q

Pushing assessment: shoulders elevate compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
67
Q

Pushing assessment: head migrates forward compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
68
Q

What does the pulling assessment test for?

A

To assess movement efficiency and potential muscle imbalances during pulling movements.

69
Q

Pulling assessment: low back arches compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
70
Q

Pulling assessment: shoulders elevate compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
71
Q

Pulling assessment: head migrates forward compensation. What are the over and under active muscles?

A
72
Q

Landing assessment: how tall of a platform is used?

A

12”

73
Q

Landing assessment: how far forward does the athlete jump? How is this marked?

A

1/2 of the athletes height with a piece of tape on the ground.

74
Q

What type of assessment is the landing test?

A

dynamic postural

75
Q

What do athletic assessments test?

A

assess an athlete’s overall athletic performance

76
Q

What fitness realms should athletic assessments test for?

A

assessments should measure stability, strength, power, speed, agility, quickness, and conditioning

77
Q

When and how often should testing be performed?

A

During the first assessment and then periodically to check for progress. The athlete should be rested. The timing of testing will vary by age, gender, sport, training, and competitive cycles and are best determined by personal experience.

78
Q

What does the double-leg lowering test assess?

A

assess neuromuscular control and strength of the core

79
Q

How is the double-leg lowering test performed?

A

Client is planed supine on a table. Blood pressure cuff is inflated to 40mm to place under the lumbar spine (L4&5) with the legs at full extension raised to 90 (or whatever level) until there is no pelvic tilt. The legs are then lowered until the pressure raises and the result is scored.

80
Q

What does the Sorensen erector spinae test assess?

A

measures neuromuscular control and endurance of the spinal extensors

81
Q

How is the Sorensen erector spinae test performed?

A

Position:
1. The individual lies prone on a treatment
2. The adjustable arm of a goniometer is aligned with the lateral side of the torso while the stationary arm is aligned with the femur (Figure 3.63).

Testing:
1. The individual is instructed to extend at the lumbar spine to 30 degrees and hold the position for as long as possible while the clinician times the test (Figure 3.64).
2. A normal test is 30

82
Q

What does the single leg STAR balance excursion test assess?

A

measures dynamic balance and neuromuscular efficiency of the testing leg and also establishes objective range of motion measurements during closed chain functional movements.

83
Q

How is the single leg STAR balance excursion test performed?

A

Position:

  1. The individual is instructed to stand on the testing
  2. They are instructed to squat down as far as they can control with the knee aligned in a neutral position (balance threshold)

Movement:
1. They are then to reach with their opposite leg in the sagittal, frontal and then the transverse The sports performance professional assesses which plane of motion the athlete has the least amount of control (Figure 3.66).
2. The sports performance professional can also measure from the first toe of the test leg to the heel of the reaching leg.
3. A goniometer can be used to measure closed chain range of motion at the ankle, knee, hip, and lumbar spine. This can be compared to the other planes of motion to assess any differences.

84
Q

What does the test assess?

A

measures upper extremity agility and stabilization.46 This assessment may not be suitable for athletes who lack shoulder stability.

85
Q

How is the test performed?

A

Position:

  1. Two pieces of tape should be placed on the floor, 36 inches apart.
  2. Athlete assumes a push-up position, with one hand on each piece of tape (Figure 3.67).

Movement:

  1. The athlete is instructed to quickly move their right hand to touch the left hand (Figure 3.68).
  2. The athlete will alternate touching on each side for 15 seconds.
  3. The number of lines touched by both hands is recorded in Figure 3.69.
  4. Three trials are repeated and recorded.
  5. This is reassessed in the future to measure improvement of number of touches.
86
Q

What specific resistance exercises should be used for strength assessments?

A

any resistance exercise.

87
Q

What exercise is best used for upper body extremity strength?

A

bench press

88
Q

What exercise is best used for lower body extremity strength?

A

squat

89
Q

What does the bench press test assess (max strength)?

A

assessment is designed to estimate the one-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of the pressing musculature. This test can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press.

90
Q

How is the bench press test performed (max strength)?

A
  1. A light resistance that can be easily performed in 8–10 repetitions is used for a warm-up.
    a. A 1 minute rest is given to the
    b. Then 10–20 pounds are added (or 5–10% of initial load) and performed for 3–5 repetitions.
    c. A 2 minute rest is
    d. Steps 4 and 5 are repeated until the individual fails at 3–5
    e. The 1 repetition maximum (1RM) estimation chart in the appendix is then utilized to calculate 1RM.
91
Q

How is the bench press test performed (muscular endurance)?

