All of Andersen Flashcards
Structures that are both medial to the biceps tendon and deep to the bicipital aponeurosis include which of the following?
A. Brachial artery only
B. Median nerve only
C. Median cubital vein only
D. Both the brachial artery and the median nerve
Both the brachial artery and the median nerve
Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns? A.hypoglossal nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. C2 D. C2-C3
B. ansa cervicalis
The cervical sympathetic trunk ascends on the anterior surface(s) of which of the following muscles? A. Longus colli and capitis muscles B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Anterior scalene D. Rectus capitis superior and lateralis muscles
A. Longus colli and capitis muscles
Most potassium reabsorption occurs at which of the following sites?
A. Ascending loop of Henle
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
Surfactant is a lipoprotein essential to maintain alveolar function. In a healthy fetus, it is formed in the lungs at what time? A. 24 weeks gestation B. 28 weeks gestation C. 34 weeks gestation D. 38 weeks gestation
A. 24 weeks
If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone is unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be? A.Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure B. High levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure C. low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth D. lowlevels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth
A.Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
Which of the following structures enters the pharynx by passing between the base of the cranium and the superior edge of the superior pharyngeal constrictor? A. Stylopharyngeus muscle B. Auditory tube C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Salpingopharyngeus muscle
B. Auditory tube
Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary and is secreted by which of the following: A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate gland C. Cells of Leydig D. Sertoli cells
D. Sertoli cells
A bundle of axons in the central nervous system is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Nucleus B. Tract C. Ganglion D. Nerve E. Gray matter
B. Tract
Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia? A. Trigeminal (semilunar) B. Geniculate C. Superior salivatory nucleus D. Inferior salivatory nucleus
A. Trigeminal (semilunar)
Cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to the ciliary ganglion (source of cell bodies of postganglionic fibers to the sphincter pupillae muscle) are located in which of the following? A. Semilunar ganglion B. Geniculate ganglion C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus D. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. Anterior B. Middle C. Posterior D. None of the above, all attach to the first rib
C. Posterior
Which of the following BEST describes the epineurium?
A. It is a membrane composed of type III collagen surrounding a fascicle.
B. It is a membrane composed of type I collagen surrounding a fascicle.
C. It is a membrane composed of type III collagen surrounding a nerve.
D. It is a membrane composed of type I collagen surrounding a nerve.
D. It is a membrane composed of type I collagen surrounding a nerve.
The radial artery in the “anatomical snuff box” may be injured when which of the following bones in fractured?
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Capitate
D. Hamate
E. Triquetral
Scaphoid
Q: Which of the following muscles attaches to both the medial aspect of the femur (linea aspera) and the adductor tubercle, creating the adductor hiatus? A. Gracilis B. Pectineus C. Adductor longus D. Adductor magnus
D. Adductor magnus
Cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following? A. Chondroclasts B. Osteoclasts C. Chondroblasts D. Chondrocytes E. Fibroblasts
C. Chondroblasts
What woul be the Va/Q ratio for alveolar blood with a PO2 of 104 and a pCO2 or 40?
A. 2.5
B. 0.8
C. 0
D. Infinity
B. 0.8
Identify the following specific (layer) structure indicated by the arrow.
A. External root sheath
B. Internal root sheath
C. Cuticle
D. Medulla
B. Internal root sheath
Which of the following muscle groups is lateral to the others listed below?
A. Longissimus group
B. Interspinales
C. Spinalis groups
D. Transversospinalis group
E. Iliocostalis group
Iliocostalis group
Identify the tissue shown in this slide.
A. Loose connective tissue
B. Hyaline cartilage
C. Dense bone tissue
D. Adipose tissue
D. Adipose tissue
You shouldn’t need slide
In the myelinated sheath of peripheral axons, which of the following is important in binding together the outer leaflets of the Schwann cell plasmalemma and helping to compact the cytoplasm?
A. Proteolipid protein
B. Myelin basic protein
C. Major protein zero
D. Connection 32
C. Major protein zero
Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionally, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed? A.substantia nigra B. red nucleus C. amygdala D. thalamus
C. amygdala
The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardiac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A. Pons B. Medulla C. Mesencephalon D. Thalamus
A. Pons
which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. anterior B. middle C. posterior D. all attach to the first rib
C. posterior
Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to the descending aorta is pumped through which opening? A.Foramen ovale B. Ductus arteriosus C. Ductus venosus D. Foramen soventus
B. Ductus arteriosus
Q: Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction? A. Puborectalis B. Pubococcygeus C. Coccygeus D. Iliococcygeus
A. Puborectalis
Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis? A. pelvic brim B. pelvic diaphragm C. perineum D. iliac crests
A. pelvic brim
Which of the following kinds of cells are unique to the pancreas and is associated with the intercalated duct?
A. Alpha cells
B. Paneth cells
C. Centroacinar cells
D. Acinar cells
C. Centroacinar cells
Lecture 26, Slide 9
A median-sagittal plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes? A. cranial caudal and the left-right axes B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes C. left-right and the anterior-posterior axes D. none of the above
B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes
Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity? A. Infraglottic cavity B. Rima glottidis C. Rima vestibuli D. Space between the vestibular folds
B. Rima glottidis
Q: The endotrochlear potential of +80 mv is largely due to which of the following factors? A. High concentration of potassium in the endolymph B. High concentration of sodium in the endolymph C. High concentration of potassium in the perilymph D. Low concentration of sodium in the perilymph
A. High concentration of potassium in the endolymph
Q: The pectinate line marks the division between the visceral (endodermal) and somatic (ectodermal) arterial, venous, lymphatic, and nerve supply to the anal canal. A. True B. False
A. True
Which of the following types of cells are found only in the bronchioles and secrete a surface-active lipoprotein that prevents collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation?
A. Type I alveolar cell
B. Type II alveolar cell
C. Clara cell
D. Dust cell
C. Clara cell
Q: The cerebral cortex has been mapped and divided into specific areas known as Brodmann’s areas. The sensory cortex is associated with which of the following Brodmann’s areas? A. 1, 2, 3 B. 4 C. 7A, 40 D. 44
A. 1, 2, 3
Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is not supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. lateral rectus B. inferior obliques C. medial rectus D. inferior rectus
A. lateral rectus
Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh? A. femoral B. obturator C. deep femoral D. saphenous
B. obtruator
The tectorial membrane is a superior extension of which of the following ligaments? A. anterior longitudinal ligament B. posterior longitudinal ligament C. ligamentum flavum D. supraspinous ligament
B. posterior longitudinal ligament
Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals? A. pallium B. mid-ventricular ridge C. neocortex D. palocortex
C. neocortex
Q: Decussation of the auditory pathways occurs in all of the places listed below except…? A. Trapezoid body B. Lateral lemniscal nuclei C. Commissure connecting the inferior colliculi D. Thalamus
D. Thalamus
The common interosseous artery is a branch off which of the following arteries?
A. Brachial
B. Ulnar
C. Radial
D. Radial recurrent
E. Anterior interosseous
B. Ulnar
Which of the following levels of blood constituents would NOT be observed in a diabetic coma? A. Low blood glucose B. Low keto acids C. High bicarbonate ion D. Low cholesterol
C. High bicarbonate ion
Identify the layer indicated by the arrow.
A. Inner plexiform layer
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Outer plexiform layer
D. Inner nuclear layer
D. Inner nuclear layer
Which of the following sarcomeric bands is composed entirely of actin filaments? (A) A band (B) H band (C) I band (D) J band
(C) I band
The second heart sound is due to which of the following events?
A. Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the onset of ventricular systole
B. Opening of the atrioventricular valves at the onset of atrial systole
C. Closure of semilunar valves at onset of ventricular diastole
D. Opening of semilunar valves at onset of ventricular diastole
C. Closure of semilunar valves at onset of ventricular diastole
Heart sounds are made by the closing of valves and are numbered by the order in which they occur in a cardiac cycle (systole followed by diastole). The first heart sound occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole when the AV valves close and the second occurs at the beginning of ventricular diastole when the semilunar valves close.
Which of the following represents a substance that is actively secreted into the renal tubules?
A. Urea
B. Angiotension II
C. Creatinine
D. ADP
C. Creatinine
Ducks, geese, and many other species of birds may make long migratory trips during which they fly for long periods of time. Which of the following characteristics would be expected of their flight muscles (pectoralis complex)? A. Theirflightmusclefiberswouldhaverelativelysmall numbers of mitochondria. B. Their flight muscle fibers would have relatively small amounts of myoglobin. C. Their flight muscle fibers would have small concentrations of ATPase. D. Theirflightmuscleswouldhaveamoreextensive sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. Their flight muscle fibers would have small concentrations of ATPase.
A cubitus varas deformity results in a(n) ____ in the normal carrying angle (5 degrees) and may be caused by a stretching of the _____ collateral ligament.
A. Decrease, medial
B. Decrease, lateral
C. Increase, medial
D. Increase, lateral
B. Decrease, lateral
The most common cause of pulonary edema is left sided heart failure or mitral valve disease. Pulmonary edema occurs when pulmonary capillary pressure exceeds which of the following levels?
A. 7 mmHg
B. 15 mmHg
C. 20 mmHg
D. 25 mmHg
D. 25 mmHg
Identify the structure indicate by the arrow.
A. Bowman’s membrane
B. Decemet’s membrane
C. Bruch’s membrane
D. Pigmented layer
B. Decemet’s membrane
Lecture 16, Slide 15
Identify the zone indicated by the arrow.
A. Calcification
B. Hypertorphy
C. Reserve
D. Ossification
B. Hypertorphy
Lecture 11, Slide 27
The maxillary artery is divided into three parts with reference to its branching pattern. Which of the following structures is used to demarcate the three parts? A. Lateral pterygoid muscle B. Medial pterygoid muscle C. Mandibular ramus and masseter muscle D. Superior alveolar process and temporalis muscle
A. Lateral pterygoid muscle
Q: Thermal sensations are carried in pathways that parallel which of the following pathways? A. Pain B. 2-point sensation C. Vibration D. Crude touch
A. Pain
Which of the following muscles of the anterior antebrachial compartment does not take its origin from the humerus?
A. Palmaris longus
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Pronator teres
D. Flexor carpi radialis
E. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
Which of the following factors is related to primary (essential) hypertension?
A. Sedentary life style
B. Preeclampsia
C. Renal artery constriction
D. Coarctation of the aorta
A. Sedentary life style
Primary hypertension is hypertension that does not occur secondary to other medical conditions. It is characterized by increased cardiac output, increased sympathetic nerve activity, increased angiotension II and aldosterone levels, impairment of renal pressure naturesis, and inadequate secretion of water and salt.
Which of the following organs would NOT be seen in a mid- sagittal section of the human body? A. heart B. lungs C. intestine D. transverse colon E. brain
B. lungs (anything paired is not seen in midsagittal section)
The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardia center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A.pons B. medulla C. mesencephalon D. thalamus
A.pons
During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin heads go through repeated cycles in which they bind to actin, swivel to produce the power stroke, release from actin, and recock to prepare for the next cycle. One ATP molecule is required for each of these cycles. Which of the following events occurs after ATP binds to the myosin? A. The power stroke resulting in the sliding of the actin along the myosin molecule B. Recocking of the myosin head C. Release of the myosin head from the actin binding site D. Binding of the myosin head to an active site on the actin
C. Release of the myosin head from the actin binding site
Which of the following events occurs first during the transmission of a signal from an alpha motor neuron to a skeletal muscle fiber (A) End-plate Depolarization (EPP) (B) Calcium Ion Influx into Axon Terminal (C) Exocytosis of Synaptic Vesicles (D) Sarcolemma Action Potential
(B) Calcium Ion Influx into Axon Terminal
Q: The adductor tubercle is a site for the partial attachment of the adductor magnus muscle and is found on which of the following sites? A. Inferior border of the inferior pubic ramus B. Lateral border of the lateral tibial condyle C. Medial femoral epicondyle D. Lesser trochanter of the femur
C. Medial femoral epicondyle
The thin descending loop of Henle is highly permeable to which of the following?
