013 craniofacial development and disease Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 germ layers in an embryo?

A
  • endoderm
  • mesoderm
  • ectoderm
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2
Q

what is the neural crest?

A
  • “4th germ layer”
  • formed post gastrulation
  • ectoderm derived
  • originates at the neural fold during neurulation
  • forms the PNS, as well as facial cartilage and connective tissue, adrenal medulla, odontocytes and melanocytes
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3
Q

what are the 3 parts of a baby’s skull?

A
  • viscerocranium (face)
  • chondrocranium (skull base /back)
  • neurocranium (skull vault /top)
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4
Q

describe the neurocranium

A
  • part of the skull that protects and contains the majority of the brain
  • intramembranous bone (flat)
  • anterior = neural crest, posterior = mesoderm
  • joined by sutures
  • includes frontal, parietal and occipital bones
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5
Q

describe the chondrocranium

A
  • part of the skull of the base/back
  • includes occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid bones
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6
Q

describe the viscerocranium

A
  • bones and cartilages of the face and neck
  • includes maxilla, mandible, zygomatic and ossicles of inner ear
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7
Q

what are the 2 types of bone formation in the skull?

A
  • endochondral ossification = cartilage model first forms and then replaced by bone = chondrocranium
  • intramembranous ossification = bone formed directly without cartilage precursor = neurocranium and viscerocranium
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8
Q

describe endochondral ossification in the skull

A
  • chondrocranium
  • from mesodermal mesenchyme
  • SOX9 gene involved
  • chondrocytes form a cartilage template
  • osteoblasts then use the template to guide bone growth and vascularization
  • primary ossification centre in the middle then epiphyseal growth plates and then secondary ossification centres at the end of the bones
  • articular cartilage remains on the end of bones
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9
Q

describe intramembranous ossification in the skull

A
  • neurocranium and viscerocranium
  • from neural crest-derived mesenchyme
  • RUNX2 gene involved
  • osteoblasts derived from the neural crest mesenchyme form and deposit bone between 2 membranes/layers of osteoblasts
  • sutures between bones instead of joints
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10
Q

what are the first parts of the viscerocranium that forms?

A
  • frontonasal prominence (FNP), maxillary prominence, mandibular prominence and hyoid arch
  • formed from the first pharyngeal arch (PA1)
  • paraxial mesoderm and neural crest mesenchyme
  • eventually these all fuse together as one facial structure
  • at about 3 weeks
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11
Q

what are the pharyngeal arches?

A
  • 5 bilateral arches 1,2,3,4,6
  • form after 4 weeks of development
  • contain all 4 germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, neural crest)
  • form different structure of the upper body (mainly head and neck)
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12
Q

why is there no PA5?

A

PA5 either never forms or quickly regresses as other animals that have PA5 develop structures humans do not have

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13
Q

what does each pharyngeal arch contain?

A
  • rod of cartilage (from neural crest cells)
  • artery and skeletal muscle (from mesoderm)
  • a single cranial nerve
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14
Q

what are the pharyngeal cartilages of the maxillary prominences called?

A

palatopterygoquadrate cartilages
- PA1 = Meckel’s cartilage
- PA2 = Reichert’s cartilage

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15
Q

what cartilages do the pharyngeal arches form?

A
  • PA1 = alisphenoid (orbit), Meckel’s cartilage (jaw), malleus and incus (ossicles)
  • PA2 = stapes (ossicle), styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, lesser cornu of hyoid
  • PA3 = body of hyoid, greater cornu of hyoid
  • PA4 = thyroid and cricoid cartilage
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16
Q

what muscles do the pharyngeal arches form?

A
  • facial muscles = PA1,2 = formed by paraxial mesoderm and occipital somites
    PA1 = mylohyoid, temporalis, masseter
    PA2 = frontalis, orbicularis oculi and oris, auricularis, buccinator, digastric
    PA3 = stylohyoid, stylopharyngeus
    PA4 = cricothyroid, middle and inferior constrictor pharynx
    PA6 = intrinsic larynx muscles
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17
Q

what nerves innervate the different pharyngeal arches?

A
  • PA1 = trigeminal (V)
  • PA2 = facial (VII)
  • PA3 = glossopharyngeal (IX)
  • PA4 = vagus (X)
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18
Q

What cranial nerve innervates PA1?

A

trigeminal (V)

19
Q

what cranial nerve innervates PA2?

A

facial (VII)

20
Q

what cranial nerve innervates PA3?

A

glossopharyngeal (IX)

21
Q

what cranial nerve innervates PA4?

A

vagus (X)

22
Q

what is the initial structure of the pharyngeal arteries?

A
  • they initially form a ‘basket’ structure similar to gill system of fish
  • the heart pumps blood through these arteries into the paired dorsal aortae
  • week 5
23
Q

what is the arrangement of pharyngeal arteries by week 8?