A
  1. The athlete performs 10 push-ups, then takes a 60-second
  2. Next, the athlete performs 5 repetitions at 135 lbs (60 kg) of the bench
    a. Note: Two spotters should be used for each One spotter gives the athlete a lift off, counts the number of reps, and makes sure that each repetition is fully locked out at the top. The other spotter watches to make sure that the athlete’s hips stay in contact with the bench (no arching).
  3. A 90-second rest is
  4. Finally, the athlete should perform the bench press using 185 lbs for the maximum number of repetitions.
92
Q

What does the bench press test assess (muscular endurance)?

A

This is a test of maximum strength and repetition (strength) endurance. Each athlete is given one attempt at completing a maximum number of repetitions with 185 lbs.

93
Q

What does the squat test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to estimate the one-repetition squat maximum and overall lower body strength. This test can also be used to determine training intensities for the squat.

94
Q

How is the squat test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:
1. Feet should be shoulder width apart pointed straight ahead with knees in line with the toes. The low back should be in a neutral position (Figure 3.71).

Movement:
1. The athlete will warm up with a light resistance that can be easily performed for 8–10 repetitions.
2. A 1 minute rest is given to the
3. 30–40 pounds (or 10–20% of initial load) are added and performed for 3–5 repetitions.
4. A 2 minute rest period is given to the
5. Steps 4 and 5 are repeated until the individual fails at 3–5
6. The 1RM estimation chart in the appendix is referenced to calculate

95
Q

What does the pullup test assess?

A

This test measures muscular endurance of the upper body, primarily the pulling muscles.

96
Q

How is the pullup test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:
1. Athlete grasps the bar with palms facing forward.

Movement:
1. The athlete performs the pull-up to
2. The total number of repetitions without compensating with body swings, kicking, or creating momentum is recorded.
3. The athlete should be able to perform more pull-ups when

97
Q

What does the pushup test assess?

A

This test measures muscular endurance of the upper body, primarily the pushing muscles.

98
Q

How is the pushup test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:

  1. In push-up position (ankles, knees, hips, shoulders, and head in a straight line), the athlete lowers body to around 4 inches from the ground (about the size of a closed fist), presses up, and repeats for 60 seconds or exhaustion without compensating (arches low back, extends cervical spine).
  2. The number of actual touches reported from the partner is
  3. The athlete should be able to perform more push-ups when
99
Q

What does the power clean test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to estimate the one-rep maximum on total body power. This test can also be used to determine training intensities of the Olympic lifts.

100
Q

How is the test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:
1. The athlete is positioned in the starting position for a power clean exercise (described in the resistance training chapter).

Movement:
1. The athlete warms up with a light resistance that can be easily performed 8–10 repetitions.
2. The athlete is provided a 1-minute rest.
3. 30–40 pounds (or 10–20% of initial load) are added and performed for 3–5 repetitions.
4. The athlete is given a 2-minute rest
5. 30–40 pounds (or 10–20% of initial load) are added and attempted for a 1RM.
1. Successful attempt
1. The athlete is given a 2–4 minute rest.
2. The athlete repeats Step 6.
2. Unsuccessful attempt
1. The athlete is given a 2–4 minute rest.
2. The weight is decreased by 15–20 pounds or 5–10% and a 1RM is attempted.
3. The athlete repeats Step 6 until the 1RM is determined. This assessment should be completed within 3–5 1RM attempts even if the 1RM was not determined.

101
Q

What does the Rotation Medicine Ball Throw test assess?

A

This assessment measures total body transverse plane strength and power.

102
Q

How is the Rotation Medicine Ball Throw test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:

  1. Athlete begins perpendicular to the throwing-zone holding the ball with both hands.

Movement:
1. The athlete rotates through the hips (similar to a batter’s swing) and throws the ball forward as far as possible (Figure 3.74).
2. Right and left are compared.

103
Q

What does the Overhead Medicine Ball Throw test assess?

A

This assessment measures total body strength and power.

104
Q

How is the Overhead Medicine Ball Throw test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:

  1. A medicine ball that does not exceed 5% of the athlete’s body weight is used and the movement begins with medicine ball in hands with arms straight.

