YSKT compile SH Flashcards

1
Q

Well’s score - used for PE?

A

Previous PE or DVT (1.5) Clin features of DVT (3) HR > 100 (1.5) Immobilisation for 3 days or surgery in last 4 weeks (1.5) Haemoptysis (1) Cancer (1) PE more likely than any other test (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alcoholic patient with solid mass on liver imaging - 4cm, vascular?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Guy who leans on the table gets ulnar neuropathy, where is lesion?

A

Cubital canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the definition of critical limb ischemia?

A

Critical limb ischaemia (CLI) is a manifestation of peripheral arterial disease (PAD) that describes patients with chronic ischaemic rest pain, or patients with ischaemic skin lesions, either ulcers or gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the management for relapsing-remitting MS?

A

beta interferon (glatiramer, teriflunomide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

55 year old new onset gastritis - treatment?

A

Test for H Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lady had a loss of sensation up to umbilicus and bad cough and significant pack years

A

Chest xray and thoraco-lumbar MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pregnant women with Mania and presenting to A&E?

A

Olanzapine IM Stop depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tonic clonic/ partial seizure rx?

A

carbamezapine lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vascular patient intermittent claudication. No pain at rest. Pulses are not palpable on right hand side but present on Doppler. How would you best manage this patient?

A

Risk modification (e.g. diabetes, obesity, smoking, hypertension) + Statin + Clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Infective endocarditis antibiotics: Non prosthetic? Prosthetic? MRSA? Staph Aureus?

A

Non prosthetic: Amoxicillin + Gentamicin (>1wk) [<1wk is flucox and gentamicin] Prosthetic: Vancomycin, Rifampicin + Gentamicin MRSA: Vancomycin + Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which drug would you give old man who was not sleeping + depressive symptoms?

A

Mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Simple humeral fracture presented 5 days after fracture, what next?

A

immobilisation collar and cuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factor of downs syndrome

A

Advanced maternal age Previous child with DS Parental karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What symptom most likely to be found in meningococcal septicaemia?

A

Non-blanching rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Small Bowel obstruction treatment.

A

Drip and suck - nasogastric decompression plus fluid resus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of Cervical spine fracture with pain?

A

NSAID and Follow Up can add temporary opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Section 3 Used for? Recommendation? Apply? Condition? Duration?

A

Used for treatment Two Section 12 doctors or One section 12 patient’s GP Apply by nearest relative or AMHP (health professional) Appropriate treatment available of condition or protect public Duration is 6 months –> Elongate or discharge (Patients can appeal once every 6 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patient has fit, seen to have jerking movements, loses continence and bites tongue - what is it?

A

Generalised tonic clonic seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Parathyroid blood results: Raised calcium Very raised PTH decreased or normal phosphate Normal/low Vit D High ALP

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patient with +ve HbsAg , +ve anti-HBc, -ve IgM anti HBc, -ve anti HBs. Management?

A

chronic infection entecavir or peginterferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Side effects of diazepam?

A

drowsiness tiredness or fatigue muscle weakness inability to control muscle movements (ataxia) headache tremor dizziness dry mouth or excessive saliva nausea constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Osteopenia vs Osteoporosis

A

Male vs female Age (Younger = penia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Section 35

A

remand for hospital for assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Man has Pancoast tumour, miosis, ptosis, clubbing, chest pain. What sign indicates extra-thoracic growth?

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome causes pain, in horner’s shouldn’t normally have pain. Pain characteristically is around the shoulder/scapula, but can also move to arm/hand if brachial plexus is affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Presentation of posterior humeral fracture

A

Wrist extension (wrist drop) Radial nerve fracture Loss of sensation in dorsal aspect of 1st+2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paeds pneumonia - management?

A

Penicillin V or amoxycillin (In pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Acne treatment causing blue patch?

A

Minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cause of urticaria due to autoimmunity

A

Complement Phagocytes Immune deficiency (HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sinusitis management?

A

Abx - Amoxicillin Steroids nasal spray (budesonide) Decongestant spray (oxymetazoline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are Cluster C PD?

A

avoidant, OCD, dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

33 year old comes for random test - has +ve RF, +ve anti-CCP, but no sx

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

80 year old patient with hip fracture and normal bloods (pretty much). What management (if needed) should you initiate for osteoporosis? Treatment?

A

Assess risk by FRAX Oral alendronate (biphosphonate) All patients starting steroids for >3 months should have an osteoporosis assessment *All patients age >65 starting steroids should be commenced on Adcal D3 + alendronate*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Causes of early decelerations

A

Increased foetal intracranial pressure During labour Reduced amniotic volume Umbilical cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the common cause for dilated left ventricle in old ladies?

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment of cervical cancer with lymph node involvement?

A

Chemotherapy + Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Section 4 Recommendation? Apply? Condition? Duration?

A

Emergency admission by any doctor Apply by nearest relative or AMHP (health professional) Mental disorder Duration 72 hours –> Discharge, convert to S2/3, Elongate (can’t appeal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Patient presents 35 weeks pregnant - bp 140/90 Diagnosis? Management?

A

Gestational hypertension B-blockers - labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How to diagnose Hirschsprung’s? First line?

A

Rectal biopsy Plain abdo XR Contrast enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pt with FHx of hypertension or PET, but has DM and is obese. What is most likely risk factor of her getting pet/what makes you want to investigate further?

A

First baby Hx of pre-eclampsia FHx of pre-eclampsia BMI>30 Maternal age >35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Management of schizophrenia

A

Atypical antipsychotics (Respiradone, olanzapine, quetiapine, apriprazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

11yr-old girl with 3mths hx of bloody diarrhoea, urgency to defacate, tenesmus?

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Patient comes in she has urethretis, iritis, and joint pain. What investigation will you do?

A

ESR, CRP HLA-B27 “can’t pee, can’t see. can’t climb a tree - Reiter’s syndrome”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CT show calcification in alcoholic patient?

A

Chronic pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Has had 2 vasoocclusive crises in a Sickle Cell Disease patient. Also takes penicillin, spleen enlargement with abdo pain + circulatory collapse. What treatment is best?

A

Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Parameters in acute asthma

A

Moderate - PEFR - 50-75% Speech normal Resp <25 Pulse <110 Severe - PEFR - 33-50% Can’t complete sentences RR > 25 Pulse >110 Life-threatening - PEFR - < 33% O2 SATS < 92% Silent chest Cyanosis Feeble resp effort Pulse <80 HTN Exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Wernicke’s- Guy had confusion, nystagmus and ataxia

A

pabrinex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Parathyroid blood results: High/normal calcium Normal/low PTH High phosphate Normal Vit D High ALP

A

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis lung changes

A

Both restrictive and obstructive (fibrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Treatment of IgA nephropathy - Whats the other name for it?

A

Berger’s disease Most common GN Management: 1.Conservative if mild 2.Supportive therapy – ACE-I to control BP (<140/90) 3.If risk of high progression (persisting proteinuria + preserved renal function) – Prednisolone 4.If RPGN/AKI involved – Immunosuppression -> Prednisolone + Azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Down syndrome with failure to thrive

A

Coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Urinary retention and pain in back of legs where was the lesion?

A

S234

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ADHD - what would aid in the diagnosis?

A

Report from the teacher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Child presents with bruising, high lymphocytes

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Bilateral glue ear, hearing loss, speech deficit?

A

Grommet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Dialysis patient 3day/week complains of tingling sensation, low power reflex, had diarrhea 2 weeks ago, which condition needs to be exclude?

A

Guillain Barre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

XRay of rheumatoid

A

Early x-ray findings ● loss of joint space ● juxta-articular osteoporosis ● soft-tissue swelling Late x-ray findings ● Periarticular erosions ● Subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Primary ovarian failure presentation

A

Low progesterone High LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Epistaxis Telangiectasis Visceral lesions FHx (first degree)

A

3 or more - hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Risk factors for gestational diabetes screening?

A

BMI >30 previous macrosomic baby previous GDM 1st degree relative with DM ethnicity of high DM prevalence (South Asia, black carribean, middle eastern)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Imaging ACL tear

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Prostate symmetrically enlarged smooth on exam, raised PSA (1.0 over normal range), what do u do next?

A

Repeat PSA in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Test before starting azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What antibiotics do u give in pyelonephritis

A

Co amox +- IV gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis treatment?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Diet of patient with diabetic nephropathy already on ace-I, hypertensive

A

low salt diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

8 year-old that need emergency appendectomy, comes with patient. Can child consent? If not, who can?

A

Child cannot consent because Gillick non-competent; grandparents do not have parental decision making Can act on patient’s best interest (Beneficence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pt with right sided stroke with legs>arms and vision loss. What blood supply is affected?

A

ACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Long term MI management?

A

Aspirin, B blockers (bisoprolol, metoprolol), Statin (atorvastatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The patient comes in with manic episode what treatment should you give him?

A

Olanzapine Lithium Sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

2 week of haematuria post URTI

A

Post Strep Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Patient with constant worries going out. Diagnosis?

A

Agorophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Patient with weight loss and UC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis or cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

35 yr-old female with eye pain and vision problems, numbness and pain on limbs, headache and coordination problems?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Pericarditis ECG changes?

A

ECG changes: • Widespread ST elevation (saddle shapes) • PR depression (most sensitive marker!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bulimia vs AN?

A

Bulimia= normal BMI -more impulsive than AN -weight fluctuation -parotid hypertrophy (sialadenosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hypokalaemia, hypernatremia, headache, muscle weakness

A

Conns (primary hyperaldosteronism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Baby with asymmetrical gluteal creases, what investigation do you do?

A

Ultrasound Developmental dysplasia of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pelvic X ray of osteoarthritis acetabulum, what do you do?

A

Total hip replacements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the acute management of mild/moderate asthma?

A

nebulise salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A woman is on epidural. What is her/her baby most at risk of?

A

Severe hypotension, leakage of spinal fluid (mom) severe respiratory depression & bradycardia (fetus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

MS patient on low dose baclofen, not experiencing side effects. How would you treat her pain?

A

Increase baclofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

70 year old patient with muscle aching, difficulty combing hair (i.e. raising arm) with raised ESR and normal CK and EMG normal. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Causes of Akathesia

A

SSRIs, CCBs, anti-emetics (metoclopramide), anti-vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Management of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Oral Ofloxacin AND metronidazole OR IM ceftriaxone + oral doxy + oral metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the management of aspiration pneumonia in post stroke + swallowing problem patient?

A

SALT referral Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Glaucoma - lady used to wear glasses, had vomitted. Definitive test?

A

Gonioscopy (slit lamp examination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What blood test do you do before prescribing retinoids for acne?

A

B-hcg LFTs and serum lipids before treatment, 1 month after starting and then every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

At what gestation stage does the sucking reflex manifest?