A. Sodium
B. Water
C. Urea
D. Amino acids
B. Water
Q: Multiple layers form the wall of the scrotum. Which of the following is the deepest layer and is a tough fibrous coat adherent to the testes? A. Dartos fascia B. Tunica albuginea C. Internal spermatic fascia D. Parietal tunica vaginalis
B. Tunica albuginea
Which of the following dural sinuses does not connect directly with the confluence of sinuses? A. straight sinus B. transverse sinuses C. superior sagittal sinus D. inferior sagittal sinus
D. inferior sagittal sinus
a higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition? A. jaundice B. cirrhosis C. ascites D. diabetes
C. ascites
Q: Lesions (damage) to which of the following pathways would affect the transmission of temperature stimuli? A. Lateral spinothalamic pathway B. Anterior spinothalamic pathway C. Dorsal column pathway D. Fasciculus cuneatus pathway E. Fasciculus gracilis pathway
A. Lateral spinothalamic pathway
For the first three to four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy source? A.Glucose from mother’s milk B. Fat from mother’s milk C. Stored glucose D. Stored protein and fat
D. Stored protein and fat
Identify the sturcture indicated by the letter “A”.
A. Canaliculi
B. Osteocyte
C. Lamella
D. Lacuna
D. Lacuna
Q: Which of the following characterizes fast pain? A. It begins about 1 second after the stimulus is applied B. It is carried by Aδ fibers C. It can be elicited by mechanical, thermal, and chemical stimuli. D. Fibers carrying fast pain terminate in the substantia gelatinosa
B. It is carried by Aδ fibers
In the photomicrograph below, what structure is indicated by the arrow?
A. Bronchiole
B. Pulmonary capillary
C. Alveolar duct
D. Alveolus
C. Alveolar duct
Which of the following BEST describes the location of the vallecular recesses? A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic folds B. Lateral to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds D. Superior to the median glossoepiglottic folds
A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic folds
Which of the following relationships is correct?
A. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the higher the compliance and the lower the elastance.
B. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the higher the compliance and the elastance.
C. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the lower the compliance and the elastance.
D. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the lower the compliance and the greater the elastance.
D. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the lower the compliance and the greater the elastance.
Elastic tissue is responsible for the elasticity of a blood vessel.
Elastance is the reciprocal of compliance.
Erythropoietin directs the CFU-E to proliferate and to differentiate into proerythroblasts. Which of the following sites represents the source of erythropoietin?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Bone marrow
D. Spleen
B. Kidney
Which of the following muscles of the anterior antebrachial compartment does not take its origin from the humerus
A. Palmaris longus
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Pronator teres
D. Flexor carpi radialis
E. Flexor carpi ulnaris
Flexor digitorum profundus
During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components? A. Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi B. Excess cytoplasm, RER, mitochondria C. Excess cytoplasm, RER, centrioles D. Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membranes
A. Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi
Fenestrated capillaries would NOT be characterized by which of the following?
A. The endothelium has neumerous openings (fenestrae).
B. The fenestrae may have thin diaphragms.
C. The basal lamina is discontinuous.
D. They are associated with renal glomeruli.
C. The basal lamina is discontinuous.
Lecture 22, Slide 30
Which of the following represents the original cephalic boundary of the neural tube and separates the two lateral ventricles of the telencephalon? A. Papez circuit B. Corpus striatum C. Lamina terminalis D. Neocortex
C. Lamina terminalis
Which of the following properties is a measure of the ease with which a hollow structure may be distended?
A. Elastance
B. Compliance
C. Resistance
D. Distensibility
B. Compliance
Who knows why, but this is what he said we need to remember the answer as.
Which of the following landmarks on the scapula serves as the site of origin for the long head of the biceps brachii? A. Infraglenoid tubercle B. Supraglenoid tubercle C. Scapular tuberosity D. Coracoid process
B. Supraglenoid tubercle
Q: Most output neurons from the cerebral cortex originate from which of the following cortical layers? A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. IV and V E. V and VI
E. V and VI
Cords of Billroth are associated with which of the following?
A. Cortex of lymph nodes
B. Cortex of thymus
C. White pulp of spleen
D. Red pulp of spleen
D. Red pulp of spleen
Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System
Slide 67
Ryanodine-sensitive calcium ion release channels are part of which of the following structures? (A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (B) Plasmalemma (C) T tubules (D) Z discs
(A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces? A.Space of Disse B. Hepatic sinusoids C. Bile canaliculi D. Space of Wirsung
B. Hepatic sinusoids
Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma? A. An action potential is created on the sarcolemma. B. Dihydropyridine channels allow entry of calcium ions. C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber. D. Ryanodingaling channels allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm
C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber.
Q: Transmission in the foveal region of the retina can be grouped into two different categories: three-neuron and four-neuron. Both types of pathways share the same types of neurons. The four-neuron pathway differs from the three-neuron pathway because it also utilizes which of the following types of neurons? A. Cones B. Bipolar cells C. Ganglion cells D. Amacrine cells
D. Amacrine cells
Flexed arms and legs that resist extension would result in which of the following on the Apgar test? A.A score of 0 B. A score of 1 C. A score of 2 D. Not measured on the Apgar test
C. A score of 2
Identify the types of cells indicated by the arrow.
A. Cardiac muslce cells
B. Hyaline cartilage cells
C. Adipocytes
D. Striated cuboidal epithelial cells
E. Purkinje cells
E. Purkinje cells
Compounds that dissociate incompletely into hydrogen ions and a conjugate base are members of which of the following compounds?
A. Strong acids
B. Weak acids
C. Strong bases
D. Weak bases
B. Weak acids
Which of the following infrahyoid muscles is NOT supplied through the ansa cervicalis? A. Thyrohyoid B. Sternothyroid C. Sternohyoid D. Omohyoid
A. Thyrohyoid
The otolithic membrane of the middle ear is associated with which of the following structures?
A. Macula of saccule
B. Crista of ampullares
C. Semicircular canals
D. Organ of Corti
A. Macula of saccule
Lecture 17, Slide 13
Cranial-caudal and left-right axes define which of the following kinds of planes? A: coronal B: Sagittal C: parasagittal D: transverse
A. coronal
Which of the following is not part of a Haversian system?
A. Lamellae
B. Volkmann canals
C. Periosteum
D. Canaliculi
E. Lacunae
C. Periosteum
Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI, and VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. Medulla B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Diencephalon
B. Pons
Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the lumbrical muscles?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve
Both the ulnar nerve of the median nerve
The Frank-Starling law is based on which of the following principles? A. The greater the stretching of cardiac muscle, the greater the force of contraction. B. The more calcium returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the greater the force of contraction. C. The amount of blood received by each tissue is directly related to the immediate needs of the that tissue. D. The faster the heart rate, the more likely that the period of diastasis will be eliminated.
A. The greater the stretching of cardiac muscle, the greater the force of contraction.
Q: Which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not the femoral sheath? A. Femoral artery B. Femoral vein C. Femoral nerve D. Lymphatics
C. Femoral nerve
the muscle of the suboccipital triangle are innervated by which of the following nerves? A. occipital nerve B. cervical nerve 1 C. cervical nerve 2 D. cervical nerve 3
B. cervical nerve 1
Which of the following sequences best describes the flow of red blood cells through the spleen?
A. Trabecular arteries, central arteries, splenic arteries, penicillius, venous sinuses
B. Splenic artery, central arteries, trabecular arteries, venous sinuses, penicillus
C. Trabecular arteries, splenic arteries, central arteries, peniccillus, venous sinuses
D. Splenic artery, trabecular arteries, central arteries, penicillus, venous sinuses
D. Splenic artery, trabecular arteries, central arteries, penicillus, venous sinuses
Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System
Slide 68
Q: The ejaculatory ducts open into which of the following regions? A. Bulbourethral duct B. Seminal colliculus C. Prostatic sinus D. Bulbourethral glands
B. Seminal colliculus
The thalamus is a paired complex of many nuclei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Others relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex? A. Medial geniculate B. Lateral geniculate C. Ventral posterior D. Anterior
A. Medial geniculate
The oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of the following? A. anterior pituitary B. hypothalamus C. granulosa cells D. corpus luteum
C. granulosa cells
Laceration of the recurrent branch of the median nerve will paralyze which of the following muscles of the thumb?
A. Flexor pollicis brevis
B. Abductor pollicis longus
C. Abductor pollicis brevis
D. Extensor pollicis brevis
E. Extensor pollicis longus
Flexor pollicis brevis
Cardiac muscle cells are characterized by the pressence of intercalated discs. These structures provide structural integrity to the cardiac muscle tissue and also facilitate transmission of impulses from one cell to another. Which of the following membrane specialization areassociated with the longitudinal component of the disc?
A. Macula adherentes
B. Gap junctions
C. Fascia adherentes
D. Actin and desmin filaments
B. Gap junctions
Identify the following type of tissue.
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Fibrous connective tissue
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Smooth muslce
C. Cardiac muscle
During exercise, total peripheral resistance decreases because of the effect of which of the following?
A. The sympathetic nervous system on splanchnic nerve
B. The parasympathetic nervous system on the skeletal muscle arterioles
C. Local metabolites of the skeletal muscle arterioles
D. Local metabolites on the cerebral arteries
C. Local metabolites of the skeletal muscle arterioles
The most important factor regulating vasomotion (which directly effects peripheral resistance) is the local oxygen (a metabolite) concentration in the tissues.
The factors regulating blood flow control specifically in muslce tissues include oxygen, adenosine, potassium, ATP, lactic acid, and CO2.
Which of the following is the most important means for the exchange of substances between the blood and interstitial fluid?
A. Blood hydrostatic pressure
B. Capillary oncotic pressure
C. Diffusion
D. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
E. Osmotic pressure
C. Diffusion
Lipid souble substances diffuse through capillary cell membranes.
Non-lipid-soluble substances diffuse through intercellular pores/clefts.
Which of the following represent the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7
C. C3-5
What is the glomerular filtration rate if the urine concentration rate of a substance is 125 mg/mL; the flow rate is 2 mL/min; and the plasma concentraiton of the substance is 1mg/mL?
A. 10
B. 25
C. 125
D. 250
D. 250
Which of the following areas of the brainstem is thought to be involved in emotional and visceral responses to odors? A.red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. pineal body D. habenular nuclei
C. pineal body
Q: The greater sciatic notch is converted into superior and inferior parts by which of the following features? A. Sartorius muscle B. Iliacus muscle C. Ilioinguinal ligament D. Piriformis muscle
D. Piriformis muscle
All of the following muscles elevate the mandible EXCEPT? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
Lesions affecting the trigeminal nerve resulting in loss of general sensation to the face on the same side and paralysis to muscles of mastication occur in which brain subdivision? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon
D. metencephalon
Which of the following types of cells are associated with the blood-brain barrier.
A. Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Schwann cells
D. Microglial cells
A. Astrocytes
Q: Which of the following association areas plays the greatest single role of any part of the cerebral cortex for intelligence? A. Broca’s area B. Postcentral gyrus C. Precentral gyrus D. Wernicke’s area
D. Wernicke’s area
Compared to non-progressive shock, which of the following is one of the most important features of progressive shock?
A. Sympathetic reflexes
B. Hemorrhagic in origin
C. Cardiac depression
D. Increased vascular permeability
B. Hemorrhagic in origin
Continued loss of blood volume counteracts the bodies attempts to compensate for cardiac output. Eventually levels of cardiac output get low enough that they are not able to provide adequate blood supply to the heart through the coronary arteries which leads to a positive feedback mechanism resulting in progressive loss of cardiac output.