Movement:
1. The ball is thrown explosively for maximal distance (Figure 75) with varied foot positions at shoulders’ width, and staggered via alternate feet leading right, then left.
2. The sports performance professional will measure the relative distance from starting line to point of first contact of the medicine ball.

105
Q

What does the Standing Soccer Throw test assess?

A

This assessment measures total power of the core and upper extremities.

106
Q

How is the Standing Soccer Throw test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:

  1. The athlete starts with feet staggered and holding a medicine ball (5–10% of body weight).

Movement:
1. Using proper soccer throw-in technique, the athlete brings the arms over the head and throws the medicine ball forward as far as possible without moving the feet (Figure 3.76).
2. The distance thrown is measured.

107
Q

What does the Double Leg Vertical Jump test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure total body bilateral power.

108
Q

How is the Double Leg Vertical Jump test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:
1. Equipment required:
2. Measure standing reach of the athlete with one arm fully extended upward.

Movement:
1. The athlete will jump and touch the highest possible vane (Figure 77).
2. The height difference between the standing reach and jumping height is measured.
3. Two attempts are If on the second attempt, the athlete reaches a new height, a third attempt is awarded.
4. No shuffle step, no side step, no drop step and no gather step (Straight down and straight up).

109
Q

What does the Single-leg Vertical Hop test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure unilateral power and dynamic stabilization capabilities.

110
Q

How is the Single-leg Vertical Hop test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:
1. Equipment required:
2. The standing reach of the athlete with one arm fully extended upward is measured.

Movement:
1. The athlete will balance on one leg.
2. Using the balance leg, the athlete will jump and touch the highest possible vane (Figure 3.78).
3. The height difference between the standing reach and jumping height is measured.
4. Two attempts are If on the second attempt the athlete reaches a new height, a third attempt was awarded.
5. No shuffle step, no side step, no drop step, and no gather step should be allowed. (Straight down and straight up).

111
Q

What does the Double-leg Horizontal Jump (Long Jump) test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure total body bilateral power in a more dynamic fashion by jumping for distance rather than height. It can also be performed in the frontal and transverse planes.

112
Q

How is the Double-leg Horizontal Jump (Long Jump) test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:

  1. A tape measure is extended along a non-skid surface and a start line is marked with athletic tape.

Movement:
1. Athletes will jump forward as far as possible (Figure 79).
2. The sports performance professional will record relative distance from the edge of the starting line (edge closest to landing point) to the athlete’s heel, or closest body part.
3. If the athlete falls backward, the distance from the body part nearest the starting line is recorded.

113
Q

What does the Single-leg Horizontal (Long Jump on Single Leg) test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure unilateral power and dynamic stabilization capabilities in a more dynamic fashion by jumping for distance rather than height. It can also be performed in the frontal and transverse planes.

114
Q

How is the Single-leg Horizontal (Long Jump on Single Leg) test performed?

A

Procedure:
Position:

  1. A tape measure is extended along a non-skid surface and a start line is made with athletic tape.

Movement:
1. The athlete will jump forward as far as possible with one leg and land on that same leg (Figure 3.80).
2. The relative distance from the edge of the starting line (edge closest to landing point) to the athlete’s heel, or closest body part is measured.
3. If the athlete falls backwards, the distance from the body part nearest the starting line is recorded.

115
Q

What does the Shark Skill test assess?

A

This is designed to assess lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control. (It should be viewed as a progression from the Single-leg squat and, as such, may not be suitable for all individuals.)

116
Q

How is the Shark Skill test performed?

A

*Procedure:
Position:
1. The athlete is positioned in the center box of a grid, with hands on hips and standing on one leg.

Movement:
1. The athlete is instructed to hop to each box in a designated pattern, always returning to the center box. Be consistent with the patterns (Figure 3.81).
2. One practice run through with each foot in all the boxes is permitted.
3. Each test is performed twice with each foot (4 times total). Keep track of time.
4. All times are (Table 3.10).
5. 10 seconds are added for each of the following faults:
1. Non-hopping leg touches ground
2. Hands come off hips
3. Foot goes into wrong square
4. Foot does not return to center square

117
Q

What does the 10 Yard Sprint test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure reaction capabilities and acceleration speed.

118
Q

How is the 10 Yard Sprint test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Timers stand at the finish line (10 yards from the starting mark).
2. Athlete sprints to the 10-yard mark.
3. The timer is started on first movement and stopped once the athlete hits the 10-yard mark (Figure 3.82).