A

32 weeks Therefore premature babies <31 wks old need ng tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Patient comes in with periorbital pain, loss of visual acuity with scotoma (blind spot), loss of color vision, and rapid afferent pupillary defect. Diagnosis?

A

Optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Side effects of respiridone

A

Depression Anaemia Anxiety Abnormal appetite Chest discomfort/Cough Conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are Cluster B PD?

A

antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Diabetic brought into hospital hypernatremic, what will be given to him next?

A

NaCl Insulin IV (Glucose if low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Causes of menorrhagia

A

PID Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Fibroids Anovulatory cycles Hypothyroid IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Section 136 Recommendation? Apply? Condition? Duration?

A

From public place police powers to remove to place of safety (A&E, police station) someone who appears to be suffering from a mental disorder 72 hrs requested by AMHP and granted by magistrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the causes of anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

falling in outstretched arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the symptoms of paranoid PD?

A

SUSPECT Sensitive Unforgiving Suspicious Possessive and jealous Excessive self-importance Conspiracy theories Tenacious sense of rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Baby has vomiting than diarrhoea? What is the likely organism?

A

Rotavirus Campylobacter Salmonella Shigella E coli Ebola - Guinea, Liberia, Sierra-leone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

6wks pregnant woman with light bleeding, HCG 100,000, and TVU showing no fetus, intrauterine mass with small cystic spaces (honeycomb)?

A

Hyaditiform mole (complete)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cystocele first line management

A

Bladder training, Kegel exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Patient wakes up after anaesthesia. Headache and vertigo on standing up. Relieved completely on lying down. What is the diagnosis?

A

BPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Most common cause pyelonephritis

A

E.Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Child with purpuric rash + splenomegaly

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

ABPI doppler criteria for critical limb ischemia

A

• >0.9 = normal • 0.4 – 0.9 = intermittent claudication • < 0.4 = critical limb and pain at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Milestones of 3 yrs

A

can ride a tricycle (9 bricks), 3 word sentence, count to 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Lady trying to conceive with low progesterone, oligomenorrhoea, normal fsh and LH, normal TSH. What is the cause?

A

Premature menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Treat oligomenorrhoea in patient with BMI 30 with PCOS who desires fertility after advising weight loss?

A

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia: Most common causes - Gram stain?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa primarily … gram -ve bacilli Staph aureus … gram +ve cocci also common cause of HAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

HELLP?

A

Haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL) and low platelet count (LP) . It’s a serious but rare pregnancy complication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

60 year old Migraine lady had really severe headache, neck stiffness, subjective lateral gaze diplopia, CT normal - Management?

A

Temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Presentation in anorexic patient that requires hospitalisation?

A

BMI <13 or >1kg/ week amenorrhoea abnormally low potassium abnormally low temperature infection of any kind HR <40bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Management of Cervical spine fracture, developed neurological symptoms?

A

immobilise + analgesia and immediate neurosurgical referral + IV methlyprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Presentation of intussusception

A

Vomiting, colicky abdo px, male, 6-12mths, lethargy, red-currant jelly stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the management of endometrial cancer?

A

Complete treatment: total hysterectomy+ salphingoophorectomy+ node dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What to do before inducing labor

A

Cervical sweep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Patient who is 70, hx of MI, with AF -Initial management?

A

Beta-blockers (Propanolol) or CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Pregnant 2nd or 3rd trimester UTI rx?

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Placenta retained

A

Placenta oxytocin or ergometrine injection into the umbilical vein with 20 IU of oxytocin in 20 ml of saline is recommended, followed by proximal clamping of the cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

COPD, on salbutamol and ipratropium. FEV1 was 40%. What do start?

A

LABA + ICS combination inhaler (Seretide - salmeterol + fluticasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Placenta praevia (placenta is low) - when do you do elective C section?

A

37-38 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Child age 1-5 UTI - symptoms?

A

•dysuria and frequency •abdominal pain and loin tenderness fever +/- rigors •lethargy and anorexia •vomiting, diarrhoea •haematuria •offensive or cloudy urine •febrile convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Lady is mad depressed, feels dead inside, her organs are rotting. What do you give?

A

Cotard syndrome fluoxetine + olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

ABO incompatibility jaundice test?

A

Coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

55 year old new onset gastritis

A

1) Refer to urgent endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Child with red rash on Flexor aspects of elbows and on wrist

A

Atopic eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

USS shows echogenicity (more dense) and hepatomegaly, ALT>AST

A

NAFLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Prolonged (>3 wks) hoarse voice guy who is alcoholic, fat, and ugly. What is first line ix?

A

CT neck and chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Rx for acute anxiety/ panic?

A

reassurance and benzo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Patient with migraines, experiencing them 2x a week, stressed with new job - what would you start?

A

Acute: triptan + NSAID/paracetamol Prophylaxis: propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

33 year old comes for random test - has +ve RF but no sx?

A

Doesn’t have RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How to diagnose Hirschsprung’s? First line? Screening tool?

A

Rectal biopsy Plain abdo XR Contrast enema (most valuable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

HPV - high risk types and low risk types?

A

16&18 - high risk 6&11 - low risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the most common injury with anterior dislocation of shoulder?

A

Axillary nerve and artery 95% Presentation in examination: humeral head visible, flattened deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Same day STI test?

A

trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

St elevation in leads 1 to 4. After troponin what would you do next?

A

PCI or thrombolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Pt with PET and has HELLP. 39 weeks pregnant, what is the best step in Rx?

A

Delivery + IV Dexamethasone MgSO4 If hypertensive: IV Labetolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Pt with rh arthritis, on methotrexate with 6 month hx of SOB. Both fev1 and FVC reduced with ratio @ 86%. Diagnosis? Cause?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Baby born 36 weeks, good apgars - what is it?

A

Respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Paeds severe life threatening asthma, silent chest sats 88%?

A

O2 + admission + nebulised SABA (salbutamol) and anticholinergic (ipaproprium) + prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Prodromal fever and malaise. Lesions start on the head, then spread to trunk and peripheries. Lesions as papules → Vesicles → Pustules → Crusting Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Analgesia and go home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

CHA2DS2-VASc score

A

C Congestive heart failure (or Left ventricular systolic dysfunction) - 1 H Hypertension: blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mmHg (or treated hypertension on medication) - 1 A2 Age ≥75 years - 2 D Diabetes Mellitus - 1 S2 Prior Stroke or TIA or thromboembolism - 2 V Vascular disease (e.g. peripheral artery disease, myocardial infarction, aortic plaque) - 1 A Age 65–74 years - 1 Sc Sex category (i.e. female sex) - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Respiratory Distress Syndrome. After giving surfactant. Next treatment?

A

Another surfactant dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Crohn’s - Drugs used to maintain remission?

A
  • Azathioprine (1st line) - Methotrexate (2nd line)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Impetigo advice to miss school-

A

This practice is implemented by many schools as they exclude children from attending until until the affected child no longer has crusty or bullous lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Patient is delirious with diagnosis 80. Squamous cell lung cancer with liver mets diagnosed?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Child presents with bruising, high lymphocytes Reddish purple dots on the ankles and feet (petechia)

A

Immune Thrombocytic Purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Pain at site, malaise and fatigue, local swelling, low grade fever with reduced range of movement and tenderness Diagnosis? Management?

A

Osteomyelitis Flucloxacillin (6 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Pt started on clozapine and is told to come back on a weekly basis for Ix. Why?

A

Agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

HBeAg - what does it mean?

A

This means the person infected with Hepatitis B can likely transmit the virus on to another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

ENT what is associated with polyps & post nasal drip

A

asthma & aspirin allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Lady comes in who use to be heavy alcoholic has ‘echogenic liver’ what test do you do to confirm the diagnosis?

A

Biopsy liver - to identify why its dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Man couldn’t close eye, facial and unilateral hearing loss - Investigation?

A

MRI Cerebellopontine angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

11yr-old girl with 3mths hx of recurrent diarrhoea, abdo pain, delayed puberty, and malnutrition?

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Parkinsons off symptom management

A

Levodopa + Entacapone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

IgA nephropathy diagnosis

A

Renal biopsy - diffuse mesangial IgA deposition Urine analysis MC&S U&Es eGFR Renal USS CT KUB (normal) C3 and c4 complement (normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Type of miscarriage? minimal pain; bleeding < bleeding equivalent to menstruation; cervix closed; uterine size = dates; ultrasound = Fetal Heart visualised

A

Threatened miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What further test do you need to do to make sure LP is safe?

A

•Cardiorespiratory instability •Focal neurological signs •Signs of raised ICP → coma, Cushing’s response (high BP and bradycardia due to compression of the brainstem) •Coaguloapthy •Thrombocytopenia •Local infection at the site of LP •Performing and LP would delay antibiotic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

CURB-65 - Score 3 management?

A
  • Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point) - Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point) - Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point) - Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systeolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) - Age >= 65 years (1 point) Admit and Ben Pen IV and doxycycline PO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Types of ovarian tumours?

A

high serous carcinoma clear cell endometrioid low grade serous mucinous teratoma fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Women presents with mixture of distal sensory and motor signs after having gastroenteritis 1 week ago. What is the worst thing you want to rule out first? Triggered by?

A

Guillain Barre syndrome Immune mediated demyelination often triggered by Campylobacter jejuni.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Guy fell from climbing frame, snapping sound heard and had haematoma on sole of foot. He can’t stand on the toes or push off. Diagnosis?

A

Achilles tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Surveillance for 4.8cm aaa

A

3 monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Placental abruption risk factors

A

Chronic HTN Pre-eclampsia Smoking Cocaine Trauma Choreamnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Child abuse - investigations?

A

FBCs Clotting Dilated fundoscopy Photodocumentation Skeletal survey CT brain LFTs and amylase Serum calcium, phophate, ALP Parathyroid 25-hydroxy D3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Characteristic cystic fibrosis features?

A

Failure to pass meconium (meconium ileus), Failure to thrive, voracious apetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are CI for induction of labour?

A

-acute fetal compromise -abnormal lie -placenta praevia -pelvic mass/deformity -cephalopelvic disproportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Pt with nose bleed which has now become bilateral with blood leakage into the mouth. Bleeding hasn’t stopped after holding onto nose. Next step?

A

Topical anaesthetic and cotton wool soaked in vasoconstrictor (oxymetazoline) Then cauterise with silver nitrate sticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Antibodies for SLE - Most sensitive? Most specific?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) are autoantibodies to the nuclei of your cells. dsDNA and anti-smith antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Milestones of 4 yrs

A

can hop on one leg, plays with other children, asks W questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Hyperkalaemia. Tented T waves. First line treatment?

A
  1. 10% Calcium gluconate (and repeat until ECG normal) 2. Dextrose/insulin infusion (and repeat until normokalaemia) 3. Consider sodium bicarb if acidosis 4. Consider nebulised salbutamol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

DVLA laws for stroke patient?

