02_Terminology, Landmarks and Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A

A person stands erect, palms forward, feet parallel and flat on the floor, arms at the sides of the body.

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2
Q

What does ‘supine’ describe?

A

The body lying face up.

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3
Q

What does ‘prone’ describe?

A

The body lying face down.

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4
Q

Define the term ‘medial’.

A

Nearer to the midline.

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5
Q

Define the term ‘lateral’.

A

Away from the midline.

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6
Q

What is the definition of ‘bilateral’?

A

Both sides.

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7
Q

What does ‘unilateral’ mean?

A

One side.

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8
Q

What does ‘ipsilateral’ refer to?

A

On the same side.

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9
Q

What is meant by ‘contralateral’?

A

On the opposite side.

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10
Q

Define ‘proximal’.

A

Nearer to the trunk.

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11
Q

Define ‘distal’.

A

Further from the trunk.

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12
Q

What does ‘anterior’ (ventral) mean?

A

Nearer the front.

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13
Q

What does ‘posterior’ (dorsal) mean?

A

Nearer the back.

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14
Q

What is the ‘superior’ direction?

A

Towards the top.

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15
Q

What is the ‘inferior’ direction?

A

Towards the bottom.

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16
Q

What are the three body planes used in human anatomy?

A
  • Coronal / frontal plane: Separates the body front and back. * Sagittal plane: Separates the body left and right. * Horizontal / transverse plane: Separates the body top and bottom.
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17
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206 bones.

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18
Q

What percentage of body weight does the skeleton account for?

A

18%.

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19
Q

List the functions of the skeletal system.

A
  • Supports framework for the body. * Forms boundaries (skull). * Attachment for muscles and tendons. * Permits movement (joints). * Haematopoiesis. * Mineral homeostasis. * Triglyceride storage.
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20
Q

What are osteogenic cells?

A

Bone stem cells that undergo division to produce osteoblasts.

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21
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts?

A

Bone-building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen and other components of bony matrix.

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22
Q

What do osteocytes do?

A

Maintain the daily metabolism of bone, such as nutrient exchange.

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23
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Huge cells that digest bone matrix and are involved in bone resorption.

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24
Q

What type of bone makes up 80% of the skeleton?

A

Compact bone.

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25
Q

What is an osteon?

A

The structural unit of compact bone.

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26
Q

What are the four parts of an osteon?

A
  • Haversian canal: Contains blood vessels and nerves. * Lamellae: Concentric rings of calcified matrix. * Canaliculi: Interconnected canals for nutrients/waste. * Lacunae: Small spaces with osteocytes.
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27
Q

What does spongy bone consist of?

A

An irregular lattice of thin columns called trabeculae.

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28
Q

How does spongy bone differ from compact bone?

A

Spongy bone does not contain osteons and is lighter due to microscopic spaces.

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29
Q

What is the most abundant mineral in bone?

A

Calcium phosphate.

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30
Q

What are long bones defined as?

A

Bones that have a greater length than width.

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31
Q

What are the two main parts of long bones?

A
  • Diaphysis: The shaft. * Epiphyses: The heads.
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32
Q

What separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis?

A

The epiphyseal plate.

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33
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

A membrane that surrounds the external surface of bone.

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34
Q

What are the two layers of the periosteum?

A
  • Tough outer fibrous layer. * Inner osteogenic layer.
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35
Q

Name the types of bones.

A
  • Short bones: Carpals, tarsals. * Irregular bones: Vertebrae. * Flat bones: Skull, scapula. * Sesamoid bones: Patella. * Long bones: Femur, tibia.
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36
Q

What are the two ossification pathways?

A
  • Intramembranous ossification. * Endochondral ossification.
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37
Q

What is the epiphyseal growth plate?

A

A layer of hyaline cartilage in the epiphyses where bone elongation occurs.

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38
Q

Which hormones promote osteoblast activity?

A
  • Growth hormone. * Thyroid hormone. * Oestrogen. * Testosterone. * Calcitonin.
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39
Q

Which hormones promote osteoclast activity?