Q: What muscle attaches to blue # 30 in the photograph below? (See lecture 4, slide 13 of the femur: proximal posterior) A. Quadratus femoris B. Vastus medialis C. Iliopsoas D. Gluteus maximus
C. Iliopsoas
Addison’s disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following? A. Glucocorticoids B. Mineralocorticoids C. Androgenic hormones D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
Extensive bilateral lesions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions? A.consciousness but quadriplegic B. coma C. hypotonia D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities
B. coma
Q: Axons of which of the following cells make up the optic nerve? A. Bipolar cells B. Amacrine cells C. Interplexiform cells D. Ganglion cells E. Rod and cone cells
D. Ganglion cells
Which of the following characteristics would be true for cortical nephrons?
A. Glomeruli lie deep in the cortex near the medulla of the kidney and have short loops of Henle.
B. Glomeruli lie deep in the cortex near the medulla of the kidney and have long loops of Henle.
C. Glomeruli lie in the outer cortex and have short loops of Henle.
D. Glomeruli lie in the outer cortex and have long efferent arterioles.
C. Glomeruli lie in the outer cortex and have short loops of Henle.
Glomeruli that are in the cortex near the medulla with long loops of Henle which extend into the medulla are called juxtamedullary nephrons.
Identify the muscle indicated by the arrow.
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Trapezius
C. Rhomboid major
D. rhomboid minor
Trapezius
In the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures? A.Amnion and placenta only B. amnion, embryo, and yolk sac only C. placenta only D. placenta and yolk sac only
C. placenta only
Q: Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle? A. Adductor magnus B. Adductor longus C. Sartorius D. Pectineus
C. Sartorius
Identify the reddish hollow structure in the center of the attached photomicrograph.
A, Vein
B. Trachea
C. Bronchiole
D. Alveolar duct
C. Bronchiole
Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed? A. substantia nigra B. red nucleus C. amygdala D. thalamus
C. amygdala
Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells? A. 11 B.48 C.100 D.1,000
C.100
Which of the following is part of the pyramidal system of motor pathways? A. rubrospinal tract B. vestibulospinal tract C. corticospinal tract D. reticulospinal tract
C. corticospinal tract
Which of the following cells play a major role in the secretion of potassium?
A. Intercalated cells
B. Principal cells
C. Chief cells
D. Podocytes
B. Principal cells
Which of the following infrahyoid muscles is NOT supplied through the ansa cervicalis? A. Thyrohyoid B. Sternothyroid C. Sternohyoid D. Omohyoid
A. Thyrohyoid
the spinal cord proper ends at which of the following levels? A. L5/S1
B. S5
C. L2
D. L4
C. L2
Q: Although a small number of fibers in the slow-chronic paleospinothalamic pathway pass all the way to the thalamus, most fibers terminate in which of the following areas? A. Somatosensory cortex B. Basal nuclei C. Reticular formation D. Ventrobasal nuclei
C. Reticular formation
Cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following? A. Smooth muscles of the gut tract B. Skeletal muscles C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches D. Autonomic motor muscles
C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches
Q: Which of the following structures attach the menisci to the rims of the tibial plateaus? A. Coronary B. Cruciates C. Collaterals D. Fibular collateral ligament
A. Coronary
Flow of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes depends on a system of passageways within the bone matrix itself. Which of the following are responsible for conducting these nutrients directly to the osteocytes embedded within the bone?
A. Haversian canal
B. Volkmann canal
C. Canaliculi
D. Capillaries
C. Canaliculi
dihydropyridine (DHP) channels are part of which of the following structures?
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. plasmalemma
C. T tubules
D. Z discs
C. T tubules
Using the Flick principle for calculating the cardiac output, the patient’s oxygen consumption volume could be divided by which of the following?
A. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systemic mixed venous blood.
B. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the pulmonary vein.
C. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic mixed venous blood and the pulmonary vein.
D. The difference between the oxygen concentraiton in the systemic mixed venous blood and the pulmonary artery.
A. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systemic mixed venous blood.
Flick’s principle: cardiac output = oxygen absorption per minute / the difference in arteriovenous oxygen concentration
Arterial oxygen concentraiton - venous oxygen concentration is how much oxygen the body used from the blood as it fully circulated. Oxygen absorption from the blood will fully replenish this.
Which part of the cerebral cortex develops a “motor image” of the total muscle movement that is to be performed? A. primary motor cortex B. supplemental motor cortex C. premotor cortex D. supplemental sensory cortex
C. premotor cortex
Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following? A. Taste B. Sight C. Memory D. Equilibrium
D. Equilibrium
Two small cartilages possess two processes each, a muscular process and a vocal process. The vocal attachments of the two small cartilages are attached to the vocal ligaments. These cartilages are able to swivel by way of ball and socket type of joint, allowing them to increase or decrease tension on the vocal ligaments. The ball and socket joints allow these cartilages to swivel on which of the following? A. arytenoid cartilages B. corniculate cartilages C. cricoid cartilage D. cuneiform cartilages
C. cricoid cartilage
Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT exit the cranial cavity through the superior orbital fissure? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve D. Trochlear nerve
C. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve
Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS? A. They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all use acetylcholine B. They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine. C. Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine. D. Cell bodies are located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.
C. Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.
Which of the following conditions increases the systemic filling pressure by decreasing vascular compliance?
A. Lying down
B. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
C. Burn trauma
D. Inhibition of the sympathetic system
A. Lying down
Decreased concentrations of calcium ion in the plasma would have a direct effect on which of the following?
A. Activation of vitamin D3
B. Increase in interstitial calcium ion reabsorption
C. Increased release of parathyroid hormone
D. Release of calcium ion from bones
C. Increased release of parathyroid hormone
The anterior belly of the digastric nerve is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal
B. Trigeminal
High resistance in which of the following groups of vessels results in a disappearance in the phasic pressure pattern such as is seen in the aorta?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Systemic arterioles
C. Systemic veins
D. Pulmonary capillaries
B. Systemic arterioles
Resistance is the inverse of conductance/compliance and the less compliant a vessel is the less its volume changes with changes in pressure, such as those seen in the aorta.
The equation for pulse pressure is: (stroke volume) / (arterial compliance).
Identify the structure seen in the photo micrograph below.
A. Meissner’s corpuscle
B. Hassal’s corpuscle
C. Arteriole
D. Pacini corpuscle
D. Pacini corpuscle
Q: Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo the most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle? A. Endometrium B. Myometrium C. Perimetrium D. Mensometrium
A. Endometrium
Reynolds number is a measure of which of the following parameters?
A. Tendency for turbulence
B. Blood pressure
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
A. Tendency for turbulence
A higher Reynolds number indicates a higher tendency for turbulence.
Which of the following may be considered to be the center for homeostasis? A.epithalamus B. hypothalamus C. thalamus D. RAS
B. hypothalamus
The infraorbital foramina (notches) are associated with which of the following? A. maxillary bone B. frontal bone C. zygomatic bone D. parietal bone
A. maxillary bone
Which of the following muscles is most important in rotating the greater tubercle from under the acromion during full arm elevation?
A. Teres minor
B. Infraspinatus
C. Supraspinatus
D. Subscapularis
E. Pectoralis minor
B. Infraspinatus
Coordination of skilled movement and speech is primarily associated with which of the following divisions of the cerebellum? A. vestibulocerecellum B. spinocereceullum C. cerecrocerecellum D. vermis
C. cerevrocerebellum
Q: The ligamentum teres attaches to the fovea of the head of the femur and supports a small artery that supplies the head of the femur. This small artery is a branch of which of the following? A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Superficial iliac D. Pudendal
B. Obturator
Special visceral motor (SVM) modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves? A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XII
A. Cranial nerve IX
a median-sagital plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes?
A. cranial caudal and the left-right axes
B. cranial caudal and the anterior -posterior axes
C. left-right and anterior-posterior axes
D. none of the above
B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes
Which of the following nerves enters the forearm by passing between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
A. Ulnar
Q: The thalamus is derived from which of the following brain divisions? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon
B. Diencephalon
Identify the larger, reddish cells below.
A. Pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex
B. Purkinje cells of the cerebral cortex
C. Psuedounipolar cortex
D. Neuroglial cells
A. Pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex
Lecture 15, Slide 29
Which of the following nerves does not innervate the intrinsic muscles of the plantar surface of the foot? A. tibial B. deep fibular C. superficial fibular D. lateral plantar
B. deep fibular
Which of the following arteries branches from the third part of the maxillary artery? A. Posterior superior alveolar B. Buccal C. Inferior alveolar D. Middle meningeal
A. Posterior superior alveolar
The chorda tympani carries branches of which of the following nerves inside the petrous portion of the temporal bone? A. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve
B. Facial nerve
The anterior and middle superior alveolar arteries are direct branches of which of the following? A. Second part of the maxillary artery B. Mandibular artery C. Infraorbital artery D. Buccal artery
C. Infraorbital artery
Which of the following BEST represents the most important function of insulin in the body? A. Activates phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose by the liver. B. Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy. C. Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids. D. Activates the ornithine transport mechanism.
B. Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy.
the anterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and brachialis muscles. which of the following nerves suppolies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the brachium?
A. ulnar nerve
B. median nerve
C. radial nerve
D. musculocutaneous nerve
E. axillary nerve
D. musculocutaneous nerve
Lesions affecting the trigeminal nerve resulting in loss of general sensation to the face on the same side and paralysis to muscles of mastication occur in which brain subdivision? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon
D. Metencephalon
Blood flow resistance is inversely (indirectly) proportional to which of the following?
A. Viscosity
B. Vessel diameter
C. Density
D. Both A and C
B. Vessel diameter
An equation for blood flow resistance is: (8 x vessel length x viscosity) / (π x R^4).
Without autoregulation, a slight increase in blood pressure could increase GFR up to 225 L/day. How much would this increase urine flow (excretion).
A. 20L/day
B. 32.7 L/day
C. 46.5 L/day
D. 180 L/day
C. 46.5 L/day
In the photomicrograph below, identify the specific type of cell indicated by the arrow.
A. Chief cell
B. Paneth cell
C. Parietal cell
D. Goblet cell
B. Paneth cell
Lecture 24, Slide 30
about two-thirds of filtered electrolytes are reabsorbed in which part of the kidney tubule?
A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. thin descending loop of Henle
C. thick ascending loop of Henle
D. distal convoluted tubule
A. proximal convoluted tubule
Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands? A. Occulomotor nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Facial nerve
Identify the type of tissue shown in this slide.
A. Areolar connective tissue
B. Hyaline cartilage
C. Nervous tissue
D. Irregular dense connective tissue
A. Areolar connective tissue
Lecture 8, Slide 13
Identify the following type of tissue.
A. Dense irregular connective tissue
B. Fibrous connective tissue
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Smooth muslce
D. Smooth muslce
Lecture 14, Slide 13
In order for an acetylcholine-gated ion channel to open, how many Ach molecules are necessary to attach to its alpha subunits? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
B. Two.
which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG
A. sinus tachycardia
B. sinus bradycardia
C. complete AV block
D. incomplete second degree block with dropped beats
C. complete AV block
identify the muscle indicated by the arrow
A. latissimus dorsi
B. trapezius
C. thomboid major
D. rhomboid minor
B. trapezius
This protein extends from the Z band of a sarcomere and serves as a template to regulate the length of an actin filament.