A

6months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

30 year old Abdominal distension, diarrhoea, vomiting. Doctor gives a list of differentials including appendicitis, crohns, mesenteric adenitis etc. What is the next line of investigations?

A

CT abdo pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Renal artery stenosis imaging?

A

Angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the side effects of oxybutynin?

A

anti-cholinergic -dry mouth, dizziness, drowsiness, blurred vision, dry eyes, N&V, constipation, diarrhea, weakness, runny nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

IgA nephropathy and post strep - a difference in urine dip

A

IgA has 2+ blood while post strep has 3/4+ IgA has 3+/4+ protein while post strep has 2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

CHADsVASC2 - criteria

A

• CHF • Hypertension • Age > 75 (2) • Diabetes • Stroke (2) • Vascular – ischaemic heart disease and peripheral arterial disease • Age 65 -74 • Sex - female (If male then consider at 1, and if 2 offer anticoag - stop aspirin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Guy had something that looked like psoriasis after coming back from Africa, what do you give?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis ketoconazole (steroid for flareups)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

The most common cause of LV dysfunction

A

IHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Patient with varicose veins with a single bleeding episode from vein. What should you do after seeing the patient in the clinic? Ix?

A

Refer pt to vascular team Duplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

When hip is posteriorly dislocated- described as?

A

ANS = shortened, flexed, internally rotated, ADDucted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What medication for induction of dead fetus?

A

Misoprostal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Baby (8 months) with crying episodes where baby brings legs to tummy. Mother opened nappy to find red current stool

A

Intersussception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Vascular surgery man is awaiting angioplasty for intermittent claudication revascularisation, what do u give him in mean time?

A

Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Lady with pregnancy-induced HTN with bp at 146/something. Why do you control her bp?

A

To prevent superimposed pet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Guy has posterior triangle irregular lumps, and some other symptoms of cancer – where is his cancer?

A

Nasopharynx Other things that can be caused: -temporal bone -ear -skull base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Management for Open comminuted fracture of tibia?

A

wash out in theatre and give abx immobilise, IV ABx, tetanus vaccine (everyone gets, if not fully immunised–> 3 vaccines and 2 boosters 10 years apart), debride and lavage, fixation if indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Patient with psoriasis – tried emollients and wants to avoid oral meds. What next?

A

1st line mod-severe = narrow band UVB. (Phototherapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Sudden chest pain Increased JVP SOB Low BP Tachypnea Discomfort relieved by sitting or leaning forward

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

5 year old girl wants pill, she threatens she is about to start shagging, what to do?

A

Give her the damn pill and do not tell her parents or social services cuz Gillick competent and Fraser guidelines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Simple pain management already on nsaids, what next?:

A

Weak opioids - codiene, dyhydracodeine, tramadol Strong opioids - diamorphine, fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Goserelin - mechanism of action? side effects?

A

GnRH agonist - Synthetic hormone. In men, it stops the production of the hormone testosterone, which may stimulate the growth of cancer cells. In women, goserelin decreases the production of the hormone estradiol (which may stimulate the growth of cancer cells) to levels similar to a postmenopausal state. Alopecia; arthralgia; bone pain; breast; depression; gynocomastia; headache; hot flushes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Biggest risk factor for completed suicide?

A

Age >65 Postnatal status Personal/FHx of depression Steroids IFN male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Focal neurological seizure followed by secondary generalisation lasted for 20 seconds - Next step?

A

Refer to neurologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Acute glaucoma managment?

A

urgent refer+ acetazolamide + pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Mechanism of urticaria due to IgE

A

Mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Patient who has had a stroke -Is thrombocytopenic and has haematoma Management?

A

Give FFP/prothrombin complex AND cryoprecipitate Platelet transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Minimal change disease - Presentation? Kidney biopsy?

A

More common in children Nephrotic syndrome - normotension, proteinuria Serum albumin loss Fusion of podocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Mechanism of action of COCP?

A

Suppress the secretion of gonadotropins (follicle stimulating hormone, FSH and luteinizing hormone, LH) through negative feedback inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Risk factors for suicide

A

male Hx of self harm Alcohol or drug misuse Hx of mental illness Hx of chronic disease Advancing age Unemployment or social isolation/living alone Being unmarried, divorced or widowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Common diazepam side effect?

A

Allertness decreased Anxiety Confusion Depression Dizzy Drowsy GI disorder Resp depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Signs of physical abuse (non-accidental injury) including bruises, burns, fractures?

A

Bruises: -symm. bruised eyes -mouth, eyes, soft tissues on face -finger marks on legs, arms, chest -linear buttock or back -uncommon sites: chest, stomach, genitalia, neck Burns, scalds -cigarettes -backs of hands, soles of feet -glove and stocking distribution Human bite mark Fractures: -long bones (arms, legs, ribs) -multiple fractures in various bones -fractures of different ages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Main advantage of breast milk over formula

A

Reduces risk of sudden infant death syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Milestones of 6mths

A

6 months – palmar grasp, can pass objects from one hand to another, coos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What is the scoring system ABCD2 used for?

A

TIA Age: >/= 60 =1 BP: >/= 140/90=1 Clinical features: -unilateral weakenss= 2 -speech impairment without weakenss= 1 Duration: >/= 60min= 2 10-59min: 1 Diabetes= 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Good prognosis MI medication (low ejection)

A

ACEi/ARBs B-blocker Hydralazine Spironolactone Vasodilators and Nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Fraser guidlines

A
  1. He/she has sufficient maturity and intelligence to understand the nature and implications of the proposed treatment 2. He/she cannot be persuaded to tell her parents or to allow the doctor to tell them 3. He/she is very likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment 4. His/her physical or mental health is likely to suffer unless he/she received the advice or treatment 5. The advice or treatment is in the young person’s best interests.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Pt comes in with left sided weakness which lasts for 60 minutes. Treatment?

A

If 0-3 = Specialist assessment within 1 week of symptom onset +/- brain imaging 4 or more = Aspirin 300mg immediately, specialist assessment within 24 hours, address RFs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Most common viral meningitis in children cause?

A

herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Management of stone that couldn’t be ERCP?

A

Emergency CBD exploration + Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Patient with signs consistent with encephalopathy (liver failure) on the background of alcoholic cirrhosis and being alcohol independent. What is the first step in Mx?

A

20 degree head tilt, A-E, lactulose, treat sepsis, +/- Abx (rifaxilline), +/- Mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Child with UTI. You do a USS. Parent asks why you chose to do USS?

A

vesicoureteric reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Chronic heart failure - management?

A

ACEi B blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Psoriasis question, gentleman doesn’t want to take anything oral, which of options has good evidence?

A

Topical corticosteroid (mild) Phototherapy (moderate to severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for endometriosis ?

A

Laproscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Girl with primary nocturnal enuresis - First line management?

A

Behavioural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Better prognosis for SZ

A

female acute onset of symptoms older age of first episode positive> negative symptoms presence of new symptoms good pre-illness function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Features of innocent murmurs

A

Seven S: -sensitive (changing position) -short duration (jot holosystolic) -single -small (non-radiating) -soft -sweet -systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What more likely to cause endometrial cancer?

A

Obesity Nulliparity Early menarche Late menopause Unopposed estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Pt with T2 diabetes and keeps having hypos. What is the cause?

A

Glimeperide (Insulin/sulfonylureas (gliclazide and glimepiride)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Not passing meconium, put finger in and stool is expelled

A

Hirschprungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Guy had surgery, complaining of decreased visual acuity, double vision and nystagmus in left eye. - next line?

A

Patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

RTA broken nose, abnormal chest movement, weirdly displaced leg, leg bleeding management?

A

C-spine/ airway/ chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Rx for VZV in pregnant woman?

A

IVIG immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Migraine lady had really severe headache, neck stiffness, CT normal, photophobia

A

LP because meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Man had nose bleed and INR of 4.5 and metallic heart valve what do you do?

A

Give vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Reasons for referral to psychiatry

A

superficial self-harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What is rehabilitation?

A

the action of restoring someone to health or normal life through training and therapy after imprisonment, addiction, or illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

SLE - pathophys

A

Cell apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Definition of Privacy

A

Privacy refers to freedom from intrusion and relates to all information and practice that is personal or sensitive in nature to an individual Dignity is being worthy of respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Psoriasis question, gentleman doesn’t want to take anything oral, which of options has good evidence?

A

Topical corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis biggest risk factor

A

Preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Blood results showing HELLP syndrome.

A

Total Bili >1,2 LDH >600 GGT >70 Platelets <100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What are the signs of community acquired pneumonia?

A

increased vocal fremitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

41 week gestation, unremarkable pregnancy, 2cm dilated, station 0, cervix position anterior, soft consistency, almost fully effaced. What do you do?

A

Membrane sweep Intravaginal prostaglandins Breaking of waters (amniotomy with amnihook) Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Dyskaryosis

A

Multi nucleation Increased cytoplasm:nucleic ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Acute heart failure management

A

O2 therapy Loop diuretics - furosemide GTN spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Child age >5 UTI - symptoms?

A

have symptoms that are classically described in the adult: •LUTI → dysuria, frequency, supra-pubic pain. Fever may be mild •UUTI → fever, loin pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Frequent barking cough with prominent inspiratory (and occasionally, expiratory) stridor at rest. Marked sternal wall retractions. Significant distress and agitation, or lethargy or restlessness (a sign of hypoxaemia). Tachycardia occurs with more severe obstructive symptoms and hypoxaemia.

A

Severe croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Child born at term and starts to seize. Weight is 4.8kg, what is the first investigation that should be done?

A

Glucose and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What is the ix for 51yr-old woman, 14 months amenorrhoea, hot flushes?

A

menopause- none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

APGAR score 0-3 management?

A

ABCDE on baby High flow O2 Adrenaline Compressions Monitor glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

MS relapse management ?

A

IV methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

What is the most common cancer is HIV patients

A

Kaposi sarcoma and lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Patient comes in with UMN weakness, behavioural abnormalities, where is the lesion?

A

ACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Breast cancer, liver lung and 70% bone cortex in tibia mets – treatment? Post menopausal - HER2 -ve? Post-menopausal - HER2 +ve? Pre-menopausal - HER2 +ve?

A

a.If post-menopausal (HER2 –ve) – anatrozole+ palbociclib + bisphos+ calcium and vit d b.If post-menopausal (HER2 +ve) – pertuzumab+ trastuzumab+ docetaxel + bisphosphonates+ calcium and vit d c.If pre-menopausal – tamoxifen (and mab if HER2 +ve) ; then ovarian ablation ++bisphosphonates+ calcium and vit d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Sudden loss of vision ddx

A

Stroke TIA acute glaucoma retinal detachment anterior uveitis retinal occulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Patient who is 50 with AF and CHF - Initial management?

A

Sotalol Amiodarone Flecainide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Lung ca central tumour on x-ray - Next investigation?