A
  • the arteries remodel to form definitive arteries of the head, neck and upper thorax
  • PA1 = brachiocephalic, maxillary, external and left common carotid
  • PA2 = internal carotid, stapedial
  • PA4 = left pulmonary
  • PA6 = left subclavian
24
Q

what are pharyngeal pouches?

A
  • pouches that form on the endodermal side between the pharyngeal arches
  • go on to form various structures
25
Q

what does the first pharyngeal pouch form?

A
  • middle ear and tympanic membrane
26
Q

what does the second pharyngeal pouch form?

A
  • middle ear and palatine tonsils
27
Q

what does the third pharyngeal pouch form?

A
  • inferior parathyroid glands, thymus
28
Q

what does the fourth pharyngeal pouch form?

A

-superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body and musculature/cartilage of the larynx

29
Q

what are pharyngeal clefts?

A
  • grooves/clefts that seperate the pharyngeal arches on the ectodermal side
30
Q

what do the pharyngeal clefts form?

A
  • the 1st cleft forms the external auditory tube
  • the remaining 2-4 clefts form temporary cervical sinuses and are then obliterated by an outgrowth of the 2nd pharyngeal arch
31
Q

what is the clinical relevance of pharyngeal clefts?

A
  • if clefts 2-4 are not obliterated by 2nd pharyngeal arch then they can persist into adulthood and form branchial cysts (usually surgically removed)
32
Q

what are the main fuses in the face structures during development (week 5-7)?

A
  • nasal plaxodes of the frontonasal (fnp) invaginate to form nasal pits and lateral and medial nasal processes
  • medial nasal processes fuse at midline to form intermaxillary process
  • maxillary prominences fuse with nasal processes and form upper jaw and cheeks (maxillary bone)
  • mandibular prominences fuse across midline to form lower jaw and chin (mandibular bone)
  • the hard palate also fuses across the midline here
33
Q

how common are cleft lip and/or palate?

A

1/700 babies are born with either
- more common in males
30% are syndromic

34
Q

what is cleft lip caused by?

A
  • failure of maxillary prominences to fuse with intermaxillary process
  • cause unknown, both genetic and environmental
  • maybe due to smoking
  • often part of a syndrome affecting structure of head
    -90% are unilateral
  • usually corrected in first 8 months
35
Q

describe the development of the palate

A
  • primary palate (pp) is formed by an extension intermaxillary process
  • secondary palate forms from palatine shelves (ps) that grow medially from maxillary prominences (mp)
  • at the same time, growth of nasal septum (ns) separates left and right nasal chambers (NC)
  • initially palatine shelves grow beneath the tongue (t) but soon move upwards to meet at midline above the tongue where they fuse with the nasal septum
  • front 1/2 of palate undergoes endochondral ossification forming the hard palate
36
Q

why is cleft palate/lip a functional issue for babies?

A
  • affects feeding, speech, hearing, teeth development and psychological development
  • easily fixed cosmetically but needs lots of specialists to repair muscle and dentistry underneath
37
Q

what is cleft palate caused by?

A
  • failure of palatial shelves to fuse during 7-10th week of development
  • often associated with other congenital head syndromes
38
Q

what is submucous cleft palate?

A
  • when you have an intact mucousal membrane superficial to the hard palate which has failed to fuse
  • so there is a cleft/notch underneath the mucosa with no bone/muscle
  • due to Tbx22 mutation?
39
Q

why are craniofacial sutures important during development?

A

they allow the head to deform during birth and expand during childhood as the brain grows
- large membrane covered fontanelles are found where several bones meet (soft/delicate areas)

40
Q

what are the 5 sutures on a child’s growing skull?

A
  • sagittal, coronal, metopic, lamdoid, squamosal
41
Q

what are the 4 fontanelles on a baby’s brain?

A
  • anterior, sphenoidal, mastoid, posterior
42
Q

what is craniosynostosis?

A
  • premature closure of 1 or more sutures in the skull (most often saggital)
  • affects 1/2,500 newborns
  • occurs when the osteoblasts in the sutures differentiate prematurely
  • can increase pressure on the brain (no room to grow) = intellectual disabilities
  • can be surgically fixed soon after birth
43
Q

what is the cause of craniosynostosis

A
  • non-syndromic = majority (70%) = no genetic link, could be due to in utero constriction, fixed with single surgery
  • syndromic (30%) = Crouzon, Pfeiffer,, Apert and Muenke syndromes can also cause midfacial hypoplasia, cleft palate, limb defects and hearing loss = often requires repeat surgeries as suture re-fusion can occur
  • syndromic due to mutations in FGF receptors
44
Q

how are FGF receptors involved in craniosynostosis?

A
  • most syndromes causing craniosynostosis are caused by mutations in the genes for Fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGF)
    e.g. FGFR1,2,3 = regulate RunX2 = controls osteoblasts
    also genes that regulate FGF pathway have been linked
    e.g. TWIST1, ERF, TCF12
  • mutation causes receptor to increase activity which drives premature bone differentiation = ossification of suture