A. Titin
B. Z-actin
C. Troponin
D. Nebulin
E. Plectin
D. Nebulin
The inferior alveolar nerve passes through the mandibular canal and terminates as the mental nerve. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Hypoglossal D. Glossopharyngeal
C. Hypoglossal
The origin of the axons that make up the optic nerve originate from which of the following? A. Rod cells of the retina B. Amacrine cells of the retina C. Ganglion cells of the retina D. Cone cells of the retina
C. Ganglion cells of the retina
postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head? A. superior sympathetic ganglion B. middle sympathetic ganglion C. inferior sympathetic ganglion D. stellate ganglion
A. superior sympathetic ganglion
The skin over the hypothenar eminence is supplied by which of the following nerves?
A. Superficial radial
B. Deep radial
C. Ulnar
D. Median
E. Posterior interosseous
C. Ulnar
Prothrombin is the inactive form of thrombin. It is activated by which of the following factors when the factor comes into contact with collagen in the damaged vessel wall?
A. Factor V
B. Factor X
C. Factor XII
D. Factor XIII
C. Factor XII
The vesicles for acetylcholine are transported to the axon terminal from where? A. Rough ER B. Smooth ER C. The axon terminal membrane D. Golgi
D. Golgi
Which of the following conditions may result in tachycardia?
A. Toxic conditions of the heart
B. Increased body temperature
C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
D. All of the above (toxic conditions of the heart, increased body temperature, and sympathetic nerve stimulation)
the output from the cerebellar cortex is from which of the following types of neurons? A. Golgi type I B. Purkinje C. Stellate D. Basket
B. Purkinje
Q: Most of the nerves of the lumbar plexus extend lateral to the psoas major muscle. Which of the following nerves pierces the psoas major and lies on its anterior surface? A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Ilioinguinal D. Iliohypogastric E. Genitofemoral
E. Genitofemoral
Which of the following acts as an antihypertensive agent by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicles? A. Methoxamine B. Albuterol C. Guanethidine D. Phenoxybenzadine
C. Guanethidine
Identify the tissue type.
A. Fibrous cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Membranous bone
C. Hyaline cartilage
Q: Which of the following structures passes through both the greater and the lesser sciatic foramina? A. Piriformis muscles B. Sciatic nerve C. Pudendal nerve D. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Pudendal nerve
Normally, how much hydrogen ions must be secreted each day in order to reabsorb 4320 mEq of filtered bicarbonate?
A. 2160 mEq
B. 4320 mEq
C. 8640 mEq
D. The two processes are independent of one another
B. 4320 mEq
Which of the following represents the area of the highest visual acuity?
A. Ora serrata
B. Optic disc
C. Foeva centralis
D. Macula densa
C. Foeva centralis
Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain suppression? A.red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. periaquaductal gray D. vagal lobes
C. periaquaductal gray
The cranial end of the embryonic neural tube becomes subdivided into five subdivisions, each of which forms specific parts of the adult brain. The thalamus is derived from which of the following subdivisions? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon
B. Diencephalon
the thalamus is derived from which of the following brain divisions? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon
B. diencephalon
Blood supply to the larynx is through superior and inferior laryngeal arteries. These are direct branches of which of the following? A. Inferior thyroid arteries B. Middle branches of the maxillary arteries C. Laryngeal branches of the external carotid artery D. Pharyngeal branches of the external carotid artery
A. Inferior thyroid arteries
Which of the following reflects the maximum urine concentration that can be produced by the kidneys?
A. 6000-7000 mOsm/L
B. 5500-6000 mOsm/L
C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L
D. 2000-2400 mOsm/L
C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L
Which of the following spaces separates hepatocytes from the endothelial cells in hepatic lobules?
A. Space of Disse
B. Space of Mall
C. Space of Herring
D. Space of Cholangiocele
A. Space of Disse
Lecture 26, Slide 21
Under normal conditions at rest, which of the following patterns regarding pulmonary blood flow would be most likely?
A. Apices: zone 1; middle part of lungs: zone 1; lower part of lungs: zone 3
B. Apices: zone 2; middle part of lungs: zone 2; lower part of lungs: zone 3
C. Apices: zone 2; middle part of lungs: zone 3; lower part of lungs: zone 3
D. Apices: zone 3; middle part of lungs: zone 2; lower part of lungs: zone 1
C. Apices: zone 2; middle part of lungs: zone 3; lower part of lungs: zone 3
Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects? A. Massive losses of calcium from the skeletal system. B. Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany. C. Laryngeal muscle spasms. D. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Laryngeal muscle spasms.
Q: Which of the following is the neurotransmitter used by many areas of the cerebral cortex and is always excitatory? A. Serotonin B. Glutamate C. Dopamine D. GABA E. Glycine
B. Glutamate
Two small cartilages possess two processes each, a muscular process and a vocal process. The vocal attachments of the two small cartilages are attached to the vocal ligaments. These cartilages are able to swivel by way of a ball-and-socket type of joint, allowing them to increase or decrease tension on the vocal ligaments. The ball-and-socket joints allow these cartilages to swivel on which of the following? A. Arytenoid cartilages B. Corniculate cartilages C. Cricoid cartilage D. Cuneiform cartilages
C. Cricoid cartilage
Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following? A.taste B.sight C. memory D. equilibrium
D. equilibrium
Which of the following are anchored to the presynaptic membrane and associated with synaptic vesicles to which they are tethered by short filaments? A. Synaptic vesicles B. Calcium channels C. Dense bars D. Dihydropyridine channel
C. Dense bars
Which of the following reflects the maximum urine concentration that can be produced by the kidneys?
A. 6000-7000 mOsm/L
B. 5500-6000 mOsm/L
C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L
D. 2000-2400 mOsm/L
C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L
in a typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria?
A. T
B. S
C. P
D. Q
C. P
The nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis are found in which of the following brain subdivisions? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon
E. myelencephalon
Electrotonic conduction is utilized predominantly by the: A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Axon hillock D. Synapse
B. Dendrite
The calcaneus bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot? A. hindfoot B. midfoot C. forefoot D. mortise and tenon joint
A. hindfoot
Which of the following describes a valid change in potassium distribution due to an acid-base abnormality?
A. Metabolic acidosis decreases extracellular K+ concentration
B. Metabolic alkalosis increases extracellular K+ concentration
C. Metabolic acidosis increases extracellular K+ concentration
D. Both A and B
C. Metabolic acidosis increases extracellular K+ concentrationV
The electrocardiogram shown indicates which of the following conditions?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. SA node block
D. AV block
D. AV block
There are several P waves present without a QRS segment. This means that the electrical activity generated from the SA node is not reaching the ventricle. This is characteristic of an AV block
extrensive bilateral lessions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions? A. consciousness of quadriplegic B. coma C. hypotonia D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities
B. coma
Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle? A. adductor magnus B. adductor longus C. sartorius D. pectineus
C. sartorius
Which of the following areas of the brain secretes melatonin and is involved in regulating circadian rhythms? A.thalamus B. hypothalamus C. pineal body D. inferior colliculi
C. pineal body
Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet? A. Parasympathetic; cholinergic B. Parasympathetic; adrenergic C. Sympathetic; cholinergic D. Sympathetic; adrenergic
C. Sympathetic; cholinergic
ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) is formed in the supraoptic and paraventriacular nulcei. It is secreted by specialized neurons from which of the following areas?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult? A. 175 B. 150 C. 125 D. 74 E. 15
C. 125
The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. Ovale B. Rotundum C. Spinosum D. Lacerum
C. Spinosum
Identify muscle in the drawing indicated by the number “1”.
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Extensor pollicis longus
D. Flexor carpi radialis longus
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma?
A. an action potential is created on the sarcolemma
B. dihydropyridine channels allow entry of calcium ions
C. an end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber
D. ryanodingaling channels is allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm
C. an end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber
What type of cell is depicted in the following photomicrograph?
A. Oligodendrocyte
B. Golgi type II cell
C. Astrocyte
D. Golgi type I cell
C. Astrocyte
In neuromuscular spindles, intrafusal fibers within the neuromuscular spindles are supplied by which of the following fibers?
A. Alpha fibers
B. Gamma fibers
C. Delta fibers
D. Beta fibers
E. None of the above
B. Gamma fibers
in the photomicrograph below, the arrow is pointing to which of the following layers?
A. stratum basale (germinativum)
B. stratus spinosum
C. stratum granulosum
D. stratum corneum
A. stratum basale (germinativum)
The thoracolumbar fascia is a triangular-shaped sheet of tough connective tissue covering the lower back. It is the partial site of origin of the latissimus dorsi and abdominal oblique muscles. This fascia can be divided into three layer or laminae. Which of the laminae attaches to the lumbar spinous processes?
A. Posterior
B. Middle
C. Anterior
D. All three layers attach to the lumbar spinous process
Posterior
The innervation of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles would be described by which of the following modalities? A. General visceral motor B. General somatic motor C. Special visceral motor D. Special somatic motor
C. Special visceral motor
Which of the following inserts onto the tubercle of the first rib between the shallow groove for the subclavian artery and vein?
A. Middle scalene
B. Anterior scalene
C. Posterior scalene
D. Sternocleidomastoid
Anterior scalene
Sequentially flexing, abducting, extending, and adducting your arm (brachium) in such a manner that the elbow describes a circular pattern is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Rotation B. Supination C. Circumduction D. Reposition E. Protraction
C. Circumduction
Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI, VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. medulla B. pons C. midbrain D. diencephalon
B. pons
nerve supplhy to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the following nerves?
A. lateral pectoral nerve
B. medial pectoral nerve
C. long thoracic nerve
D. spinal accessory nerve
E. thoracodorsal nerve
E. thoracodorsal nerve
How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human vertebral column? A. five B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine
C. seven
The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the second pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal
A. Facial
The photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs?
A. Fundic stomach
B. Ureter
C. Renal cortex
D. Tongue
B. Ureter
Which of the following nerves supplies the anterior brachium?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
Musculocutaneous
Ventral rami from which of the following levels of the spinal cord make up the cervical plexus? A. C1-C3 B. C1-C4 C. C1-C5 D. C2-C4
B. C1-C4
Which of the following types of cells stain with toluidine blue and are characterized by large metachromatic granules containing histamine, ECF-A, SRS-A, and heparin?
A. Fibrocyte
B. Plasma cells
C. Mast cells
D. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
which of the following landmakrs demarcates the sensory cortex from the motor cortex? A. lateral sulcus B. central sulcus C. insala D. angular gyrus
B. central sulcus
In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome? A. Primary spermatocytes B. Secondary spermatocytes C. Spermatids D. Mature sperm cells
B. Secondary spermatocytes
The aryepiglottic ligament and the corniculate cartilages form boundaries for which of the following? A.rima glottidis B. laryngeal inlet C. esophagus D. trachea
B. laryngeal inlet
Which muscle is contained within the superficial cervical fascia? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Platysma C. Pectoralis major D. Pectoralis minor E. Axillary muscle
B. Platysma
Phase 4 of the cardiac muscle action potential is the resting phase. Which of the following cardiac tissues will depolarize fastest during this phase and eventually reach threshold?
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. purkinje fibers
D. ventricular myocytes
A. SA node
Q: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the external sphincter? A. It extends the entire length of the anal canal. B. It is a thick ring of smooth muscle. C. It is controlled voluntarily via the pudendal nerve. D. It is supplied by the inferior rectal artery.
B. It is a thick ring of smooth muscle.
The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. Ovale B. Rotundum C. Spinosum D. Lacerum
C. Spinosum
The photomicrograph below depicts a section from which of the following organs?
A. Jejunum
B. Olfactory epithelium
C. Lip
D. Trachea
D. Trachea
Q: Which of the following functions as the major area for language comprehension? A. Broca’s area B. Medial geniculate nucleus C. Thalamus D. Wernicke’s area
D. Wernicke’s area
identify the reddish hollow structure in the center of the attached photomicrograph
A. vein
B. trachea
C. bronchiole
D. alveolar duct
C. bronchiole
Baroreceptors are extremely abundant in carotid sinuses and the walls of the aortic arch. Which of the following transmit signals from baroreceptors to cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)?