A

Bronchoscopy+biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Causes of infertility?

A

age >35 hx of STD BMI extremes smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Paediatric non accidental injury

A

Bruising on back Mid-shaft transverse femoral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Meningitis CSF - Opaque High pressure Mostly neutrophils Decreased glucose High protein Acid fast bacillus stain PCR

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Patient with past mitral valve replacement presenting with new pan systolic murmur and fever. What is most important investigation?

A

Blood cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Sickle cell kid with temp of 39 - management?

A

Ceftriaxone (Vancomycin if meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Features of parkinson plus

A

Vertical gaze palsy +- falls Impotence/Incontinence Visual hallucinations Interfering activity by affected limb (Alien limb syndrome) Diabetic/HTN patient who falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Patient on risperidone and has oligo-menorrhea which hormone?

A

Hyperprolactinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

HbsAg - positive Anti-Hbc - positive IgM anti-Hbc - negative anti HbS - negative

A

Chronic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Paeds clavicle fracture, macrosomic 4-week old baby, CXR of chest showed clavicle fracture /w callus, examination (for other signs of abuse) was unremarkable?

A

If in ED then send to GP Fracture clinic - if it doesn’t heal in 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Baby born developed grunting and subcostal recession - Diagnosis?

A

RDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Guy had hep c and hep b - management?

A

Treat hep c interferon alfa and ribavirin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Mechanism of Baclofen

A

Muscle relaxant and antispastic inhibiting both monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes at the spinal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

CURB-65 - Score 0 management?

A

Community care Doxycycline PO 200mg STAT then 100mg OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Diagnosis of asthma

A

Reversibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

DM Type 1 nephropathy – patient has high hba1c and high protein in urine. What do you do?

A

Increase insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Teenager RTA with bruising on the chest and hypovolaemia. Resp exam is ok - first step?

A

Cannula Bloods - FBC, U&Es, crossmatch, clotting Fluid resus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Hernia that doesn’t go into scrotum. Medial and superior to pubic tubercle. What type of hernia?

A

Inguinal hernia – medial and superior to pubic tubercle Femoral hernia – lateral and inferior to pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Patient jaundice, fever, RUQ pain?

A

Ascending cholangitis (Charcot’s triad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Pt had surgery 3 days prior and has dropped in renal output with increased creatinine. He was on amox, met and gent. What is the most immediate step in management?

A

Stop gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Pregnant first trimester UTI rx?

A

Nitrofuratoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Commonest cause of preterm babies

A

Pregnancy with multiple babies Hx of preterm labour/birth Infection Diabetes/HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Treatment for glaucoma?

A

Medical - pilocarpine Surgical - Iridoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Type of miscarriage? pain +/-; bleeding >>bleeding equivalent to menstruation; cervix = open; uterine size = or < dates; ultrasound = retained products/no fetal heart

A

Incomplete miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

How to aid women with External cephalic version?

A

Tocolytic (Terbutaline) in primiparous women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Boy comes in. Upper respiratory tract infection followed by red scaling plaques (salmon scaly plaques on back)

A

guttate psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Schizotypal characteristics

A

●Indifference to praise and criticism ●Preference for solitary activities ●Lack of interest in sexual interactions ●Lack of desire for companionship ●Emotional coldness ●Few interests ●Few friends or confidants other than family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Patient wakes up after anaesthesia. Headache and vertigo on standing up. Relieved completely on lying down. What is the diagnosis?

A

Post lumbar puncture headache (common in females with low BMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Progressive hip pain (over weeks), Limp, stiffness and reduced range of movement in 7 year old, trendelenburg +ve - Diagnosis?

A

Perthes disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Patient presents with one red eye that are: pain or photophobia no itching poorly reactive pupil irregularity of the pupil Diagnosis?

A

Anterior uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What is oxybutinin?

A

Antimuscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Guy had AKI after surgery - what do you assess?

A

saline bolus 250ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

myoclonic seizures rx?

A

clonazepam lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Patient with post op, PE and calf swelling. What is the best IX?

A

CTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

6wks pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding, shoulder tip pain, abdominal pain, bHCG >1500

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Pt after stoke suffers from double vision, he is very upset by this what do tell him to do?

A

Optometrists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

What are the signs of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Increased vocal fremitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

DDx for fresh, red rectal blood

A

anal fissures, haemorrhoids, cancers and polyps of the rectum and colon diverticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Patient with Graves – Whats the treatment? Side effects?

A

Carbimazole SE: Rashes, pruiritus. Serious SE: Agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

57 year old male trips on pavement falls onto outstretched arm. X ray shows midshaft humeral fracture and osteolytic lesion on head of humerus. Fracture was opened and fixed. How would you describe this?

A

Pathological fracture due to mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Tia abcd2 calculation & management, if u worked it out he had a score of 6?

A

Admission + MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

When do you give anti-D to non-sensitised Rh-ve mothers? When would you give ASAP?

A

28 and 34 weeks ● delivery of a Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn ● any termination of pregnancy ● miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks ● ectopic pregnancy (if managed surgically, if managed medically with methotrexate anti-D is not required) ● external cephalic version ● antepartum haemorrhage ● amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

SLE with Antiphospholipid syndrome, what do you need to warn them about ?

A

Miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Pain in the abdomen- the pain is located either in the centre of the abdomen, or in the lower right-hand side of the abdomen (known as the ‘right iliac fossa’ area) - Fever (high temperature) >38.5 - Feeling generally unwell - Nausea and/or diarrhoea - Sore throat/ symptoms of a cold

A

Mesenteric adenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Patient with acute ischaemic limb. No pulses past femoral pulse and cold limp up till below knee. What is Rx?

A

Thrombolise from femoral down 6Ps: pain, pallor, perishingly cold, pulseless, paralysis, parasethesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Pt with TB signs – what type of stain should be done on sputum?

A

Ziehl Nielsen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

1 core and 4 minor depressive management?

A

Cbt, anti-depressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

What is the management of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

IVIg or plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Loss of deterioration of central vision (can be sudden or gradual) Flashes of light

A

Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Treatment of small cell lung cancer

A

multidrug platinum-based chemotherapy limited-stage SCLC then offer thoracic irradiation concurrently with the first or second cycle of chemotherapy or after completion of chemotherap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Meningitis CSF - Cloudy Pressure increase Neutrophils Decreased glucose High protein Gram stain culture

A

Bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

What are the signs of Hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Decreased vocal resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Man presents as worried because dad died of colorectal ca – what screening should he be offered?

A

If strong fhx -> genetic testing for FAP or HNPCC; if -ve but strong hx then colonoscopy 35-45 (If 60-74 every two yrs offer fecal occult blood testing 55 one off flexi sigmoid -> full colonoscopy if polyp found)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

New born baby and tests done. Levels of immunoreactive trypsin were found to be high. What does this point to?

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Age <70 Patient has a fall and fractures hip - Displaced intracapsular fracture. Cardiac problems, the fall was due to an MI, how do you manage?

A

Internal fixation (if possible), hip arthroplasty if not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What is the next line ix for BPH?

A

USS CT abdo/pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Numbness half face, post nasal drip and other signs, when is the investigation is most appropriate: Nasal endoscopy? CT? MRI?

A

Considering CSF leakage OR cancer CT Scan is good for identifying breaks in bones/skull or if cancer has spread to bone. MRI is better to see the type and size of the cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Nicotine replacement that is most effective and reduces cravings?

A

varenicline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Police picks up crazy guy from home. What section can they detain on? Time?

A

Section 135 Upo 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Guy couldn’t find the right words for things, what is this?

A

Anomic aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Patient with Phalen’s sign, thenar wasting, weakness of thumb?

A

Carpal tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

COPD ladder

A

Vaccinations - influenza and pneumococcal Rehab Step 1: Inhaled therapy (SABA or SAMA) (Salbutamol + Ipratropium) Step 2: Without asthmatic features - LABA (Salmeterol) + LAMA (Tiotropium) Step 2: With asthmatic features - LABA + ICS (Budesonide/Beclomethasone) Step 3: If still breathless then LAMA + LABA + ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Jaundice in first 24 hours - cause, FH and spherocytic blood film

A

Spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Melena and microcytic hypochromic anemia in older guy?

A

Anemia of chronic disease (cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Dehydrated baby, poor feeding, irritable, dry nappies, what to do?

A

rehydration therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Management of Primary 8mm pneumothorax?

A

Aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Patient has a fall and fractures hip - Extracapsular fracture (non special type). Cardiac problems, the fall was due to an MI, how do you manage?

A

Dynamic hip screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Patient comes in intermenstrual bleeding. Smear is fine done two years ago. Speculum is normal. Next investigation?

A

Endocervical swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Diabetic drug that causes hypoglycemia

A

Insulin, sulfonylureas (Glucoside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

70 year old man comes in with chronic back pain, leg and thighs. Dull pain that feels cramping. Also has numbness and tingling with claudication.

A

Lumbar spinal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Milestones of 12 mths

A

12 months – cruises, walks with one hand held (refer if cannot walk at 18 months), good pincer, bangs toys, knows 2 to 6 words (refer at 18 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

B-hcG of 650 in 5-week pregnant woman, can pick up heartbeat but can’t see anything on USS, what is this?

A

Pregnancy of unknown location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Jaundice in first 24 hours - cause? Mother is O+ve?

A

ABO incompatibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Wells criteria - What is it for?

A

Pulmonary embolism clinical signs and symptoms of DVT = 3 an alternative diagnosis is less likely than PE = 3 heart rate more than 100 = 1.5 immobilisation for 3 or more consecutive days or surgery in the previous 4 weeks = 1.5 previous objectively diagnosed PE or DVT = 1.5 haemoptysis = 1 malignancy (on treatment, treatment in last 6 months or palliative) = 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

First line management of angina

A

Exercise Diet Nitrates Antiplatelet therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

A woman who smokes 10/d has started getting regular painful contractions at 31weeks and a bloody vaginal discharge.

A

Placental rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Haematuria 1 year ago, then painless haematuria

A

Renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Q of a guy who hit his head and had symptoms the next day in a rugby match?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Secondary PPh, what initial investigation will show retained placenta?

A

TVUS–> will show endometrial thickness >10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

ACL tear bare co-morbidities (T2DM un-controllable, CABG) Risk factors?

A

Acute trauma Female sex (after puberty) Hx of previous ACL injury Use of cleats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Which following features would suggest Lewy body dementia?

A

In LWB, get visual hallucinations, parkinsonism and fluctuating cognition. Do a DaTSCAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Section 36

A

remand to hospital for treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Worse prognosis for SZ

A

Early onset FHX structural brain abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Spirometry asthma vs COPD; FEV1/FVC

A

COPD <70% Asthma <80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Pt with stroke that occurred 1 hr ago. What is the best Rx?