A
  • Parathyroid hormone. * Cortisol.
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40
Q

What is the role of parathyroid hormone?

A

Increases blood calcium levels.

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41
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Lowers blood calcium levels.

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42
Q

How does Vitamin D affect calcium absorption?

A

Facilitates calcium absorption in the intestines.

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43
Q

What factors contribute to decreased Vitamin D levels with age?

A
  • Low sun exposure. * Reduced dietary absorption. * Decreased production of active Vitamin D.
44
Q

How does mechanical stress affect bone?

A

Increased mineral deposition and collagen production.

45
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

The central skeleton containing 80 bones.

46
Q

What does the axial skeleton protect?

A

The body’s most vital organs.

47
Q

What are the components of the skull?

A
  • Cranium. * Face.
48
Q

What are fontanelles?

A

Fibrous sutures on a baby’s head that ossify at 12–18 months.

49
Q

What forms the cranium and face and encapsulates the brain?

A

The skull.

50
Q

How are skull bones joined together?

A

With fibrous joints called sutures.

51
Q

What are sinuses?

A

Air-filled cavities in the skull that give resonance to the voice and lighten bones.

52
Q

What are fontanelles?

A

Fibrous sutures (soft spots) on a baby’s head that ossify at 12–18 months.

53
Q

What is the vertebral column composed of?

A

24 movable vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, and fused sacrum and coccyx.

54
Q

What is the function of the vertebral column?

A

Protection for spinal cord, movement, support of skull, forms axis of the trunk.

55
Q

What are intervertebral discs?

A

Shock-absorbing structures that bind vertebral bodies and separate individual vertebrae.

56
Q

How many intervertebral discs are present in the spine?

57
Q

What are the two parts of an intervertebral disc?

A

Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus.

58
Q

What is the thoracic cage composed of?

A

The sternum and 12 pairs of ribs.

59
Q

What are floating ribs?

A

Ribs 11 and 12 that have no anterior bony attachments.

60
Q

How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones.

61
Q

What are the major areas of the appendicular skeleton?

A
  • Shoulder girdle
  • Arm and hand
  • Pelvic girdle
  • Leg and foot.
62
Q

What bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A
  • Clavicle
  • Scapula
  • Humerus
  • Ulna
  • Radius
  • Carpals
  • Metacarpals
  • Phalanges.
63
Q

What is the longest and strongest bone in the body?

64
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscles?

A

To attach to bone and move joints.

65
Q

What are the three types of joints in the human body?

A
  • Fibrous joints
  • Cartilaginous joints
  • Synovial joints.
66
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Moveable joints containing fluid that permit the most movement.

67
Q

What is the function of bursae?

A

To reduce friction between bone and surrounding tissues.

68
Q

What is flexion?

A

A decrease in joint angle.

69
Q

What is plantar flexion?

A

Bending the foot down.

70
Q

What characterizes a fracture?

A

Any break in a bone.

71
Q

What is a complete fracture?

A

Bone broken into two or more fragments.

72
Q

What occurs during the haematoma stage of fracture repair?

A

Blood leaks into the fracture site, causing swelling.

73
Q

What is a sprain?

A

Trauma that forces a joint beyond its normal range, over-straining ligaments.

74
Q

What is subluxation?

A

Incomplete or partial joint dislocation.

75
Q

What is the main use of X-rays?

A

To visualize the skeletal system, lungs, heart, and teeth.

76
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

An increased thoracic spine curvature.

77
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Chronic, progressive thinning of the bone leading to increased fracture risk.

78
Q

What T-Score indicates osteoporosis?

A

A T-Score lower than -2.5.

79
Q

List two risk factors for osteoporosis.

A
  • Increasing age
  • Female and post-menopausal.
80
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis?

A
  • Asymptomatic until critical thinness
  • Focal pain
  • Kyphotic posture
  • Loss of height.
81
Q

What is critical thinness in bones?