A. Mueller nerves
B. Hering nerves
C. Starling nerves
D. Purkinje nerves
B. Hering nerves
If the end-diastolic volume is 120 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 50 ml, what is the approximate value of the ejection fraction? A. 42% B. 60% C. 214% D. 240%
B. 60%
Q: In the slow-chronic paleospinothalamic pathway a small number of fibers pass all the way to the thalamus, but most fibers terminate where? A. In the somatosensory cortex B. In the basal nuclei C. In the reticular formation D. In the ventrobasal nuclei
C. In the reticular formation
Which of the following orient themselves on the outside of micelles? A.cholesterol B. Free fatty acids C. Carbohydrates D. Bile Salts
D. Bile Salts
Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland? A. Vagus nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Identify the type of cell indicated by the arrow.
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Monocyte
D. Basophil
E. Eosinophil
C. Monocyte
Lecture 12, Slide 30
Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)? A. There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases. B. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases. C. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases. D. There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases.
C. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases.
In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells and granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the secretory activities of these cells? A.both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogens but not androgens B.both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogens and androgens C.thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens D.thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens
C.thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens
Approximately how much of the total cardiac output is received by the kidneys?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
A. 25%
Which of the following represents the viscosity of blood with a hematocrit of 38-42?
A. 1.5
B. 3.0
C. 38
D. 42
B. 3.0
The viscosity of blood plasma (blood minus the formed elements, essentially a hematocrit of 0%) is 1.5 due to plasma proteins.
The viscosity of blood with a hematocrit of 60-70% is ≈10.
During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources? A. granulosa cells B. cytotrophoblast cells C. maternal adrenal cortex D. maternal and fetal adrenal cortices
D. maternal and fetal adrenal cortices
identify tissue
adipose tissue
identify type of epithelium
stratified squamous non-keratinized
Identify the tissue type.
A. Smooth muscle
B. Dense fibrous connective tissue
C. Cardiac muslce
D. Stratified squamous epitheliumm
E. Kidney tubules
A. Smooth muscle
Q: Synaptic delay refers to the time it takes to transmit a signal from a presynaptic neuron to a postsynaptic neuron. It depends on a number of factors. Which of the following would NOT be associated with synaptic delay? A. Time it takes to release the neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron. B. Time it takes for the neurotransmitter to diffuse across the synaptic cleft. C. Time it takes to “jump” from one node of Ranvier to the next one. D. Time it takes for the receptor to increase membrane permeability.
C. Time it takes to “jump” from one node of Ranvier to the next one.
Which of the following hypaxial muscles is attached to the hyoid bone but is not part of the infrahyoid group? A. Sternothyroid B. Thyrohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Omohyoid
C. Geniohyoid
Afferent sensory neurons with cell bodies found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves are best described according to which of the following categories?
A. Multipolar neurons
B. Bipolar neurons.
C. Golgi type II neurons
D. Pseudounipolar neurons
D. Pseudounipolar neurons
Branches off the external carotid artery are grouped into terminal, anterior, posterior, or medial, depending on which direction they branch from the external carotid. Which of the following branches is a medial branch? A. Facial B. Maxillary C. Ascending pharyngeal D. Superior thyroid
C. Ascending pharyngeal
Which of the following respresnts the oxygen utilization coefficient at rest?
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
B. 25%
Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and the PO2 of the fetus? A.10 B.20 C.30 D.40
B.20
Which of the following structures would not be found in the superior mediastinum?
A. esophagus
B. azygos vein
C. vagus nerves
D. thymus
E. trachea
B. azygos vein
Q: Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis? A. Pelvic brim B. Pelvic diaphragm C. Perineum D. Iliac crests
A. Pelvic brim
The anterior belly of the digastric nerve is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharygeal D. Hypoglossal
B. Trigeminal
The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following? A. An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex B. A regulatory sequence of DNA C. Phosphatidylinositol biphosphate component of a second-messenger system D. A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine
B. A regulatory sequence of DNA
Excessive variations in blood glucose gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following? A.Residual fluid in the lungs B. Underdeveloped central nervous system respiratory center C. High heart rate D. Frequent periods of apnea
D. Frequent periods of apnea
How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in the human?
A. five
B. six
C. seven
D. eight
E. nine
D. eight
which of the following cell types respond to rapid changes in the visual image? A. bipolar cells B. amacrine cells C. X type ganglion cells D. Y type ganglion cells E. Z type ganglion cells
D. Y type ganglion cells
Nerve supply to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the following nerves?
A. Lateral pectoral nerve
B. Medial pectoral nerve
C. Long thoracic nerve
D. Spinal accessory nerve
E. Throacodorsal nerve
E. Throacodorsal nerve
Idenitify the type of cell shown in this slide.
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutorphil
D. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
Lecture 12, Slide 27
A sharp surge in which of the following hormones preceded ovulation by about 24 hours? A. LH B. FSH C.estrogen D. progesterone
A. LH
Identify muscles indicated by the number 1-3.
A. Dorsal interossei
B. Palmar interossei
C. Lumbricals
D. Flexor digitorum breves
Palmar interossei
In the photomicrograph below, the arrow is pointing to which of the following layers?
A. Stratum basale (germinativum)
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum corneum
A. Stratum basale (germinativum)
Identify the tissue type.
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Adipose tissue
C. Areolar connective tissue
D. Dense bone
A. Hyaline cartilage
What is the lowest limit of pH that can be achieved in the normal kidney?
A. 6.5
B. 5.0
C. 4.5
D. 2.5
C. 4.5
The sensory layer of the ciliary body produces aqueous humor. This fluid is first secreted into which of the following chambers?
A. Vitreous body
B. Anterior chamber
C. Posterior chamber
D. Canal of Schlemm
E. Choroid layer
C. Posterior chamber
The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the followign landmarks? A. PSIS B. PIIS C. ischial tuberosity D. ischial spine
D. ischial spine
Q: An eyeball that is too short will cause the light rays coming from distant objects to be focused behind the retina. This condition is referred to as which of the following? A. Emmetropia B. Hyperopia C. Myopia D. Astigmatism E. Presbytropia
B. Hyperopia
A 1-sodium, 2-chloride, and 1-potassium co-transporter is found in the luminal membrane of which part of the renal tubule?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Thin descending limb of Henle
C. Thick ascending limb of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Thick ascending limb of Henle
the vagus nerves pass through the diaphragm at which vertebral level?
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
C. T10
Aldosterone is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion; one of its main targets is…?
A. Podocytes
B. Principle cells
C. Intercalated cells
D. Cells of the macula densa
B. Principle cells
Which of the following types of cells possess prominent Golgi and extensive RER and that are described as having pale nuclei with a “clock-face” distribution of heterochromatin?
A. Fibrocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Mast cells
D. Macrophages
B. Plasma cells
identify type of gland shown in the photomicrograph below A. submandibular
B. sebaceous
C. parotid
D. Bowman’s
B. sebaceous
Which of the following lingual papillae are located along the sulcus terminalis of the tongue as projections surrounded by a moat (circular furrow)?
A. Lingual
B. Fungiform
C. Filiform
D. Cicrumvallate
D. Cicrumvallate
Approximately how much of the body’s supply of calcium is stored in bone?
A. 1%
B. 47%
C. 78%
D. 99%
D. 99%
Which of the following transcription factors induces proliferation and self-renewal of satellite cells allowing them to become mitotic in times of stress?
A. MyoD
B. Erythropoietin
C. Myogenic regulatory factor My5
D. α7β1 integrin
A. MyoD
Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the adductor pollicis muscle?
A. Ulnar nerve only
B. Median nerve only
C. Both the ulnar nerve and te median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve.
Ulnar nerve only
Identify the tissue shown in this slide.
A. Areolar connective tissue
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Nervous tissue
D. Irregular dense connective tissue
A. Areolar connective tissue
Lecture 8, Slide 12
Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction? A. puborectalis B. pubococcygeus C. coccygeus D. iliococcygeus
A. puborectalis
the axis of rotation for flexion and extension is…?
A. longitudinal or cranial-caudal
B. left-right or transverse
C. anterior-posterior
D. none of the above
B. left-right or transverse
Which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle? (A) A band (B) H band (C) I band (D) J band
(A) A band
Most of the filtered electrolytes are reabsorbed in which of the following regions of the kidney tubule?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Early collecting duct
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
approximately what percent of the body’s calcium is stored in extracellular fluids? A. less than 1 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. more than 75 percent
A. less than 1 percent
Identify the tissue type.
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Dense bone
C. Trabecular bone
D. Warton’s jelly
C. Trabecular bone
Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain suppression? A. Red nucleus B. Restiform bodies C. Periaquaductal gray D. Vagal lobes
C. Periaquaductal gray
Identify the layer indicated by the arrow.
A. Inner plexiform layer
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Outer plexiform layer
D. Ganglion nuclear layer
B. Outer nuclear layer
Lecture 16, Slide 33
Proper chewing (mastication) requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible? A. Temporalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid D. Temporalis
D. Temporalis
The human immunodeficiency virus selectively binds to the CD4 antigens. Which of the following types of lymphocytes would be most directly affected by this virus?
A. Cytolytic T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Natural killer T cells
D. Macrophages
B. Helper T cells
Lecture 18, Slide 18-19
Q: Which of the following is a measure of how much a lens bends light waves and is equal to 1 meter divided by the focal length of the lens? A. Refractive index B. Visual acuity C. Refractive power D. Depth of focus
C. Refractive power
Q: The medial boundary of the linea aspera is a continuation of which of the following landmarks? A. Pectineal line B. Gluteal tuberosity C. Soleal line D. Intertrochanteric crest E. Intertrochanteric line
A. Pectineal line
An inability to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to which of the following nerves?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Anterior interosseous nerve
C. Deep radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Median nerve
Median nerve
respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by hyperventilation is compensated for by which of the following mechanisms? A. increased ventilation rate B. decreased ventilation rate C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion D. renal addition of new bicarbonate ion to extracellular fluid (this is a phys I question)
C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion
Collaterals from the auditory tracts activate the entire nervous system in response to loud noises. Where would you expect these collaterals to terminate? A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Red nucleus D. Reticular activating system
D. Reticular activating system
which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle? A. A band
B. H band
C. I band
D. J band
E. sgt. pepper’s lonely hearts club band
A. A band
The range in the pressure change (in cm of water) in alveolar pressure during inspiration is expressed by which of the following?
A. 0 to -1
B. -5 to -7.5
C. -7.5 to -5
D. -1 to 0
A. 0 to -1
Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is NOT supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. Lateral rectus B. Inferior oblique C. Medial rectus D. Inferior rectus
A. Lateral rectus
Insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis is on the:
A. Base of the second metacarpal
B. Tubercle of the scaphoid
C. Base of the third metacarpal
D. Hamulus of the hamate
C. Base of the third metacarpal
The mandibular branch of the trigeminal exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A. Foramen ovale B. Foramen spinosum C. Foramen rotundum D. Foramen lacerum
A. Foramen ovale
Which interneurons are responsible for inhibition of antagonistic muscle groups? A. Renshaw cells B. Ia inhibitory interneurons C. Ib inhibitory interneurons D. Gamma motor neurons
B. Ia inhibitory interneurons
Which of the following forms the anterior boundary of the infratemporal fossa? A. TMJ and styloid process B. Sphenoid bone C. Maxilla D. Zygomatic arch
C. Maxilla
Q: Collaterals from the auditory tracts activate the entire nervous system in response to loud noises. Where would you expect these collaterals to terminate? A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Red nucleus D. Reticular activating system
D. Reticular activating system
baroreceptors are a type of stretch receptor located in the arterial walls of the carotid system. They sense an increase in arterial pressure. Which of the following statements might best describe the purpose of these receptors?