A

tpA intravenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Pt had surgery 3 days prior and has dropped in renal output with increased creatinine. He was on amox, met and gent. What is the most immediate step in management?

A

Stop gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Sensory lost on medial 1 and a half finger, where is the lesion?

A

cubital tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Scleroderma affects trunk and proximal limbs predominately Associated with scl-70 antibodies Hypertension, lung fibrosis and renal involvement seen

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

What are Cluster A PD?

A

paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Non Paracetamol OD - liver transplant criteria?

A

INR >6.5 (PT >100 seconds), or any 3 of the following: age <10 or >40 years; aetiology non-A, non-B hepatitis, or idiosyncratic drug reaction; duration of jaundice before hepatic encephalopathy >7 days; INR >3.5 (PT >50 seconds); serum bilirubin >300 micromol/L (>17.6 mg/dL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Keratitis appearance fluorescein stain showed branch like appearance so management? Diagnosis?

A

HSV Gancyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

GCA management

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Depression admission criteria

A

Severe agitation Psychotic Suicidal Catatonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Pt with severe unilateral headache, especially around one eye, lacrimation ?

A

Cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Section 17a

A

supervised community treatment -compulsory treatment for community patients -apply to patients under section 3 -last for 6 mths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Patient has anatomical snuffbox tenderness and bait scaphoid fracture but no obvious signs on x ray. How do you manage?

A

Cast and return for x ray in 2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

What’s Duke criteria used for and what does it consist of?

A

Infective endocarditis Major: +ve blood culture evidence in ECHO Minor: predisposition (IVDU, previous heart) fever microbiology vascular phenomenon (janeaway lesions, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Patient had symptoms of raised ICP (early morning headache and change in personality, and headache worse on movement) mx?

A

Urgent referral to neurologist CT/MRI scanning to determine any underlying lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

What is a somatic feature of depression?

A

headaches, backaches, general muscle pain and digestive pain like stomach pain, dizziness, dyspnea [Take, for example, a red and tender joint. The joint is objectively red. It’s a sign everyone can objectively measure or assess. But the pain (the symptom) is only something you can experience and put into context, and is therefore subjective.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

What are the croup ddx?

A

epiglottis foreign body peritonsilar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Patient with renal transplant, lesion on lip - diagnosis?

A

Immunosuppression due to the transplant -> increased risk of SCC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Patient with raynauds and anticentromere - Diagnosis?

A

Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis Scleroderma affects face and distal limbs predominately – hardening of the connective tissue.

351
Q

What to check before starting COCP?

A

Blood pressure

352
Q

Child with seizure going on for 20 minutes. Has been given lorazepam, what should you give him now?

A

Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg intravenously (Benzo)

353
Q

what does anti tissue transglutaminase indicate?

A

Coeliac

354
Q

Patient has long term catheter. Patient does not want catheter anymore. What would you do?

A

Trial without catheter

355
Q

Patient comes in with ear pain, itch and discharge. Otoscopy shows red, swollen canal. What is the management?

A

Otitis externa Hydrocortisone Rx: topical antifungal (clotrimazole)

356
Q

baby was feeding well for the first 6 hrs of life and then deteriorated - diagnosis?

A

Cyanotic heart disease

357
Q

2y old know only few words, but understands clearly, no motor delay what is the next step?

A

• assessment → audiological, neurodevelopmental and SALT • medical treatment → correction of hearing loss, correct cleft lip/palate • social → support at school

358
Q

Patient with NSTEMI, what to do?

A

O2 Nitrates Metoclopramide Aspirin + Clopidogrel/Ticagrelol LMWH B-blocker - diltiazam/verapamil (Tirofiban in high risk patients)

359
Q

Management of Pelvic Inflammatory disease (PID)

A

Ceftriaxone + doxycycline

360
Q

Cause of Intermenstrual bleeding in woman with COCP

A

Missed COCP pill Alternative remedies taken Clotting drugs Tamoxifen Cervical pathology, vaginal or uterine causes Smear tests

361
Q

Child with otitis media. Treatment?

A

Abx (amoxicillin) if: Child with systemic features and no improvement > 4 days Immunocompromised Age <2 with bilateral otitis media Discharge from ear

362
Q

How does oxybutinin work?

A

used to treat incontinence 1st line by decreasing muscle spasms. (anti-cholinergic) But avoid in frail older women

363
Q

Patient with muscle weakness, difficulty combing hair (i.e. raising arm) with raised ESR and raised CK and Anti-Jo1 antibody, positive rheumatoid factor. Diagnosis?

A

Polymyositis Symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness Elevated skeletal muscle enzyme levels Symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness with insidious onset Muscles usually painles

364
Q

Hypothyroid in children treatment

A

Levothyroxine

365
Q

2yr Baby boy with bloody stools?

A

Shigella (<5 + bloody)

366
Q

2nd degree prolapse management?

A

Asymp - lifestyle and pelvic floor Symp - pessary

367
Q

lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia

A

1%

368
Q

Cervical screening – why do you not screen people under 25?

A

high false positive rate

369
Q

Marfans presents with severe tearing chest pain radiating to back – TTE showed aortic dissection. Next investigation?

A

CT angiography

370
Q

COPD on Salbutamol and comes into clinic, breathless, FEV <40% (acute) - management?

A

Salbutomal and Ipratropium Nebulised and Prednisolone

371
Q

Which feature of CTG implies fetal hypoxia?

A

late deceleration

372
Q

Patient has vasoocclusive crisis in a SCD patient. Also takes penicillin, 1cm palpable spleen. What treatment is best?

A

Hydroxyurea (prevent future crisis) Acutely - NSAIDs, antihistamine

373
Q

Patient has a fall and fractures hip - Extracapsular fracture (reverse oblique, transverse or sub trochanteric). Cardiac problems, the fall was due to an MI, how do you manage?

A

Intramedullary device

374
Q

Cyclist comes in with hypothenar wasting, tingling of fourth and fifth finger?

A

Guyon’s canal syndrome; ulnar nerve entrapment

375
Q

Menorrhagia treatment - 1st line? 2nd line?

A

1st line: Mirena Coil (IUS) 2nd line: Tranexamic Acid (or if want kid)

376
Q

COPD on Salbutamol and comes into clinic, breathless, FEV <40% (chronic) - management?

A

Oral pred ICS

377
Q

What are the symptoms of avoidant PD?

A

AFRAID Avoids social contact Fears Criticism Restricted lifestlye Apprehensive Inferiority Doesn’t involve unless sure of acceptance

378
Q

Patient with rheumatoid + steroid use and methotrexate with swollen elbow for past 1 week. She felt hot (but didn’t tell us there was fever) - Ddx? Microscopy?

A

Gout, Septic arthritis (but its not cause 1 wk hx) Long needle-shaped crystals which are negatively birefringent under polarised light.

379
Q

What is the management of ABCD2 score >4?

A

carotid imaging within 24hrs of initial assessment -CT/ MRI

380
Q

Child misbehaving at home, but fine at school. What meds will help?

A

Nothing ADHD is worse in school

381
Q

Meningitis CSF - Clear Normal pressure Lymphocytes mostly Normal glucose High protein PCR-assay

A

Viral

382
Q

Patient who hit his head lost consciousness and then had consciousness right away and was normal. Now presents with headache and confusion. What is it?

A

Extradural haemorrhage

383
Q

Lady has self harm, fight with boyfriend, history of child abuse. How do you treat?

A

DBT

384
Q

Presents frequently to healthcare Intense but unstable relationships Persistent feelings of boredom and emptiness with uncertainty Unstable mood - Anger, low tolerance of stress Impulsive (and damaging behaviour) Diagnosis?

A

Emotionally unstable personality disorder

385
Q

11yr-old girl with 3mths hx of abdo distention, weightloss, no blood or mucus in stool, mouth ulcers and dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Coeliac

386
Q

Women comes in with incontinecne which occurs when she is laughing and also has urgency.

A

Mixed incontinence

387
Q

What is the presentation of patient with Bipolar that stopped taking medication?

A

anxiety, mania, headaches, pressured speech, irritability, depression

388
Q

Patient in Ventricular Tachycardia arrests?

A

DC cardiovert Stable – pharmacological cardioversion with Amiodarone, Lidocaine, Procainamide

389
Q

What change occurs in proliferative diabetic retinopathy and not in nonproliferative?

A

New vessel formation

390
Q

How to reduce risk of kidney stones?

A

● high fluid intake Reduce high purine foods such as red meat, organ meats, shell fish ● low animal protein, low salt diet ● thiazides diuretics (increase distal tubular calcium resorption)

391
Q

Pregnancy induced hypertension why given labetalol?

A

Prevent superimposed pre-eclampsia

392
Q

Diarrheoa Lacrimation Vomiting Rhinorrhea Dysphoria Nausea Fevers Sweating Insomnia Agitation and aches Dilated pupils

A

Heroine withdrawal

393
Q

Lady spontaneously changed from speaking English to fluent polish and was delusional shouting that Lady gaga wanted to kill her, whats the diagnosis?

A

transient psychosis

394
Q

Neonate that’s grunting and 92 sats after 20hr premature rupture of membrane labour, what do you do next?

A

O2/CPAP or Intubate, surfactant

395
Q

Patient wanted contraception. When is it advised to start?

A

First day of period

396
Q

Pronounced claw hand and motor symptoms, normal back of hand sensation?

A

guyon’s canal syndrome

397
Q

Cholesystitis treatment

A

IV co-amoxiclav lap chole

398
Q

Rheumatoid features - most likely RA?

A

Swan neck deformity Boutonnieres deformity *Ulnar deviation* Nodules on elbow (Morning stiffness)

399
Q

41 week gestation, unremarkable pregnancy, 2cm dilated, station 0, cervix position anterior, soft consistency, almost fully effaced. What do you do?

A

Membrane sweep Intravaginal prostaglandins If doesn’t work: Do CTG monitoring Breaking of waters (amniotomy with amnihook) Oxytocin

400
Q

Baby with asymmetrical gluteal creases, what investigation do you do?

A

Ultrasound and then hip XR Developmental dysplasia of the hip

401
Q

Patient has pcos. What investigative ratio is most suggestive of diagnosis?

A

testosterone/ SHBG –> baseline test for evaluation of hyperandrogenism

402
Q

Why do you give Anti D?

A

Stop mother making antibody Prevent maternal sensitisation

403
Q

Occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest. No or mild suprasternal and/or intercostal recession. The child is happy and is prepared to eat, drink, and play.

A

Mild croup

404
Q

Man returning from india with jaundice had diarrhoea?

A

Hepatitis A

405
Q

DKA – once patient has been put on saline, what else do you give?

A

(Potassium if <3.5 then add potassium chloride to NaCl) Insulin

406
Q

Complications of cataract surgery?

