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KCU Comprehensive Exam > Zaidi > Flashcards

Zaidi Flashcards

1
Q

what is gated transport

A

between nucleus and cytosol through nuclear pore complexes (active transport and free diffusion)

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2
Q

what is transmembrane transport

A

membrane protein translators directly transport specific proteins from cytosol across an organelle membrane

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3
Q

what is vesicular transport

A

membrane enclosed transport intermediates move proteins between various compartments via vesicles

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4
Q

protein transfer/transport to various compartments guided by ______

A

sorting signals

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5
Q

describe sorting signals

A

stretch of amino acids, typically 15-60 residues long with localization on N or C terminus within protein sequence

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6
Q

multiple scattered sequences in protein may form ______

A

signal patch

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7
Q

what removes signal after protein reaches final destination?

A

signal peptidase

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8
Q

Signal sequences are both necessary and sufficient for what?

A

protein targeting

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9
Q

What are signal sequences recognized by?

A

complementary receptors

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10
Q

Describe nuclear transport

A

bidirectional, selective and gated

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11
Q

what are sorting signals called for nuclear?

A

nuclear localization sequence

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12
Q

nuclear localization sequences are rich in what amino acids?

A

lysine and arginine

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13
Q

what are nuclear pore complexes?

A

perforate nuclear envelope in eukaryotic cells which transports molecules in both directions, passive diffusion of small molecules and facilitated transport

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14
Q

transport of the nuclear pore complex is facilitated by the binding of particles to _____ extending from NPC

A

fibrils

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15
Q

what are nuclear localization signals (NLS)

A

sorting signals that direct molecules to nucleus, rich in lysine and arginine

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16
Q

look at nuclear import and export pictures

A

slide 9

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17
Q

the mitochondrial signal sequence is made up of _______ and _____ signal sequences

A

n terminal and internal

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18
Q

In the mitochondrial signal sequence specific receptor proteins recognize a configuration which is what?

A

positively charged residues cluster on one end and uncharged hydrophobic on the other end to form an amphiphilic alpha helix

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19
Q

review the translators in mitochondrial membrane slide

A

slide 12

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20
Q

Where is the tom complex located?

A

outer mitochondrial membrane

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21
Q

where is the Sam complex located

A

outer mitochondrial membrane

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22
Q

Where is the Tim22 and tim23 complexes located?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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23
Q

Where is the Oxa membrane complex located?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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24
Q

What does the TOM do?

A

import of all nuclear encoded proteins to insert them in the outer membrane

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25
Q

what does TIM 23 do?

A

transports soluble proteins into matrix and helps insert membrane proteins in inner membrane space

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26
Q

what does TIM 22 do?

A

mediates the insertion of a specific subclass of proteins

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27
Q

What are the two components of the tom and Tim complexes?

A

receptors for mitochondrial precursor proteins

translocation channels

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28
Q

What does the sam complex do?

A

translocates and inserts/folds beta barrel proteins in the outer membrane

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29
Q

What does the oxa complex do?

A

mediates insertion of all proteins synthesized in mitochondria. Also some proteins already present in matrix brought from outside

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30
Q

ER signal sequence guided to ER membrane by 2 components:

A
  • signal recognition particle (SRP)

- SRP receptor

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31
Q

What is the SRP large hydrophobic pocket lined with?

A

methionine

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32
Q

review SRP role slide

A

slide 17

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33
Q

proteins and other biomolecules are transported via ______

A

transport vesicles

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34
Q

contents of vesicles are called

A

cargo

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35
Q

look at vesicular transport slides

A

slides 20-21

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36
Q

what do Rab proteins do?

A

direct vesicle to specific spots on target membrane

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37
Q

what do SNARE proteins do?