119
Q

What does the 20 Yard Sprint test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure reaction capabilities and acceleration speed.

120
Q

How is the 20 Yard Sprint test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Timers stand at the finish line (20 yards from the starting mark).
2. Athlete sprints to the 20-yard mark.
3. The timer is started on first movement and stopped once the athlete hits the 20-yard mark (Figure 3.82).

121
Q

What does the 30 Yard Sprint test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure reaction capabilities and maximal speed.

122
Q

How is the 30 Yard Sprint test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Timers stand at the finish line (30 yards from the starting mark).
2. Athlete sprints to the 30-yard
3. The timer is started on first movement and stopped once the athlete hits the 30-yard mark (Figure 3.82).

123
Q

What does the 30 Yard Sprint: measured 0-10 yards (acceleration speed), 10-30 yards (maximal speed) test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measures acceleration and maximal speed.

124
Q

How is the 30 Yard Sprint: measured 0-10 yards (acceleration speed), 10-30 yards (maximal speed) test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. A timers stands at the 10-yard mark and the 30-yard mark.
2. Both timers begin time on first movement. The first timer stops once the athlete hits the 10-yard mark (acceleration time) and the second timer stops when the athlete hits the 30-yard mark (maximal speed) (Figure 3.83).
3. Valid times are best obtained using electronic timing.

125
Q

What does the 40 Yard Sprint test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure reaction capabilities and maximal speed.

126
Q

How is the 40 Yard Sprint test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Timers stand at the finish line.
2. Athlete sprints to the 40-yard mark.
3. The timer is started on first movement and stopped once the athlete hits the 40-yard mark (Figure 3.84).

127
Q

What does the Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT) test assess?

A

This drill is designed to measure lateral speed and agility.

128
Q

How is the Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT) test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Two cones are spaced 10 yards apart. Athlete begins behind the first cone and follows the following sequence (Figure 3.85):
1. Forward sprint to Cone 2, touch cone.
2. Backpedal to Cone 1, touch cone.
3. Side shuffle to Cone 2, touch cone.
4. Side shuffle to Cone 1, touch cone.
5. Carioca to Cone 2, touch cone.
6. Carioca to Cone 1, touch cone.
7. Forward sprint to Cone 2.

  1. The timer stands at Cone The timer begins on first movement, and ends when athlete crosses imaginary line between timer and Cone 2.
129
Q

What does the 5-10-5 test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure lateral speed and agility.

130
Q

How is the 5-10-5 test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. The test begins with three cones, placing two cones 10 m apart. The final cone is placed at the midpoint.
2. The timer faces the middle cone (cone #1) with the athlete in a rested position facing the timer.
3. The timer begins on the athlete’s first movement as they sprint to cone #2, then to cone #3, then to cone #1 (Figure 3.86).

131
Q

What does the 5-0-5 Test for Horizontal Agility test assess?

A

This assessment is designed to measure horizontal speed and agility.

132
Q

How is the 5-0-5 Test for Horizontal Agility test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Athletes begin run as diagrammed at the start/finish point (Figure 87).
2. Athletes sprint forward passing through the start-stop gate, starting the clock.
3. At the turning point, athletes perform a cutting maneuver off the right or left leg (determined prior to repetition).
4. Athletes sprint back through the gates stopping the clock.
5. Athletes should continue sprint through the start/finish point.

Note: Athletes should be instructed before testing regarding the following:

  1. Which foot to cut off of prior to beginning each test trial.
  2. To sprint maximally from the start through to the turning point.
  3. Sprint all the way through the start/finish point.
133
Q

What does the 7x30 Meter Sprint Test test assess?

A

This test is designed to measure maximal anaerobic power and repeated sprint ability

134
Q

How is the 7x30 Meter Sprint Test test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Athlete performs seven total sprints of 30 m.
2. As diagrammed (Figure 3.88), the athlete begins at the start point and follows the course to complete the sprint at the finish point, decelerating through the final set of markers at 40 Following each subsequent sprint, the athlete receives 25 seconds of active recovery, during which they return to the start position to repeat the sprint task.
3. The following times are calculated, with the greatest interest being placed in the “fatigue time.”
4. A variation on this test is run along a straight course or a course with both a right and left turn where the athlete must react to a signal during the run dictating running direction.
1. Fastest Time: representative of the fastest sprint time.
2. Total Time: representative of the athlete’s total sprint duration.
3. Mean Time: average sprint time over the seven trials.
4. Fatigue Time: calculated as the percentage difference between the fastest time (usually the first or second sprint) and the slowest time (usually the sixth or seventh sprint).