A

Posterior capsule opacity (PCO) Intraocular lens dislocation. Eye inflammation. Light sensitivity. Photopsia (perceived flashes of light) Macular edema (swelling of the central retina) Ptosis (droopy eyelid) Ocular hypertension (elevated eye pressure)

407
Q

Everything normal pretty much and endometrial tissue is 5mm in woman with bleeding

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

408
Q

Endometriosis symptom most indicative

A

Deep dyspareunia

409
Q

Pt has ptosis slightly weak medial eye movement, whats caused this?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

410
Q

Chronic demyelinating neuropathy

A

Progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the legs and arms. Caused by damage to the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves. CIDP is more common in young adults, and in men Tingling or numbness (beginning in the toes and fingers), weakness of the arms and legs, loss of deep tendon reflexes (areflexia), fatigue, and abnormal sensations. Diabetes HIV SLE

411
Q

Sudden onset headache and third nerve palsy - Differentials?

A

Mid brain strokes Cavernous sinus thrombosis Posterior communicating artery aneurysm SAH - due to uncal herniation

412
Q

Tests before starting Vit D and alendronate?

A

Serum 25-hydroxy VitD (D1) Serum ALP Serum calcium Fasting phosphorus PTH

413
Q

CREST syndrome What does it stand for?

A

Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia

414
Q

Sudden onset severe headache. Ct scan normal. Next investigation?

A

MRI or LP

415
Q

Given vancomycin antibiotic for chest infection then gets erythroderma, what is cause?

A

drug reaction

416
Q

Investigating for retained products of miscarriage?

A

USS

417
Q

Open fracture of tibia - how do you manage?

A

Abx & dress

418
Q

Ischemic stroke management

A

Alteplase - only is before 4.5 hrs Aspirin Endovascualr intervention SALT assessment

419
Q

UTI kid why do USS?

A

To show dilated calyces

420
Q

Indications for CT head in children?

A

-LOC -vomiting, headache -post traumatic seizure (no hx epilepsy) - GCS < 14 - suspected fracture - any signs of fracture - focal deficits

421
Q

Milestones of 2 yrs

A

plays near others (not with them) (6 bricks), 2 word sentence, 200 words

422
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia: Treatment before MC&S in mind and severe?

A

If mild – Doxycycline PO + Metronidazole PO If severe or can’t take oral – Benzylpenicillin IV + gentamycin IV

423
Q

Guy that wants to stop getting depressed, how do u treat him, hes tried to OD on pills in the past

A

CBT

424
Q

Mitral valve replacement and low arterial BP, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds. Next step?

A

(Beck’s triad) Refer to CT surgeon immediately for pericardiocentesis.

425
Q

Cancers that cause osteoporosis

A

multiple myeloma breast cancer prostate cancer lung cancer

426
Q

Pt with signs of endometriosis and a 4mm endometrioma on USS. What is the best way to manage? Investigation?

A

COCP TVUS

427
Q

woman with monochromic (one placenta) diamniotic twins (diagnosed at 1st US scan) suddenly gets intense abdo pain and is large for dates. What is cause?

A

Twin to twin transfusion polhydro

428
Q

Dyskaryosis

A

Multi nucleation Increased cytoplasm:nucleic ratio Irregular chromatin distribution Hyperchromasia

429
Q

DVLA laws for epilepsy?

A

12 months since last seizure

430
Q

Cerebral oedema - CT scan

A

Ventricle disappears

431
Q

Girl fell over, incontinent of urine, biting of tongue etc. - Investigation before leaving hospital?

A

EEG

432
Q

Lady with gallstones, presenting with acute pancreatitis because of gallstones, after stabilization, how would you manage?

A

Cholecystectomy

433
Q

Treatment of thyrotoxicosis

A

Propylthiouracil

434
Q

What is the presentation of opiate/ heroin withdrawal?

A

sweating, muscle aches, sleep problems, runny nose, irritability -later: dilated pupils, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdo pain, tachy/brady, cramping goose bumps

435
Q

Jaundice in first 24 hours - cause? Mediterranean/African Americans/ Middle Eastern Male infant

A

G6PD deficiency

436
Q

Paeds urticaria management, the boy forgot his blue inhaler?

A

IM adrenaline

437
Q

Section 5(4) Recommendation? Apply? Condition? Duration?

A

Emergency of detention of information patient Nurse in charge of patient No application Mental disorder Duration 4 hours –> Discharge, convert to S5(2), Elongate (can’t appeal)

438
Q

section 48/49

A

transfer of a remanded prisoner from prison to hospital

439
Q

Lady positive pregnancy test (<5 weeks) , LIF pain and bleeding, what is most appropriate investigation?

A

quantitative serial b-HCG

440
Q

Risk factors for vaginal prolapse

A

Vaginal delivery (forceps delivery) Older age High BMI Previous surgery for prolapse Genetic factors

441
Q

Pt with light bleeding and lower abdominal pain @ 9 weeks gestation. What is definitive investigation to find out whats happening?

A

TV USS

442
Q

Neonate premature at 30 with intermittent apnea, what is the management options include Corticosteroid, diuretics, and caffeine?

A

Caffeine

443
Q

Young girl one eye facing inwards towards nose. What lesion?

A

CN IV esotropia

444
Q

Schizo acute dystonia treatment?

A

Procyclidine Hydrochloride

445
Q

Old ladies husband has passed away what features tell us that she is suffering from depression as opposed to normal grief: diurnal mood variation, agitation, auditory hallucinations of her dead husband

A

Diurnal mood variation

446
Q

The patient gets dizzy every time he turns his head. Presents with left lateral gaze and nystagmus Diagnosis? Investigation? Treatment?

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo Dix-halpike Epley

447
Q

Neuro rehab: purpose of rehab

A

Re-learn lost functionality Reduce symptoms and improve the wellbeing of people with diseases

448
Q

Asthma not well controlled, told about a wheeze and other signs. What would you like to know next?

A

Peak flow

449
Q

Epistaxis management after pressure attempted, what next?

A

Packing (children/not well tolerated) Cauterise sphenopalatine

450
Q

Indication to below the knee amputation.

A

If all other methods have failed/Unsuitable for revascularisation

451
Q

Endometrial cancer, what type of cancer is it?

A

Adenocarcinoma

452
Q

Patient comes in 2 months old Turkish parents. Jaundiced and anaemic. Diagnosis? Blood film?

A

G6PD deficiency Heinz body

453
Q

Women comes in with incontinence that happens only when she laughs or coughs. What does she have?

A

stress incontinence

454
Q

Haematuria, smoker, ct found multiple lesions in lungs and renal kidney lesion - Diagnosis?

A

RCC

455
Q

Taking anti epileptics, taking antidepressants has tremor. Reduced facial movements. What drug is causing side effect?

A

Carbamazepine Gabapentin Pregabalin Levoterazatam

456
Q

Rx for abscence seizures?

A

clonazepam ethosuximide

457
Q

Man had AF and raised amylase(very slightly)

A

Mesenteric ischaemia

458
Q

Milestones of 18 mths

A

plays alone (3 bricks)

459
Q

What is Akathisia?

A

Restlessness

460
Q

Patient stage 3 and wanted to naturally deliver placenta. What is the best way to ensure she does not loose any extra blood?

A

Syntometrine - is a combination of oxytocin + ergometrine. Carboprost Used in combination for delivery of placenta and prevention of PPH.

461
Q

How to prevent diabetic nephropathy progression in long term diabetic?

A

ACE-i to stop progression according to BMJ BP Keep BP below 130/80

462
Q

Patient has hypomania. What is the first line treatment?

A

olanzapine

463
Q

Pt with signs of endometriosis and a 4mm endometrioma on USS. What is the best way to manage? Investigation?

A

COCP GnRH analogues - reduce the size Laprascopic laser to reduce complications TVUS

464
Q

Patient with stroke symptoms, regain movement after 45min - management?

A

Alteplase then start aspirin 300mg 24 hours later.

465
Q

Chinese guy with conductive hearing loss?

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

466
Q

RLQ pain sudden onset and constant pain, N+V, increased CRP, but normal WBC.

A

Ovaian torsion

467
Q

Round opacification of paediatric XR

A

Pneumonia

468
Q

Management of OCD

A

CBT SSRI

469
Q

Old lady has confusion and fluctuating consciousness. Her son says that she bumped her head a few weeks ago. What is it?

A

subdural haemorrhage

470
Q

Patient presents 38 weeks pregnant - bp 140/90 and protein ++ Diagnosis? Management?

A

Pre-eclampsia Deliver the baby

471
Q

Kid has hypovolemic shock weighed 12kg: how much fluid do you give them?

A

20ml/kg bolus over 10 mins.

472
Q

Treatment of hypercalcaemia?

A

First record the patient’s weight. Stop drugs known to cause hypercalcaemia. Give 0.9% NaCl to render the patient euvolaemic, aiming to increase urine volume to 200 mL/hr.

473
Q

Builder comes in with tingling of hands whats differential, previous hx of neck trauma?

A

Cervical radiculopathy

474
Q

3 day history of feeling tired/ill, in last few days suddenly urine output drops, proteinuria, bp is normal: what is cause?

A

membranous

475
Q

Afebrile paed with wheeze and expiratory crackles 9 weeks old with recession

A

exacerbation of asthma

476
Q

Man had a fall, loss of motor on one side and loss of proprioception on same side. Loss of sensory on opposite. What is the diagnosis?

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome is a spinal cord hemisection. On the ipsilateral side there will be loss of motor function (Corticospinal tract) and loss of proprioception & vibration sense (dorsal column). On the contralateral side there will be loss of pain, temperature and crude touch.

477
Q

Endometriosis - lady wants to have kids in future -management?

A

Laparoscopic ovarian cystectomy with excision Can do laparoscopic surgery if severe disease if >3cm

478
Q

62, increasingly withdrawn, few words used, finding it difficult to name things. Mmse 28/30. What was likely cause?

A

Primary progressive aphasia the language capabilities slowly and progressively become impaired. (Caused by alzheimers)

479
Q

Melanoma - what’s the most prognostic factor?

A

Breslow

480
Q

Thoraco-lumbar Kyphosis investigations?

A

XRay

481
Q

Downs, healthy at birth no cardiac signs. Parents have been told of complications. What do you do next?

A

Echo

482
Q

Crohn’s - Drugs used to induce remission?

A

1st line: Steroids (use mesalazine if can’t use steroids) Adjunct: Azathioprine/mercaptopurine

483
Q

What is amount of blood loss is considered post partum haemorrhage?

A

Over 500 mL

484
Q

What are the signs for Parkinson’s disease?

A

TRAPD Tremor Rigidity Postural instability bradykinesia

485
Q

ENT what is associated with polyps & post nasal drip

A

asthma, hay fever & aspirin allergy

486
Q

FSH high, LH high, Prolactin normal, TSH high, Testosterone normal.

A

Premature ovarian failure

487
Q

What is the best ix to rule out causes of oligomenorrhoea/ amenorrhoea in PCOS?