A. they act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessels dilation and an increase in heart pumping capacity
B. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity
C. they act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and a decrease in heart pumping capactiy
D. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and an increase in heart pumping capacity
B. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity
A selectivity filter with carbonyl oxygens is associated with which of the following kinds of ion channels? A. Gated sodium B. Non-gated sodium C. Potassium D. Chloride
C. Potassium
Aldosterone is the major mineralcorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex? A. Zona glomerulosa B. Zona fasciculata C. Zona reticularis D. Zona medullaris
A. Zona glomerulosa
Excess potassium in the extracellular fluid would have which of the following effects on heart activity? A. Heart will become dilated. B. Heart rate will increase. C. Heart will go toward spastic contraction. D. Heart action potential will increase
A. Heart will become dilated.
The axilla is generally described as a truncated pyramid with a quadrangular base. The anterior and posterior borders can be palpated and are created by muscles. The anterior border (anterior axillary fold) of the base of the axilla is formed by which of the following muscles or muscle groups? A. Pectoralis major B. Latissimus dorsi C. Latissimus dorsi and teres major D. Pectoralis minor E. Pectoralis major and pectoralis minor
A. Pectoralis major
The bicarbonate buffer system consists of a bicarbonate salt and which of the following?
A. Weak acid
B. Strong acid
C. Weak base
D. Strong base
A. Weak acid
Which of the following mechanisms would most likely serve as the major immediate factor in compensating for an acute myocardial infarction?
A. Renin-angiotensin system
B. Aldosterone
C. Sympathetic response
D. Intravenous fluid therapy
C. Sympathetic response
Myocardial infarction results in localized weakening of cardiac muscle tissue and decreases cardiac output.
Sympathetic stimulation will increase the force of contraction of muscle tissue and constrict most vessels resulting in increased venous return. Both of these act to compensate for the decrease in cardiac output.
Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals? A. pallium B. mid-ventricular ridge C. neocortex D. paleocortex
C. neocortex
In females, a sharp rise of gonadotropins to almost 60 percent times that at birth occurs during which of the following periods? A. menopause B.just prior to each ovulation phase C. puberty D. old age
A. menopause
The connective tissue membrane that surrounds each fascicle of a skeletal muscle and physically supports blood vessels and nerves supplying the fascicles is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Perimysium B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Endotendineum
A. Perimysium
olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following? A. sphenoethmoidal recess B. cribiform plate C. optic canals D. lateral pterygoid foraminae
B. cribiform plate
Q: The Pacinian corpuscle is a specialized pressure receptor built around the axon of a sensory neuron. Local potentials are created when layers around the sensory nerve ending are deformed as a result of the application of pressure to the skin. Where in the transmission pathway are these local potentials converted to an axon potential? A. Axon hillock B. Cell body of the neuron C. First node of Ranvier D. Within the capsule surrounding the end of the neuron
C. First node of Ranvier
ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) is found in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei. It is secreted by specialized neurons from which of the following areas?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
Histocytes, dust cells, microglia, and Kupffer cells are forms of which of the following?
A. Fibrocytes.
B. Plasma cells
C. Mast cells
D. Macrophages
D. Macrophages
Which of the following events is generally not seen on a typical ECG?
A. atrial depolarization
B. atrial repolarization
C. ventricular depolarization
D. ventricular depolarization
B. atrial repolarization
Atrial repolariztaion is hidden by the QRS complex.
Using the Flick principle for calculating the cardiac output, the pateient’s resting oxygen consumption volume should be divided by which of the following?
A. The difference between oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systematic mixed venous blood.
B. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the pulmonary vein.
C. The difference between the oxygen concentraiton in the systemic mixed blood and the pulmonary vein.
D. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic mixed venous blood and the pulmonary artery.
A. The difference between oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systematic mixed venous blood.
Humidification of air in the alveoli has which of the following effects on the partial pressure of nitrogen and oxygen in the alveoli?
A. It increases the partial pressure of each of the other gases.
B. It decreases the partial pressures of each of the other gases.
C. It has no effect on the partial pressure pressures of each of the other gases.
D. It increases the partial pressure of oxygen but decreases partial pressure of nitrogen in the alveolar air.
B. It decreases the partial pressures of each of the other gases.
The resting potential for a typical neuron, such as a motor neuron, is best represented by which of the following potentials? A. 74mV B. -74 mV C. 90mV D. -90 mV
D. -90 mV
The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior muscle is the external surfaces of the lateral parts of ribs 1-9. The distal attachment is the anterior surface of the medial border of the scapula. Damage to the nerve that supplies this muscle results in “winging” of the scapula. Which of the following innervates the serratus anterior muscle?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. lateral pectoral nerve
C. Median pectoral nerve
D. Intercostal nerves 1-9
Long thoracic nerve
“Adrenal diabetes” may occur due to excess of which of the following? A. Aldosterone B. Mineralocorticoids C. Glucocorticoids D. Androgenic hormones
C. Glucocorticoids
84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. Of this, 64% is in which of the following vessels?
A. capillaries
B. systemic arteries
C. veins
D. arterioles
C. veins
Signals from peripheral baroreceptors have which of the following effect(s) on the cardiac centers in the brain stem?
A. Inhibit vasoconstrictor and excite vasodilator centers
B. Inhibit both vasoconstrictor and vasodilator centers
C. Inhibit vasodilator and excite vasoconstrictor centers
D. Excite both vasoconstrictor and vasodilator centers
A. Inhibit vasoconstrictor and excite vasodilator centers
Peripheral baroreceptors increase stimulation of the vagus nerve and Herring’s nerves with increased blood pressure. Increased stimulation of these nerves lead to stimulation of the vasodilator center which then inhibits the vasoconstrictor center resulting in vasodilation. A decrease in blood pressure has the opposite effect as long as blood pressure remains above 60 mmHg in the carotid artery.
Olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following? A.sphenoethmoidal recess B. cribriform plate C. optic canals D. lateral pterygoid foraminae
B. cribriform plate
The navicular bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot? A. hindfoot B. midfoot C. forefoot D. mortise and tenon joint
B midfoot
Which of the following muscles attaches to the coracoid process?
A. Short head of the biceps brachii
B. Triceps lateralis
C. Pectoralis major
D. Long head of the biceps brachii
E. Subclavius
Short head of the biceps brachii
Q: Which of the following is one of the major functions of the thalamus? A. Control large skeletal muscle movement B. Initiate cognitive processes C. Relay all sensory information, except smell, to the cerebral cortex D. Connect the nervous system to the endocrine system
C. Relay all sensory information, except smell, to the cerebral cortex
control functions for muscle movements of the axial body, neck, shoulders , and hips is located in which of the following areas of the cerebellum? A. vermis B. intermediate zone C. lateral zone D. cerebroverebellum
A. vermis
Q: The medial boundary of the linea aspera on the posterior surface of the femur continues inferiorly as which of the following landmarks? A. Lateral supracondylar line B. Posterior boundary of popliteal fossa C. Medial boundary of popliteal fossa D. Medial supracondylar line
D. Medial supracondylar line
Characteristics of primary hypertension would NOT include which of the following?
A. Sympathetic nerve activity
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Activation of renal-pressure naturesis mechanism
D. Increased levels of angiotension II and aldosterone in obese patients
C. Activation of renal-pressure naturesis mechanism
Activation of renal-pressure naturesis mechanism would correct for hypertension by increasing release of water and sodium which decreases blood volume.
Which of the following nerves are terminal branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus? A. Median and ulnar B. Radial and ulnar C. Axillary and radial D. Long thoracic and medial E. Ulnar and axillary
C. Axillary and radial
An increase in which of the following factors will result in a decrease in glomerular hydrostatic pressure?
A. Arterial pressure
B. Afferent arteriolar pressure
C. Efferent arteriolar pressure
D. Both B and C
E. All of the above
B. Afferent arteriolar pressure
Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration
Q: The popliteal fossa is formed by the borders of four muscles. Which of the following pairs of muscles forms the inferior boundaries of the popliteal fossa? A. Semimembranosus and biceps femoris B. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus C. Medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius D. Popliteus and peroneus
C. Medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius
Circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly shortened.
B. Fibrillation may occur when the pathway around the circle is too short.
C. Fibrillation may occur when the conduction velocity slows down.
D. Fibrillation may occur when the heart become dilated.
B. Fibrillation may occur when the pathway around the circle is too short.
Circus movements occur when the point where a wave of depolarization in cardiac tissue originates from has repolarized by the time the wave of depolarization has returned to that spot. This causes the tissue to depolarize again but this time out of sync with the hearts pacemaker.
Identify the layer indicated by the arrow.
A. Inner plexiform layer
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Outer plexiform layer
D. Inner nuclear layer
B. Outer nuclear layer
Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation, and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to “adrenal diabetes”? A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Angiotensin II D. Pregnenolone
B. Cortisol
Q: Which of following muscles of the anterior thigh inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur? A. Sartorius B. Iliopsoas C. Pectineus D. Adductor brevis
B. Iliopsoas
Precapillary sphincters are associated with which of the following types of vessels?
A. Small arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Metarterioles
D. Capillaries
C. Metarterioles
Metarterioles lack a smooth muslce coating that is found on most other vessels excluding capillaries.
Capillaries are found beyond the precapillary sphincters.
Which of the following factors would decrease venous return and increase right atrial pressure?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Vasodilation
C. Decreased venous compliance
D. Increased ADH secretion
A. Hemorrhage
Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information form the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia? A. Trigeminal (semilunar) B. Geniculate C. Superior salivatory nucleus D. Inferior salivatory nucleus
A. Trigeminal (semilunar)
Which of the following muscles is not part of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg? A. plantaris B. gastrocnemius C. soleus D. peroneous (fibularis) tertius
D. peroneous (fibularis) tertius
The dorsal interosseous muscles are found in which of the following layers of the sole of the foot? A. first B. second C. third D. forth
D. forth
cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following?
A. chondroblasts
B. osteoclasts
C. chondroblasts
D. chondrocytes
E. fibroblasts
C. chondroblasts
Q: Which of the following landmarks demarcates the sensory cortex from the motor cortex? A. Lateral sulcus B. Central sulcus C. insula D. Angular gyrus
B. Central sulcus
Q: In typical sensory pathways, decussation occurs at what level? A. Primary (first order) neurons B. Secondary (second order) neurons C. Tertiary (third order) neurons D. None of the above
B. Secondary (second order) neurons
In the ECG shown, which of the following heart activities is represented?
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Complete AV block
D. Incomplete second degree block
B. Sinus bradycardia
Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the dorsal interosseous muscles?
A. Ulnar nerve only
B. Median nerve only
C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve
Ulnar nerve only
Which of the following factors is NOT quantitatively expressed on the venous return curve?
A. Mean systemic filling pressure
B. Right atrial pressure
C. Blood flow resistance between peripheral vessels and right atrium
D. Cardiac output
D. Cardiac output
Cardiac output is a sperate curve from the venous return curve.
The x-axis represents right atrial pressure, the intersection of the graph with the x-axis represents mean systemic filling pressure, and blood flow resistance can be calculated using mean systemic filling pressure, right atrial pressure, and venous return. (See slide 30 of cardiac output lecture)
The superior oblique extrinsic muscle of the eye is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves? A.occulomotor B. trochlear C. abducens D. opthalmic branch of cranial nerve V
B. trochlear
Alpha-actinin in smooth muscle cells is associated with anchoring actin filaments. It is found in which of the following structures in smooth muscle cells?
A. Caveolin monomers
B. Sphigolipids
C. Dense bodies
D. Dystrophin
C. Dense bodies
Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain supression? A. red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. periaquaductal gray D. vagal lobes
C. periaquaductal gray
Which of the following nerves wraps around the neck of the radius?