A

mediate fusion of vesicle with membrane

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38
Q

docking and fusion of vesicle slide

A

slide 23

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39
Q

what are the pathways in which materials are delivered to the lysosome

A

phagocytosis
endocytosis
autophagy

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40
Q

lysosomal hydrolyses have sorting signal _______ attached to them in the cis Golgi network

A

mannose-6-phosphate

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41
Q

the mannose 6 phosphate receptor in the trans golgi network recognize a sugar and then package them into _____

A

clathrin coated vesicles

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42
Q

where are clathrin coated contents delivered

A

endosomes then to lysosome

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43
Q

sorting of lysosomal protein slide

A

slide 28

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44
Q

describe sub cellular fractionation

A

tissue: mechanical blending
homogenate: suspension of different cell types
centrifugation to separate different cell types, based on size and density
lysis of cells: osmotic shock, ultrasonic vibration, mechanical blending, forcing through small orifice
ultracentrifugation: separates organelles

45
Q

after low speed centrifugation, what is in the pellet?

A

whole cells
nuclei
cytoskeletons

46
Q

after medium speed centrifugation, what is in the pellet?

A

mitochondria, lysosomes, peroxisomes

47
Q

after high speed centrifugation, what is in the pellet?

A

microsomes, small vesicles

48
Q

after very high speed centrifugation, what is in the pellet?

A

ribosomes, viruses, large macromolecules

49
Q

describe ion exchange chromatography

A

positively charged bead attract negatively charged molecules, so positively charged molecules can travel freely

50
Q

describe gel filtration chromatography

A

porous beads attract small molecules, and large molecules can get through

51
Q

describe affinity chromatography

A

beads have covertly attached substate, so certain proteins bind while others can go through

52
Q

where does HaeIII cut DNA

A

at G-C binding

53
Q

Where does EcoRI cut DNA

A

at G-A binding

54
Q

Where does HindIII cut DNA

A

at A-A binding

55
Q

in agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA is already ____

A

charged

56
Q

how is DNA ‘glued’ together?

A

ligase reaction (with help of ATP)

57
Q

homologous proteins are functionally _______

A

interchangeable

58
Q

what is a blastula? and what does it give rise to?

A

blastula consists of a sheet of epithelial cells facing the external medium, which gives rise to the ectoderm

59
Q

what is the ectoderm?

A

precursors to nervous system and epidermis, gives rise to endoderm

60
Q

what is the endoderm

A

precursor of gut, lung and liver

gives rise to mesoderm

61
Q

what is the mesoderm

A

precursor of muscles and connective tissue

62
Q

where are the instructions for producing a multicellular animal?

A

non-coding regulatory DNA

63
Q

Cells make developmental decisions long before they show signs of ______

A

differentiation

64
Q

what are determined cells

A

Cells that are fated to develop into a specialized cell type despite changes in the environment

65
Q

What are completely undetermined cells

A

cells that can change rapidly due to alterations in the environment

66
Q

What are committed cells

A

cells that have some attributes of a particular cell type but can change with environment

67
Q

most important environmental cues are from where?

A

signals from neighboring cells

68
Q

describe a short range signal

A

cell-cell contacts

69
Q

describe a long range signal

A

substances that can diffuse through the extracellular medium

70
Q

What is a morphogen

A

long range inductive signal that imposes a pattern on a filed fo cells, forms gradients of different concentrations

71
Q

What is the morphogen gradient formed by?

A

localized production of an inducer that diffuses away from its source
localized production of an inhibitor that diffuse away from its source and block the action of a uniformly distributed inducer

72
Q

describe phase 1 of neural development

A

different cell types develop independently at widely separate locations in embryo according to local program and are unconnected

73
Q

describe phase 2 of neural development

A

axons and dendrites grow out along specific routes setting up a provisional but orderly network of connections between various parts of the system

74
Q

describe phase 3 of neural development

A

continues into adult life, connections are adjusted and refined through interactions with distant regions via electric signals

75
Q

neurons are produced in association with ______ cells

A

glial

76
Q

CNS is derived from what?

A

neural tube

77
Q

PNS is derived from what?

A

neural crest

78
Q

tip of axon/dendrite has irregular, spiky enlargement called the ______

A

growth cone

79
Q

what is growth cone behavior dictated by?