A

LH/FSH ratio

488
Q

Disulfiram use

A

Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase - leading to accumulation

489
Q

DDx sudden onset RAPD?

A

optic neuritis severe glaucoma retinal detachment severe macular degeneration

490
Q

Patient had lucid interval secondary to trauma, fell off step ladder?

A

extradural haematoma

491
Q

Difficulty having kids, trying 14 months, hubby fine, periods every 2-3 months. Normal testosterone and SHBG, FSH:LH ratio raised, normal progesterone and prolactin - Diagnosis?

A

PCOS

492
Q

Pt has food poisoning and develops loss of sensation in legs. Whats diagnosis?

A

Guilian barre secondary to campylobacter

493
Q

Most likely cause of PPH?

A

Atonic uterus

494
Q

Indications for induction of labour?

A

-prolonged pregnancy (>12 days EDD) -prelabour premature rupture of the membranes without labour starting -DM mother >38weeks -Rh incompatibility

495
Q

Large Bowel obstruction treatment.

A

Drip and suck - nasogastric decompression plus fluid resus

496
Q

Migraine prophlyaxis patient previous depression

A

Venlafaxine (SNRIs)/Amitryptilline Duloxetine Milnacipran

497
Q

Painless jaundice ddx

A

Pancreatic cancer

498
Q

What is the management of alcohol withdrawal?

A

chlordiazapoxide 300mg

499
Q

Subfertility, cycles 35-48 days, causes of why she can’t get pregnant?

A

Smoking

500
Q

Uteric calculus, currently has infection. WCC raised. Treatment?

A

Hydration and pain killers Nephrostomy (>0.5 cm) Gent IV

501
Q

Parathyroid blood results: Low/normal calcium High PTH High phosphate Low Vit D High ALP

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism (gland hyperplasia)

502
Q

Patient with gangrenous toe and ulcer under foot with leg pain at rest. What is the next step?

A

Revascularisation (critical limb ischaemia)

503
Q

Psychotic symptoms with suicidal ideation want to leave a&e, which law would you use?

A

Mental health act

504
Q

Haemorrhagic stroke management

A

Beta blocker (Labetalol) DVT prophylaxis - heparin

505
Q

Diabetic proliferative retinopathy and macular oedema in one eye. How best to manage?

A

Anti-vegf injection +/- panretinal photocoagulation (if significant then photocoag first then, intravitreol anti vegf, macular laser)

506
Q

Best schizophrenia prognosis

A

Paranoid

507
Q

Hep B treatment

A

Pegylated INF-a - tenofovir and entecavir

508
Q

2/5 palpable occipital posterior – which forceps to use?

A

Kielland forceps

509
Q

Frequent barking cough and easily audible stridor at rest. Suprasternal and sternal wall retraction at rest. No or little distress or agitation. The child can be placated and is interested in its surroundings

A

Moderate croup

510
Q

Patient with sensorineural unilateral hearing loss, vertigo and on MRI found to have an abnormal lesion leaving the internal auditory meatus. Diagnosis?

A

Acoustic neuroma aka vestibular schwannoma, arising from vestibular nerve

511
Q

Diabetic with hyperlipidaemia and high cholesterol and raised Hba1c. How to control cholesterol levels?

A

Atorvastatin 80 mg

512
Q

Man, smoker, alcohol drinker, lost weight. Picture of a lesion at the back of the throat?

A

Squamous cell

513
Q

When to give oxytocin in 3rd stage of labor?

A

10iu of oxytocin as anterior shoulder of baby is out and then double clamp cord -in delay of clamping cord= higher haematocrit levels in neonates

514
Q

Death certificate 1a - what to write as reason of death?

A

WHO defines the underlying cause of death as “a) the disease or injury which initiated the train of morbid events leading directly to death, or b) the circumstances of the accident or violence which 5 produced the fatal injury”. From a public health point of view, preventing this first disease or injury will result in the greatest health gain.

515
Q

Patient with normal weight but having a problem binge eating. Patient uses laxatives to vomit after feeling bad. Diagnosis?

A

Bulimia

516
Q

Patient with hx of macular degeneration was agitated and delirious but was not a threat to anyone - how would you manage?

A

Reassurance patients Reduce noise and distraction (Side room)

517
Q

Endometrial cancer staging investigations?

A

FIGO staging (surgical) Pelvic USS Biopsy and histology

518
Q

Short term management of Gout

A
  1. NSAIDs- diclofenac or indomethacin 50mg/8h for up to 8 days (strong NSAIDs) 2. Colchicine 0.5mg/6h until pain resolves. Also use if NSAIDs are contraindicated
519
Q

UC - Drugs used to induce remission?

A

1st line: Aminosalycate (Mesalazine) 2nd line: Steroids (pred)

520
Q

11yr-old girl with 3mths hx of abdo distention, loose, watery stools after drinking milk?

A

Lactose intolerance

521
Q

Investigating for retained products of pregnancy?

A

USS (TVS)

522
Q

Bilateral conjunctivitis itchy eyes - management?

A

Anti-histamine - epinastine, azelastine, pheniramine, alcaftadine

523
Q

Boy who had delayed puberty, said father also was delayed.

A

Constitutional delay

524
Q

Bronchiolitis, a premature baby born 24 weeks, what do you give the baby?

A

Oxygen

525
Q

Osteoarthritis drug management

A

LA Diclofenac (with omeprazole) Steroid injection (methylpred)

526
Q

Infected bile duct obstruction (ascending cholangitis) - management?

A

IV abx (tazobactam or piperacillin) + ERCP

527
Q

Endometrial cancer. Risk factor?

A

Obesity >50 yrs Endometrial hyperplasia Unopposed oestrogen (early menarchy, late menopause, HRT) Tamoxifen FH

528
Q

Patient with weight loss, dysphagia and occult blood - next investigation?

A

Upper OGD

529
Q

Colectomy of crohns pt, 2 days post-op asks nurse about feeding?

A

eat and drink normally to get gut moving

530
Q

Minimal change disease management?

A

Steroids - Prednisolone Fluid restriction and low salt diet (Steroid resistant - cyclophosphamide)

531
Q

Leg claudication on exercise, pulses palpable and obs stable – what management?

A

Aspirin/clopidogrel+ exercise + risk factor modification (statin, b-blocker +/-ACEi)

532
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole twice a day for 5 to 7 days.

533
Q

Male have sexual tendency towards underage girl what would indicate that she not is at immediate risk?

A

Been less than 6 months of these tendencies

534
Q

Patient been on sertraline for 18 months, not getting on with it, what is the next management?

A

Switch to other SSRI (fluoxetine)

535
Q

Shoulder dystopia. Most likely cause to get shoulder dystocia?

A

Macrosomic baby

536
Q

Stroke guy, why can’t he drive?

A

if stroke or TIA: 1 month off driving may not need to inform DVLA if no residual neruological deficit if multiple TIA over short period times: 3 months off driving and inform DVLA

537
Q

Rx for lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

Drugs: NSAIDs, PGE1, gabapentin and vit B1. Physio may have epidrual steroid injections Surgical: traditional laminectomy, bilateral laminotomies

538
Q

Patient had depression, had core symptoms + extras - 6 in total - Management?

A

Antidepressant (Sertraline) + CBT

539
Q

Woman BMI>40 and previous macrosomic baby - when do you test for GDM in pregnancy?

A

28 weeks

540
Q

6wks pregnant woman with light bleeding, HCG 650, and TVU showing no fetus?

A

miscarriage

541
Q

Pt with weakness and dizziness alongside changing colour in palmar creases. What is best test? Top differential?

A

SynACTH. Addison’s – palmar crease pigmentation, weakness, abdo pain. Short synacthen test is best diagnostic + 1st line in diagnosing

542
Q

HRT contraindications

A

Breast cancer Estrogen sensitive cancer Undiagnosed vaginal bleedings Endometrial hyperplasia

543
Q

Baby jaundiced 6 weeks high unconjugated bilirubin and pale stool?

A

Biliary atresia

544
Q

Milestones of 3 months

A

3 months – good head control (e.g. no head lag, able to lie with head up, can be held sitting), laughs, reaches for objects

545
Q

Migraine prophlyaxis patient previous depression

A

Venlafaxine (SNRIs) Duloxetine Milnacipran

546
Q

Cancer patient presents acutely with cord compression?

A

1) Steroids - Dexamethasone 2) MRI spine and review

547
Q

not passing meconium, put finger in and stool is expelled

A

Hirschprungs

548
Q

What are varicose ulcer signs?

A

Lipodermatosclerosis, swollen, achy legs, shallow red sore with irregular edges

549
Q

Child with seizure going on for 20 minutes. Has been given lorazepam, what should you give him now?

A

Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg intravenously Benzo

550
Q

Type of miscarriage? pain; bleeding > bleeding equivalent to menstruation; cervix = open; uterine size = dates; ultrasound Fetal heart may/may not be visualised

A

Inevitable miscarriage

551
Q

Causes of prolonged jaundice in newborns

A

Biliary atresia Hyperthyroid Galactossemia UTI Breast milk jaundice (unconjugated bilirubin) CMV/Toxoplasmosis

552
Q

Patient has retinal detachment. What feature in history predisposes him the most?

A

Increasing age, previous retinal detachment, family history of retinal detachment, myopia, diabetes, vitreous haemorrhage, previous eye surgery (e.g. cataract).

553
Q

Pt diagnosed with open angle glaucoma. Which piece of advice should patient be given?

A

Pt’s eyesight is irreversible Damage to the optic nerve is likely to be prevented or delayed. Sadly treatment cannot restore any sight that has already been lost.

554
Q

Patient diagnosed with angina but also has asthma. Already on aspirin – what is the first drug pt should be put on?

A

Verapamil

555
Q

Started someone on ACEi, he had a small creatinine rise what do you do?

A

Discontinuation of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is recommended if patients experience ≥30% Treat with NaCl fluid

556
Q

What are the common symptoms peripheral vascular disease in diabetics?

A

Venous ulcer

557
Q

Chronic demyelinating neuropathy

A

Progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the legs and arms. Caused by damage to the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves. CIDP is more common in young adults, and in men Tingling or numbness (beginning in the toes and fingers), weakness of the arms and legs, loss of deep tendon reflexes (areflexia), fatigue, and abnormal sensations. Diabetes HIV SLE

558
Q

Wife has manic symptoms on a background of depression, currently on SSRI, what do you do?

A

Bipolar Stop SSRI, swap to Lithium

559
Q

Women couldn’t dorsiflex - nerve damage

A

Common peroneal nerve

560
Q

7y year old still bedwetting, father has history of bedwetting until 8. Nothing in the hx about previous treatment What is the next treatment?