A. ulnar
B. median
C. radial
D. musculocutaneous
E. axillary
C. radial
while standing in the anatomical position, the palms of the hand are supinated
A. true
B. false
A. true
Identify the structure indicated by the arrow.
A. Bowman’s layer
B. Decement’s layer
C. Bruch’s membrane
D. Pigmented layer
A. Bowman’s layer
Lecture 16, Slide 15
identify the structure seen in the photomicrograph shown below
A. Meissner’s corpuscle
B. Hassall’s corpuscle
C. arteriole
D. pacini corpuscle
D. pacini corpuscle
The axis of rotation for flexion and extension is…? A. longitudinal or cranial-caudal B. left-right or transverse C. anterior-posterior D. none of the above
B. left-right or transverse
Glucose transporters (GLUT transporters) employ which of the following kinds of transport? A. Diffusion B. Primary active transport C. Secondary active transport D. Facilitated diffusion
D. Facilitated diffusion
Which of the following represents the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D.C3-7
C. C3-5
The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the caridac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A. pons B. medulla C. mesencephalon D. thalamus
A. pons
The suprascapular nerve is a direct branch from which of the following subdivisions of the brachial plexus? A. Root of C5 B. Superior trunk C. Middle trunk D. Lateral cord E. Medial cord
B. Superior trunk
Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye abducts the eyeball? A. Superior oblique B. Medial rectus C. Lateral rectus D. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
Melanin containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete serotonin and GABA are major components of which of the following? A.substantia nigra B. thalamus C. RAS D. superior colliculi
A.substantia nigra
Q: Reissner’s membrane separates which of the following pairs of chambers? A. Scala tympani/scala media B. Scala vestibuli/scala media C. Scala tympani/scala vestibule D. None of the above
B. Scala vestibuli/scala media
Branches off the external carotid artery are grouped into terminal, anterior, posterior, or medial, depending on which direction they branch from the external carotid. Which of the following branches is a medial branch? A. Facial B. Maxillary C. Ascending pharyngeal D. Superior thyroid
C. Ascending pharyngeal
the malleoli of the tibia and fibula form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon? A. calcaneus B. cuboid C. talus D. medial cuneiform
C. talus
During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? A. LH B.FSH C. estrogen D. progesterone
B.FSH
the heart is found in which of the following locations?
A. anterior superior mediastinum
B. middle superior mediastinum
C. anterior inferior mediastinum
D. middle inferior mediastinum
E. posterior inferior mediastinum
D. middle inferior mediastinum
Identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph.
A. Scala tympani
B. Stria vascularis
C. Scala vestibuli
D. Cochlear duct
D. Cochlear duct
Lecture 17, Slide 26
which of the following structures/spaces is associated with the spinal cord but not the brain? A. arachnoid membrane B. pia mater C. subdural space D. epidural space
D. epidural space
Which of the following describes the major function of the muscles that make up the lateral compartment of the leg? A. toe extension B. foot eversion C. toe adduction D. ankle plantar flexion
B. foot eversion
Which of the following muscles is necessary to “unlock” the knee from its extended position? A. plantaris B. popliteus C. soleus D. lateral head of the gastrocnemius
B. popliteus
Identify the following type of tissue.
A. Dense irregular connective tissue
B. Dense regular (white fibrous) connective tissue
C. Cardiac muslce
D. Smooth muslce
B. Dense regular (white fibrous) connective tissue
Lecture 8, Slide 15
which of the following kinds of cells is unique to the pancreas and is associated with the intercalated ducts?
A. alpha cells
B. paneth cells
C. centroacinar cells
D. acinar cells
C. centroacinar cells
Which of the following statements is true for the period of rapid ejection? A. It occurs when the left ventricular pressure is above 80 mm Hg. B. The semilunar valves are closed during this phase. C. It occurs during the last two-thirds of ejection. D. It results in the ejection of about 90% of the total volume of blood.
A. It occurs when the left ventricular pressure is above 80 mm Hg.
Which of the following terms does NOT refer to mature bone?
A. Lamellar
B. Spongy
C. Compact
D. Woven
E. Cancellous
D. Woven
Identify the type of cell shown in this slide.
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Monocyte
D. Basophil
E. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
Which of the following structures passes through Guyon’s canal?
A. Median nerve only
B. Radial artery only
C. Ulnar nerve only
D. Ulnar artery only
E. Both the ulnar nerve and artery
E. Both the ulnar nerve and artery
In a skeletal muscle fiber, which of the following extends from one myofibril to another and to the sarcolemma?
A. Desmin
B. Plectin
C. Alpha-beta-crystallin
D. Dystroglycan complex
A. Desmin
Which of the following factors results in decreased peripheral resistance (vessel dilation) leading to decreased blood pressure?
A. Increased production of angiotension II
B. Increased release of thromboxane
C. Increased release of catecholamines
D. Increase in atrionatriuretic peptide (ANP)
D. Increase in atrionatriuretic peptide (ANP)
ANP is released due to atrial stretch (increase atrial pressure) and increases renal naturesis which results in decreased
The non-photosensitive area of the retina lies anterior to which of the following landmarks?
A. Limbus
B. Ciliary body
C. Canal of Schlemm
D. Ora serrata
D. Ora serrata
Improper use of axillary crutches (crutch palsy) may damage which of the following nerves?
A. Radial
B. Axillary
C. Median
D. Ulnar
E. Musculocutaneous
B. Axillary
Q: Which of the following muscles is part of the posterior compartment of the thigh and attaches to the ischial tuberosity proximally and is capable of externally rotating the knee? A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus C. Biceps femoris (both heads) D. Adductor longus
C. Biceps femoris (both heads)
Pits coated with which of the following are often associated with endocytosis? A. Clathrin B. COPI C. COPII D. Coatamers E. Vinculin
A. Clathrin
Postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head? A. Superior sympathetic ganglion B. Middle sympathetic ganglion C. Inferior sympathetic ganglion D. Stellate ganglion
A. Superior sympathetic ganglion
A patient arrives at the emergency department of a large hospital with a kitchen knife protruding from his left anterior shoulder, just above his armpit. What artery is likely lacerated?
A. Subclavian artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Cephalic artery
B. Axillary artery
alsosterone is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion; one of its main targets is…?
A. podocytes
B. principal cells
C. intercalated cells
D. cells of macula densa
B. principal cells
Which of the following factors results in hypokalemia?
A. Cell lysis
B. Excess secretion of aldosterone
C. Strenuous exercise
D. Increased extracellular fluid osmolarity
B. Excess secretion of aldosterone
Fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following: A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate gland C. Cells of Leydig D. Sertoli cells
A. Seminal vesicles
The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex?\ A. puborectalis B. pubococcygeus C. coccygeus D. iliococcygeus
D. iliococcygeus
A 24-year old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine, her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats per minute (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate increases to 120 beats per minute. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing?
A. Decreased total peripheral resistance
B. Increased vasoconstriction
C. Increased afterload
D. Decreased venous return
D. Decreased venous return
Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns? A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Ansa cervicalis C. C2 D. C2-C3
B. Ansa cervicalis
“Winging of the scapula” may be the result of injury to which of the following nerves?
A. thoracodorsal
B. axillary
C. long thoracic
D. thoracoacromial
E. suprascapular
C. long thoracic
Which of the following represents the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7
C. C3-5
Q: The membranous fascia of the scrotum is also referred to as which of the following? A. Buck fascia B. Dartos fascia C. Camper fascia D. Scarpa fascia
B. Dartos fascia
Which of the following nerves passes around the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
A. Ulnar
The anterior compartment of the leg is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. deep fibular (peroneal) nerve B. superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve C. tibial nerve D. obturator nerve
A. deep fibular (peroneal) nerve
An increase in which of the following factors will result in a decrease in glomerular hydrostatic pressure?
A. Arterial pressure
B. Afferent arteriolar pressure
C. Efferent arteriolar pressure
D. Both B and C
E. All of the above
B. Afferent arteriolar pressure
All of the following muscles elevate the mandible EXCEPT? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoid
Which of the following types of cells are found only in the bronchioles and secrete a surface-active lipoprotein that prevents collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation?
A. Type I alveolar cells
B. Type II alveolar cells
C. Clara cells
D. Dust cells
C. Clara cells
Lecture 21, Slide 37
White fibrous (dense regular) connective tissue is characterized by highly ordered bundles of collagen fibers separated by narrow compressed nuclei. This type of connective tissue would be most characteristic of which of the following anatomical structures? A. The matrix of organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes B. Tendons and ligaments C. Tunica adventitia of blood vessels D. Umbilical cord
B. Tendons and ligaments
Which of the following is the direction of bipolar lead III?
A. 0 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 120 degrees
D. 120 degrees
The connections of bipolar lead III are the left arm and the left leg.
Isovolumic contraction of the ventricles occurs: A. at the beginning of systole B. at the end of systole C. at the beginning of diastole D. after the opening of the semilunar valves
A. at the beginning of systole
84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. Of this, 64% is in which of the following?
A. Capillaries
B. Systemic arterioles
C. Veins
D. Arterioles
C. Veins
Which of the following descriptions best describes the location of the piriform fossae? A.lateral to the median glossoepiglottic fold B. inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. between the tonsillar pillars D. posterior to the uvula
B. inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds
Which of the following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human female sexual cycle? A.LH B.FSH C.estrogen D.progesterone
D.progesterone
which of the following statements is true? A. the liver has a low blood flow and high vascular resistance B. the liver has a low blood flow and low vascular resistance C. the liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance D. the liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance
D. the liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance
The action potential for both a ventricular cardiomyocyte and a Purkinje fiber exhibit a plateau phase (phases 1 and 2). Conductance of which of the following ions is responsible for phase 0? A. Calcium ions B. Potassium ions C. Sodium ions D. Both sodium and calcium ions
D. Both sodium and calcium ions
The sternal angle marks the union of the manubrium and sternebrae. It can be used to identify the location of which of the following landmarks? A. Clavicular-manubrium joint B. Site of the first ribs C. Site of the second ribs D. Site of the third ribs E. The apex of the hear
C. Site of the second ribs
Q: Which of the following areas is almost completely insensitive to visceral pain? A. Ureter B. Bile dict C. Liver parenchyma D. Parietal pleura
C. Liver parenchyma
Osmoreceptor cells are located in which of the following regions?
A. Adjacent to carotid bodies
B. In the macula densa
C. In the anterior part of the third ventricle
D. In the distal collecting ducts
C. In the anterior part of the third ventricle
The foramen lacerum is found in which of the following regions of the skull? A. anterior cranial fossa B. sella turcica C. middle cranial fossa D. posterior cranial fossa
C. middle cranial fossa
Identify the large cell in the center.
A. Pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex
B. Purkinje cell of the cerebellar cortex
C. Pseudounipolar cell
D. Neuroglial cell
B. Purkinje cell of the cerebellar cortex
Lecture 15, Slide 30
Reabsorption of bone matrix by osteoclasts involves removal of both the organic and the inorganic component of the matrix. Which of the following is secreted by osteoclasts to degrade the organic matrix of the bone?
A. Hydrogen and chloride ions
B. Osteopontin
C. Cathespin K
D. Osteoprotegrin
C. Cathespin K
Shrinkage of osmoreceptor cells in the anterior hypothalamus in response to an increase in extracellular fluid osmolarity leads to the release of which of the following?
A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotension I
C. Angiotension II
D. ADH
D. ADH
The basal membranes of thyroid cells contain symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported with iodine by these symporters? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Hydrogen
A. Sodium
Interstitial cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the testes during which of the following stages? A. At birth B. Early childhood C. After puberty D. Adulthood
B. Early childhood
which muscle separates the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity? A. quadratus femoris B. obturator internus C. superior gemellus D. ingerior gemellus E. piriformis
E. piriformis
Which of the following has antihypertensive actions as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings? A. Methoxamine B. Reserpine C. Hexamethionium D. Isoproteronal
B. Reserpine
Renin is secreted by which of the following?