A

Critical thinness whereby fractures occur spontaneously with minor trauma

Commonly affects spine and hips.

82
Q

What are the symptoms of critical thinness?

A

Focal pain and kyphotic posture with loss of height

Pain aggravated by prolonged sitting, standing or bending; relieved by lying on side with hips and knees flexed.

83
Q

What are the allopathic treatments for critical thinness?

A
  • Bisphosphonates (alendronic acid)
  • HRT

Bisphosphonates can cause muscle & joint pains, fractures, oesophagitis, and gastritis.

84
Q

What natural treatments are recommended for critical thinness?

A
  • Healthy alkaline diet
  • No caffeine / alcohol
  • Calcium, magnesium
  • Increase vitamin D3 and K2
  • Weight bearing exercise
  • Herbs for hormone balancing
  • Avoid toxins
85
Q

What defines osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Inadequate mineralisation of the bone matrix in spongy and compact bone

Characterised by decalcification and softening of bone.

86
Q

What is the main cause of osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

Possible due to insufficient sunlight, dietary vitamin D, malabsorption disorders, or reduced receptor sites for vitamin D.

87
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of osteomalacia?

A
  • Deformed bones (bowed legs)
  • Possible fractures
  • Severe back pain
  • Muscle weakness
88
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

A bacterial infection of the bone marrow resulting in necrosis and bone weakness

osteo- = bone, myelo- = marrow, -itis = inflammation.

89
Q

What are the symptoms of osteomyelitis?

A

Severe bone pain, swelling, redness, and warmth

Often worse at night.

90
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

A degenerative wear-and-tear arthritis of the articular cartilage

Typically affects weight-bearing joints in individuals over 50 years of age.

91
Q

What are the typical symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Gradual onset of pain
  • Joint pain and stiffness
  • Not associated with systemic symptoms
92
Q

What is the primary cause of osteoarthritis?

A

Ageing

80% of 65-year-olds have radiological signs of OA.

93
Q

What are the diagnostic findings of osteoarthritis?

A
  • X-ray revealing joint space narrowing
  • Osteophyte (bone spur) formation
  • Squaring of rounded joint surfaces
94
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune inflammation of the synovium potentially affecting all organs except the brain

Affects 1% of people worldwide, more common in women.

95
Q

What are the key signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Symmetrical arthritis of small joints
  • Progressive morning stiffness (> one hour)
  • Deformity of joints
  • Fatigue and malaise
96
Q

What are the allopathic treatments for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Anti-inflammatories
  • Immunosuppressants
  • Surgery
97
Q

What are the natural treatments for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Nutrition focusing on anti-inflammatory foods
  • Herbs for pain and inflammation
  • Homeopathy and acupuncture
98
Q

What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis is degenerative wear and tear; rheumatoid arthritis is autoimmune

Affects different tissues and shows different symptoms.

99
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

A systemic autoimmune disease associated with chronic inflammation of the spine and sacroiliac joints

Often leads to spinal fusion (ankylosis) and stiffness.

100
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • Sacroiliac and lower lumbar spine pain
  • Worsening morning stiffness
  • Lower back symptoms improve with activity
101
Q

What is gout?

A

A type of monoarthritis characterised by uric acid crystal deposition in synovial joints

Common in men over 40 years of age.

102
Q

What are the causes of gout?

A
  • Increased intake of purine-rich foods
  • Dehydration
  • Kidney disease
  • Medications
  • Obesity
  • Excessive alcohol consumption
103
Q

What are the symptoms of gout?

A
  • Intense pain in joints
  • Red, hot, swollen joints
  • Sudden onset of symptoms
  • Shiny skin over the joint
104
Q

What is disc herniation?

A

The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc leaks out through the annulus fibrosus

Commonly affects lumbar and cervical spine.

105
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of a bursa

Commonly affects the shoulder and hip.

106
Q

What are the common causes of bursitis?

A
  • Repetitive use
  • Sudden trauma
  • Infection
  • Wear and tear