135
Q

What does the Three-Quarters Court Sprint - Basketball (Baseline to farthest free throw line) test assess?

A

This test measures speed and acceleration over the distance of three-quarters of the court.

136
Q

How is the Three-Quarters Court Sprint - Basketball (Baseline to farthest free throw line) test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Equipment used: Gym floor and cones.
2. The athlete starts in a two-point stance with front foot behind the edge of the baseline.
3. Timing begins on the first movement of the athlete.
4. The athlete sprints from the baseline to the opposite free throw line (Figure 89).
5. The athlete is provided two attempts with one false
6. Four coaches time each attempt with the high and the low being thrown out and the two middle times being averaged as the official time.

137
Q

What does the Pro Lane Agility Drill - Basketball test assess?

A

The Lane Agility Test measures how fast an athlete moves laterally around the key.

138
Q

How is the Pro Lane Agility Drill - Basketball test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Pro basketball lane: measured 16’ wide × 19’ baseline to foul line.
2. Cones are placed on each of the four corners of the lane.
3. The athlete starts in the lower left-hand corner of the The lower left of the lane is actually the foul line facing toward the baseline.
4. Start the drill by:
1. Sprinting toward the top of the lane.
2. Go around the cone in a right defensive slide to the edge of the lane and around the cone.
3. Backpedal to the foul line and around the cone.
4. Perform a defensive slide to the left and touch the floor with the left foot even with the cone at the starting position.
5. Change direction by having the athlete perform a right defensive slide around the cone.
6. Sprint to the top of the lane.
7. Perform a defensive slide to the left around the cone.
8. Then backpedal past the original starting position (Figure 90).

139
Q

What does the T-Drill test assess?

A

This test measures agility, reaction capabilities and speed in multiple planes.

140
Q

How is the T-Drill test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Four cones are positioned in a The leg of the T is 10 yards in length and the cross piece of the T is 10 yards.
2. The test starts at the base of the leg of the On the word “go,” the athlete sprints the 10 yards to the cone in the middle of the cross piece, shuffles to the cone on the right, then covers the 10 yards to the far cone on the left using carioca, side shuffles back to the middle cone, then backpedals back to the starting cone (Figure 3.91).
3. This is repeated three times, taking the average of all three or of the closest two times.

141
Q

What does the 300 Yard Shuffle test assess?

A

This test measures total anaerobic endurance.

142
Q

How is the 300 Yard Shuffle test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Equipment required: stopwatch, measuring tape, marker cones, a flat grass surface.
2. Marker cones and lines are placed 25 yards apart to indicate the sprint distance.
3. The athlete starts with a foot on one When instructed by the timer, the athlete runs to the opposite 25–yard line, touches it with their foot, turns and run back to the start (Figure 3.92).
4. This is repeated six times without stopping (covering 300 yards total). After a rest of 5 minutes, the test is repeated.

143
Q

What does the 20 Meter Multistage Shuffle Test test assess?

A

This test is a field test designed to estimate an aerobic power and predict VO2max. It was originally designed for mass screening of aerobic power in Canada.47

144
Q

How is the 20 Meter Multistage Shuffle Test test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. Two rows of cones are set up 20 meters apart (Figure 93).
2. Athletes should be sufficiently warmed Start the audio (can be found at http://www.topendsports.com/testing/beep-purchase.htm)) and the athletes should understand the directions. The test should begin at level one.
3. The audio file will sound a “beep” at designated time intervals. When the “beep” is heard, the athlete must be at the opposite end of the 20-meter run. Each time the recorded “beep” is heard, the athlete must have completed another 20-meter run.
4. With every minute (60 seconds), the “beeps” will progressively get faster prompting the athlete to increase running speed. (The “beeps” start out at a running speed of 8.5 kilometers per hour, or 5.3 miles per hour, and increase by 0.5 kph, or 0.3 mph, every minute thereafter.)
5. The athlete must have at least one foot on the line marking the 20-meter distance at the sound of each “beep.” Any athlete who fails to reach the line at the “beep” must receive a warning that they will be eliminated if they do not reach the opposite 20-meter mark by the sound of the “beep” (Figure 85).
6. An athlete is deemed finished if they fail to reach the 20-meter cone when the “beep” is heard on two consecutive Failure to reach the cone is noted by the athlete being at least one step away from the 20-meter mark.