A. Liver
B. Macula densa cells
C. Atrial cells of the heart
D. Mesangial cells
E. Juxtaglomerular cells
E. Juxtaglomerular cells
identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph
A. scala tympani
B. stria vascularis
C. tectorial membrane
D. vestibular membrane
D. vestibular membrane
Which of the following descriptions best describes the location of the piriform fossae? A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic fold B. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. Between the tonsillar pillars D. Posterior to the uvula
B. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds
identify the layer indicated by the arrow
A. inner plexiform layer
B. outer nuclear layer
C. outer plexiform layer
D. ganglion nuclear layer
B. outer nuclear layer
Q: Stereocilia (hairs) of the auditory hair cells are embedded in which of the following? A. Reissner’s membrane B. Basilar membrane C. Tectorial membrane D. Reticular lamina
C. Tectorial membrane
during the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? A. LH B. FSH C. estrogen D. progesterone
B. FSH
Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels? A. 12 mg/dl B. 9.5 mg/dl C. 6 mg/dl D. 4 mg/dl
D. 4 mg/dl
identify large cell in the center of the photomicroraph
A. motor neuron n anterior horn of spinal cord
B. astrocyte in cerebral cortex
C. olifodendrocyte in paravertebral ganglion
D. pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion
D. pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion
Identify the secretory product of the cell indicated below by the arrow.
A. Pepsin
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Renin
D. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Hydrochloric acid
Lecture 23, Slide 58
Identify muscle whose tendon passes through groove 13 as shown in the photograph of the distal end of the radius.
a. abductor pollicis longus
b. Extensor pollicis brevis
c. Extensor carpi radialis longus
d. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Identify the structure the arrow is pointing to.
A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp
B. Splenic red pulp
C. Intercalated pancreatic duct
D. High endothelial vein in lymph node
A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp
Lecture 18, Slide 72
In the photomicrograph below, the arrow points to which of the following structures?
A. Splenic arteriole
B. Splenic red pulp
C. Lymph node trabecula
D. Trabecula of thymus
C. Lymph node trabecula
Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System
Slide 44
The arrow in the photomicrograph below is pointing to which of the following structures?
A. Bowman’s membrane
B. Decemet’s membrane
C. Bruch’s membrane
D. Pigmented layer
A. Bowman’s membrane
Identify muscle shown in red.
A. Supraspinatus
B. Subscapularis
C. Teres minor
D. Teres major
Teres minor
identify type of duct shown by arrow
A. interlobar
B. intterlobular
C. intralobular
D. main duct
B. interlobular
Identify the structure/layer on the photomicrograph below that is marked with an asterisk.
A. Tunica media
B. External elastic lamina
C. Internal elastic lamina
D. Tunica adventitia
E. Smooth muscle
D. Tunica adventitia
identify type of epithelium
A. transitional
B. stratified cuboidal
C. simple columnar
D. stratified squamous keratinized
E. stratified squamous non-keratinized
C. simple columnar
identify the type of cell shown in this slide
A. lymphocyte
B. neutrophil
C. monocyte
D. basophil
E. eosinophil
B. neutrophil
identify the type of tissue shown in the following photomicrograph
A. hyaline cartilage
B. dense fibrous connective tissue
C. areolar connective tissue
D. compact bone
E. spongy bone
D. compact bone
identify layer indicated by arrow
A. tunica media
B. external elastic lamina
C. internal elastic lamina
D. tunica adventitia
C. internal elastic lamina
Identify the structure indicated by the arrow in the attached photomicrograph.
A. Germinal center
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Glomerulus
D. GALT
C. Glomerulus
Identify the type of cell shown in this slide.
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Monocyte
D. Basophil
E. Eosinophil
A. Lymphocyte
In the photomicrograph below identify the specific structure indicated by the arrow.
A. Axon
B. Axon hillock
C. Dendrite
D. Telodendrite
A. Axon
Identify the specific type of cell indicated by the arrow in the attached photomicrograph.
A. Podocyte
B. Paneth cell
C. Parietal cell
D. Mesangial cell
A. Podocyte
identify the following type of tissue
A. dense irregular connective tissue
B. fibrous connective tissue
C. cardiac muscle
D. smooth muscle
D. smooth muscle
which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG (lead I)?
A. sinus tachycardia
B. sinus bradycardia
C. complete AV block
D. incomplete second degree block with dropped beats
A. Suns tachycardia
the photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs?
A. fundic stomach
B. ureter
C. renal crotex
D. tongue
B. ureter
In the photomicrograph below, he arrow is pointing to which of the following structures?
A. Pigmented layer of the retina
B. Sensory layer of the retina
C. Choroid
D. Sclera
B. Sensory layer of the retina
The following photomicrograph shows a portion of an epiphyseal plate. The specific region of the growth plate indicated by the letter “B” represents which of the following growth plate zones?
A. Calcification zone
B. Proliferative zone
C. Reserve zone
D. Hypertrophic zone
D. Hypertrophic zone
The photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs?
A. Jejunum
B. Fundic stomach
C. Renal medulla
D. Duodenum
B. Fundic stomach
Lecture 23, Slide 62
In the attached photomicrograph, identify specific types of cells indicated by arrow and the type of bone formation shown here.
A. Chondroblasts and endochondral bone growth
B. Osteoclasts and endochondral bone growth
C. Osteoclasts and intramembrane bone formation
D. Osteoblasts and intramembrane bone formation
D. Osteoblasts and intramembrane bone formation
Identify the later indicated by the arrow.
A. Tunica meida
B. External elastic lamina
C. Internal elastic lamina
D. Tunica adventitia
C. Internal elastic lamina
Lecture 20, Slide 18
Identify the type of gland shown in the photomicrograph below.
A. Submandibular
B. Sebaceous
C. Parotid
D. Bowman’s
B. Sebaceous
Lecture 19, Slide 34
Identify the tendon of the muslce indicated by the arrow.
A. Extensor pollicis brevis
B. Extensor pollicis longus
C. Abductor pollicis longus
D. Abductor pollicis brevis
B. Extensor pollicis longus
in the photomicrograph below, identify the group of cells
A. juxtaglomerular apparatus
B. collecting duct
C. ascending loop of Henle
D. macula densa
D. macula densa
The large reddish blood cell shown in this photomicrograph represents which of the following kinds of cells?
A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Lymphocyte
C. Eosinophil
Identify the type of epithelium shown in this slide.
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Stratified cuboidal
C. Simple squamous
D. Stratified squamous keratinized
E. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
E. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
Lecture 4, Slide 4
in the photomicrograph below, identify the structure indicated by the red star.
A. trochlea
B. lateral supracondylar ridge
C. medial supracondylar ridge
D. capitulum
E. olecranon fossa
A. trochlea
In the photomicrograph below, identify the group of cells indicated by the arrow.
A. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
B. Collecting duct
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Macula densa
D. Macula densa
Identify the nerve indicated in the drawing of the region of the elbow.
A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Median
B. Ulnar
identify type of gland
A. parotid gland
B. sublingual gland
C. submandibular gland
D. thyroid gland
E. liver
B. sublingual gland
Identify the muscle whose tendon passes through groove 13 as shown in the photograph of the distal end of the radius.
A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Extensor carpi radialis longus
D. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
C. Extensor carpi radialis longus
In the photomicrograph below, identify the muscle that attaches to the large red area (1)
A. supraspinatus
B. subscapularis
C. infraspinatus
D. teres major
E. teres minor
C. infraspinatus
The electrocardiogram below indicates which of the following conditions?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. SA node block
D. AV block
A. Tachycardia
Identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph.
A. Scala tympani
B. Stria vascularis
C. Tectorial membrane
D. Vestibular membrane
B. Stria vascularis
Lecture 17, Slide 26
What type of cell is depicted in the following photomicrograph?
A. Astrocyte
B. Pseudounipolar neuron
C. Motor neuron
D. Bipolar neuron
B. Pseudounipolar neuron
Identify the large cell in the center of the photomicrograph.
A. Motor neuron in the anterior horn of spinal column
B. Astrocyte in cerebral cortex
C. Oligodendrocyte in paraverterbal ganglion
D. Pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion
D. Pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion
Lecture 15, Slide 84
What type of epithelium is shown here?
A. simple cuboidal
B. simple sqamous
C. stratified squamous
D. simple columnar
E. stratified columnar
D. simple columnar
what type of epithelium is shown here?
A. simple cuboidal
B. simple squamous
C. stratified squamous
D. simple columnar
E. stratified columnar
A. simple cuboidal
Identify the nerve that provides cutaneous innervation on to the skin on the posterior surface of the upper extremity as shown in the diagram.
A. Median nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
Radial nerve
In the photomicrograph below, the arrow points to which of the following structures?
A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp
B. Splenic red pulp
C. Intercalated pancreatic duct
D. High endothelial vein in lymph node
A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp
Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System
Slide 72
Identify the type of tissue shown in the photomicrograph below.
A. Pancreas
B. Lymph node
C. Spleen
D. Liver
D. Liver
Lecture 26, Slide 44
Identify the type of epithelium shown in this slide.
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Stratified cuboidal
C. Simple squamous
D. Stratified squamous
E. Simple columnar
A. Simple cuboidal
The diagram below illustrates the lateral cervical triangle. The posterior border of the triangle is marked by the red star, which indicates which of the following muscle landmarks?
A. anterior border of the trapezius
B. posterior border of the trapezius
C. anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
D. posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
E. anterior border of the anterior scalene
A. anterior border of the trapezius
identify structure
stria vascularis
Identify the following type of tissue.
A. Irregular dense connective tissue
B. Developing membrane bone
C. Compact bone
D. Hyaline cartilage
B. Developing membrane bone
Lecture 11, Slide 11
identify specific structure
lacuna
Identify the specific area indicated by the arrow in the attached photomicrograph.
A. Germinal center
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Glomerulus
D. GALT
D. GALT
Lecture 24, Slide 17
Identify the tissue marked with an star.
A. Tunica intima layer
B. Purkinje cell layer
C. Internal elastic lamina
D. Tunica adventit
B. Purkinje cell layer
identify the structure indicated by the arrow
A. Bowman’s membrane
B. Decemet’s membrane
C. Bruch’s membrane
D. pigmented later
A. Bowman’s membrane
Identify the layer indicated by the arrow.
A. Rods and cones
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Inner nuclear layer
D. Ganglion nuclear layer
D. Ganglion nuclear layer
Lecture 16, Slide 23
identify the type of tissue shown in the photomicrograph below
A. pancreas
B. lymph node
C. spleen
D. liver
D. liver
Identify the specific type of blood cell marked with an asterisk in the photomicrograph below.
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Proerythroblast
D. Proerythroblast
Identify the fine lines indicated by he letter “A”
A. Bile canaliculi
B. Haversian canaliculi
C. Elastic fibers
D. Collagen fibers
B. Haversian canalicul
Identify nerve indicated in the drawing of the region of the elbow.
A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Median
ulnar
Identify tendon of muscle indicated by arrow.
A. Extensor pollicis brevis
B. extensor pollicis longus
C. Abductor pollicis longus
D. Abductor pollicis brevis
Extensor pollicis longus
In the photomicrograph below, identify the specific brownish type of cell indicated by the arrow.
A. Langerhan’s cell
B. Melanocyte
C. Kupffer cell
D. Podocyte
B. Melanocyte
identify cell
monocyte 1000x
Identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph.
A. Scala tympani
B. Stria vascularis
C. Tectorial membrane
D. Vestibular membrane
D. Vestibular membrane
Lecture 17, Slide 26