A

its cytoskeletal machinery

80
Q

monomeric GTPases ____ and ____ control the assembly and disable of actin filaments, which control _____ of growth cone

A

Rho and Rac, movement

81
Q

growth cones travel toward target cells along predictable routes by exploiting two major cues to find their way. What are these?

A

extracellular matrix environment: sensed by receptors present on membrane
chemotactic factors: related by neighboring cells, attractive or repulsive

82
Q

what are chemotactic factors?

A

guidance factors at strategic points along path and are attractive or repulsive

83
Q

What are examples of chemotactic factors?

A

netrin
slit
semaphorin

84
Q

look at mechanism of commissural neuron guidance

A

slide 64

85
Q

once axonal growth cone reach eventual target cells what does it do?

A

halt, communicate and make synapses with target cells

signal form target tissue regulate which growth cone synapses and where

86
Q

synaptic remodeling is dependent upon 2 rules that create spatial order. What are these?

A
  • axons from cells in different regions of retina compete for tectal neurons
  • axons from neighboring sites which are excited at same time cooperate/collaborate to retain and strengthen synapses with tectal neurons
87
Q

What does activity dependent synaptic remodeling depend on?

A

electrical activity and synaptic signaling

88
Q

What are the characteristics of stem cells?

A 
not terminally differentiated
can divide without limit
ability to renew themselves
when divide each new cell has ability to remain a stem cell or become differentiated into a different cell type
undergo slow division
89
Q

totipotency

A

ability of a cell to give rise to all cells of an organism, including embryonic and extra embryonic tissues (zygote)

90
Q

pluripotency

A

ability of cel to give rise to all cells of the embryo and subsequently adult tissues (embryonic stem cells)

91
Q

multi potency

A

ability of a cell to give rise to different cell types of a given lineage (adult stem cells)

92
Q

asymmetric division

A

creates 2 cells, one with stem cell characteristics and another with ability to differentiate

93
Q

independent choice

A

division makes 2 identical cells but he outcome is stochastic and/or influenced by environment

94
Q

describe epidermis

A

forms outer covering of skin
creates water barrier
made of epithelial cells
continuously repaired and renewed

95
Q

describe dermis

A

second layer, rich in collagen, provides toughness

96
Q

describe hypodermis

A

fatty subcutaneous layer

97
Q

what is the only dividing cells in the epidermis

A

basal cell layer

98
Q

look at epidermis layer picture

A

slide 77

99
Q

renewal of epidermis slide

A

slide 78-79

100
Q

describe the olfactory neuron

A

bipolar neurons with a dendrite facing extracellular environment and an axon that travels along the olfactory nerve. Hair like cilia protrude from dendrite.

101
Q

describe the odorant receptors of the olfactory neurons

A

on the free surfaces of cilia, and are a type of G protein coupled receptors

102
Q

describe the process of what happens when an olfactory receptors is activated

A

activates intracellular G protein (Golf)
activates adenylate cyclase which produces cyclic AMP
opening of ion channels in plasma membrane which results in influx of sodium and calcium
influx of positive ions cause neuron depolarization, generating action potential

103
Q

individual olfactory neurons survive only for _____

A

a month

104
Q

what do embryonic stem cells develop into?

A

different cell types with characteristics appropriate for that site

105
Q

look at derivation of ES cell slide

A

slide 91

106
Q

what is a different source of human embryonic stem cells?

A

somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCeNT)

107
Q

strategies to induce ES cell like properties in adult somatic cells

A

induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells

108
Q

describe SCeNT

A

nucleus taken from somatic cell of patient and injected into oocyte of a donor, replaces oocyte nucleus. Blastocyst generated form hybrid oocyte and ES cells isolated

109
Q

descrive iPS cells

A

somatic cells can be reprogramed to form iPSC by exposing them to defined, limited sets of transcription factors (genes for stem-ness)

KCU Comprehensive Exam (13 decks)

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