Scoring the Shuttle Test
1. Each minute denotes a new level and each cone reached denotes a new Thus, a score is read as the level and number of shuttle runs completed.
1. For example, an athlete who ran for 10 minutes and 4 shuttles in that tenth minute would be scored as 10–4. This score can be plugged into an online calculator to produce a VOmax predicted score. That VO score can then be used to determine the athlete’s starting category.
2. The VO score can be located in one of the categories (Table 11). In the case of the example client above with a VOmax score of 48, his score would be considered “Average.”
3. The sports performance professional should determine the appropriate cardio program in which to start the In the case of the example client above with a cardiorespiratory efficiency of 48 and a score of “Average,” he would be best started in a Zone 2 heart rate range when performing cardiorespiratory exercise (Figure 3.94).

145
Q

What does the 1 Mile Run test assess?

A

This test can be used to determine one’s cardiorespiratory endurance. This assessment only requires a measure distance such as a mile, a stop watch and optional heart rate monitors.

146
Q

How is the 1 Mile Run test performed?

A

Procedure:
1. During this assessment the athlete is just asked to run a mile in the best time they can. At the end of the mile their time, heart rate and 1-minute active heart rate recovery (walking) are recorded.
2. Their time should improve when reassessed.

147
Q

Which assessment is best for testing neuromuscular control and strength of the core?
Select one:
a. Sorensen erector spinae test
b. LESS test
c. Davies test
d. Double-leg lowering test

A

d. Double-leg lowering test

148
Q

What is being assessed during the pull-up assessment?
Select one:
a. Isometric strength
b. Maximal power output
c. Muscular endurance Correct
d. Maximal strength

A

c. Muscular endurance

149
Q

An athlete with flat feet during the overhead squat is at great risk for which injury?
Select one:
a. ACL injury Incorrect
b. Lateral tibial stress
c. Plantar fasciitis
d. Jumper’s knee

A

c. Plantar fasciitis

150
Q

What is the appropriate height an athlete should squat to for the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Depth does not matter
b. Slightly bent knees
c. As low as possible
d. Height of a chair

A

d. Height of a chair

151
Q

What condition might prevent an athlete from using the BodPod to assess body composition?
Select one:
a. Diabetes
b. Claustrophobia Correct
c. Heart disease
d. Hypertension

A

b. Claustrophobia

152
Q

What is considered typical body composition for a female softball player?
Select one:
a. 15-21% body fat
b. 11-15% body fat
c. 21-25% body fat Correct
d. 25-35% body fat

A

c. 21-25% body fat

153
Q

What assessment measures improper movement patterns during jump landing tasks?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) Correct
c. Double-leg lowering test
d. Single-leg STAR excursion test

A

b. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS)

154
Q

During the health history assessment, how much of an injury history is an athlete likely to recall?
Select one:
a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 50% Correct
d. 100%

A

c. 50%

155
Q

Which represents the correct performance of the subscapular measurement when using skinfold calipers to assess body composition?
Select one:
a. Vertical fold, 1-2cm below inferior angle of scapula
b. Vertical fold, middle of scapula
c. 45-degree fold, middle of the scapula
d. 45-degree fold, 1-2cm below inferior angle of scapula

A

d. 45-degree fold, 1-2cm below inferior angle of scapula

156
Q

What do the results of the upper extremity strength assessment determine?
Select one:
a. Training frequency
b. Training volume
c. Training tempo
d. Training intensity

A

d. Training intensity

157
Q

What is the sports performance professional assessing with the 1-mile run?
Select one:
a. Muscular power
b. Cardiorespiratory endurance Correct
c. Cardiorespiratory power

A

b. Cardiorespiratory endurance

158
Q

Why is caution advised in regard to assessing heart rate at the carotid artery?
Select one:
a. It can increase stroke volume
b. It can decrease body temperature
c. It can increase blood flow to the left ventricle
d. It can reduce blood pressure and heart rate

A

d. It can reduce blood pressure and heart rate

159
Q

A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg is indicative of what?
Select one:
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hyperglycemia

A

b. Hypertension

160
Q

Which of the following has been found to influence knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Increased knee flexion
b. Excessive hip extension
c. Limited plantar flexion
d. Restricted dorsiflexion

A

d. Restricted dorsiflexion