A

Lifestyle Eneursis alarm

561
Q

33 year old comes for random test - has +ve ANCA, CRP, ESR

A

Most likely connective tissue disorder

562
Q

Patient presented with stroke within 1hr- which treatment provide best possible outcome?

A

Thrombolysis

563
Q

Lady has progressive weakness, subdued deep tendon reflexes and normal tone, had URTI a week ago?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

564
Q

Osteochandroma (patient with swelling) investigation?

A

CXR, x-ray pelvis

565
Q

Patient with t2 diabetes mellitus (on metformin) with high cholesterol, high BMI (31) and poor glucose control. How should the pt control their cholesterol?

A

Statin

566
Q

What are the symptoms of dependent PD?

A

SUFFER Subordinate Undemanding Feels hopeless when alone Fears abandonment Encourages others to make decisions Reassurance needed

567
Q

Red painful eye with decreased visual acuity - what to do next?

A

Pupillary light reflex - Glaucoma (acute)

568
Q

What is the ix for 42yr-old woman, 14 months amenorrhoea, hot flushes?

A

FSH

569
Q

Management of PTSD

A

Watchful waiting for mild symptoms Trauma focussed CBT Severe - Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (Paroxetine if drugs being used)

570
Q

Peripheral artery disease management

A

Quit smoking Atorvastatin Clopidogrel Endovascular revascularisation

571
Q

What is the management of ABCD2 score 0-3?

A

Need other indication for hospital observation

572
Q

Diabetic what is the BEST investigation for eyes

A

digital retinal imaging (put tropicamide first to dilate)

573
Q

Treatment of viral meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone IV and acyclovir If immunocompromised or >55 add amoxicillin

574
Q

Section 5(2) Recommendation? Apply? Condition? Duration?

A

Emergency of detention of information patient Doctor in charge of patient No application Mental disorder Duration 72 hours –> Discharge, convert to S2/3, Elongate (can’t appeal)

575
Q
  1. Impetigo advice to miss school-
A

This practice is implemented by many schools as they exclude children from attending until until the affected child no longer has crusty or bullous lesions

576
Q

1st rank symptoms of schizo

A

Auditory hallucinations, somatic hallucinations, thought withdrawal or inserting, broadcasting, delusional perception, delusions of control

577
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma arises from?

A

Arises from actinic keratosis (pre-cancer)

578
Q

Patient doesn’t respond to anything apart from opening eyes a tiny bit and moves them. What is the diagnosis?

A

Locked in syndrome/ Pseudocoma/ brain stem infarct

579
Q

Acute management of depression with psychosis?

A

antipsychotics- olanzapine/ haloperidol

580
Q

man presents with pain in epigastrium. blood pressure is 200/100, what is it?

A

Hypertensive crises because bp is >180/110 Rx is labetalol

581
Q

Labour, mention of repeated late decelerations over last 40 mins, what do u do next?

A

Fetal blood sampling

582
Q

Stroke patient has face and arm UM weakness, sensory loss and Broca’s aphasia where is the stroke?

A

MCA

583
Q

Pt with melaena, altered bowel habit and weight loss, no lesions anywhere on body. What is Dx?

A

Colon cancer

584
Q

2-3 week history of feeling tired/ill, in last few days suddenly urine output drops, haematuria, proteinuria, bp is normal: what is cause?

A

post-strep glomerulonephritis

585
Q

Pt with proximal myopathy-ish symptoms - and low Na and high K. Diagnosis?

A

Addisons

586
Q

Treatment for pregnancy induced HTN?

A

labetalol Methyldopa for asthmatic

587
Q

Patient with schizophrenia with high BMI and cholesterol. What medication should the pt be started on?

A

Amisulpiride, *Aripiprazole*, Ziprasidone - least weight gain

588
Q

Patient has anterior uveitis. What medication is contraindicated?

A

Pilocarpine - irritates ocular surface

589
Q

Thyroxine, long-term DM, control recently deteriorated thyroxine effects on diabetes.

A

Increase glucose in thyroxine

590
Q

Carpal tunnel definitive sign

A

Phalen’s test/Tinnels

591
Q

New born. Doctor says more likely to get UTI. Patient asks what symptoms to look out for if he gets UTI?

A

Irritability, fever, foul smelling urine, poor feeding

592
Q

Giant cell arteritis treatment

A

High dose prednisolone Emergency opthamology review (if confirmed give aspirin additionally) (Allergic/relapsing then give methotrexate)

593
Q

TIA prevention?

A

lifestyle modification statins BP control carotid endarterectomy or stenting clopidogrel

594
Q

BPH + LUTS management?

A

tamsulosin + finasteride

595
Q

Lady is bleeding after birth 4500 ml of blood what radiological intervention would you do?

A

intrauterine balloon

596
Q

Kid wanted to sleep but couldn’t due to rash

A

Eczema (itching at night)

597
Q

Pt with 2 weeks hx of frank haematuria and varicoceale. What is most likely Dx?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

598
Q

RTA patient with open book fracture pelvis, scaphoid fracture. stable but absent bowel sounds?

A

ABCDE and then CT TAP Internal fixation

599
Q

Spasticity on 5mg bd baclofen. Management?

A

increase baclofen (100mg/d is maximum)

600
Q

Patient with sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo and aural fullness. Diagnosis?

A

Menieres

601
Q

Most common cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

Chlamydia Gonorrhoea

602
Q

What week gestation for GDM screening?

A

booking appointment (8-10wk) and 24-8 weeks

603
Q

Insomnia Anxiety Tremor Loss of appetite Tinnitus Perspiration Perceptual disturbances and seizures

A

Diazepam/Benzo withdrawal

604
Q

CXR with ground glass appearance

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

605
Q

section 47/49

A

transfer of a sentenced prisoner to hospital for treatment

606
Q

Ulnar neuropathy first line Ix/

A

EMG/NCS

607
Q

Upper motor neurone lesions symptoms

A

Weakness, spasticity, clonus, and hyperreflexia

608
Q

Paediatric epilepsy - protocol for status epilepticus

A

Time 0 mins (1st step) - Seizure starts Check ABC, high flow O2 if available Check blood glucose 5 mins (2nd step) - Midazolam 0.5 mg/kg buccally Or Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg if intravenous access established 15 mins (3rd step) Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg intravenously 25 mins (4th step) Phenytoin 20 mg/kg by intravenous infusion over 20 mins or (if on regular phenytoin) Phenobarbital 20 mg/kg (if known heart block or already on phenytoin)intravenously over 5 mins 45 mins (5th step) Rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia using thiopental sodium 4 mg/kg intravenously

609
Q

Man with nocturnal back pain, high ESR. Obvious myeloma – what do you do next?

A

1st Ix: Serum/Urine electrophoresis - to identify paraprotein / light chain urinary excretion Confirm with BM aspirate Imaging (in order of preference) - MRI, CT, skeletal survey (X-Rays)

610
Q

Goserelin - What is it? Mechanism of action?

A

GNRH receptor agonist Inhibition of pituitary gonadotropin secretion

611
Q

Newborn baby from mother with polyhydramnios, having difficulty breathing, difficulty swallowing secretions

A

Esophageal atresia

612
Q

Causes of menorrhagia, no intermenstrual bleed, multiparous, abdo exam normal, didn’t want to have bimanual?

A

Fibroids

613
Q

Patient with osteoarthritis - mild sx and managed with analgesia. How would you manage?

A

Physiotherapy

614
Q

Young patient pain in hands. Stiff in the morning. What is the diagnosis? Management?

A

Juvenile Idiopathic arthritis MDT + lifestyle NSAIDs Long term - methotrexate and folic acid

615
Q

Which medication causes memory problems - bisphosphantes, bisoprolol, oxybutynin , rivoraxaban

A

Oxybutynin

616
Q

Lady with recurrent UTI and scarring. Reflux nephropathy - chronic pyelonephritis + vesico-ureteric reflux: Presentation? Investigations?

A

Dysuria Frequency Pyrexia Urinary incontinence at night 1.MCUG: contrast is used to see the reflux of urine during voiding 2.IVU: show scarring with thin cortex overlying a distorted calyx. Clubbing of calyx: normal cupping of calyx is reversed. 3.DMSA scan: show renal scarring due to reflux.

617
Q

Ovarian cancer commonest type?

A

Serous

618
Q

Patient comes in with generalised weakness, leg cramps and nausea?

A

HHS (hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state)

619
Q

What are the presentations for acoustic neuroma?

A

vertigo, unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, absent corneal reflex, facial palsy MRI of CPA

620
Q

Alcoholic man with chronic pancreatitis?

A

Creon

621
Q

Patient has a fall and fractures hip. Cardiac problems, the fall was due to an MI, how do you manage?

A

Hemiarthroplasty, Dynamic hip screw, intramedullary device

622
Q

Long term management of Gout

A

Long term therapy – Allopurinol. Do not start within 1 month of an attack, and NSAIDs/ Colchicine given for 4 weeks before and after starting allopurinol. 2nd line is Probenecid.

623
Q

Patient has really high BP, low platelets and a bruise after an injection. Which of these is a relative contraindication to heparin?

A

Elderly Low platelets / thrombocytopenia are absolute CI to heparin, recent cerebral haemorrhage, severe hypertension; peptic ulcer; after major trauma or recent surgery to eye or nervous system; acute bacterial endocarditis

624
Q

Guy had cataract surgery came back 3 days later with eye pain

A

endopthalmitis

625
Q

Definitive management of endometriosis

A

Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo.

626
Q

Diplegic spastic child already had baclofen+ physio. Next mx?

A

Surgery, physio, more baclofen, cast Baclofen 40mg/day max if still no improvement give botulin toxin type A injection

627
Q

Where do you place grommet?

A

Anterior inferior

628
Q

Baby has vomiting then diarrhoea? What is the likely organism?

A

Rotavirus (non bloody diarrhoea) Oral immunisation at 2 and 3 months

629
Q

Treatment of woman who comes in contact with check pox unsure if chicken pox in childhood.

A

Treat with IVIG

630
Q

Acamprosate use

A

Acts on NMDA and GABAa Reduces Cravings and risk of relapse

631
Q

Anti-d – why don’t you give it before 12 weeks?

A

Blood transferred during that time is not significant

632
Q

How does gout present in a 60 old year old hypertensive who has had it for 2 years?

A

Cyclical flares of joint pain, swelling and erythema 12 hours - several days (Predisposed by diuretics)

633
Q

Antepartum haemorrhage: 8 weeks pregnant investigation

A

Pregnancy test FBC Rhesus Serum BHCG TVUS

634
Q

Homonymous hemianopia and hemisensory loss in both upper and lower limbs where is the lesion?

A

PCA

635
Q

Contraception for adolescents

A

Gillick competencies Under 16s having sex call police Recommend the use of condoms both as a contraceptive, and to prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

636
Q

Bilateral conjunctivitis + itchy eyes

A

Topical antihistamines

637
Q

Woman trying to conceive for 18m periods 28-70 day cycle, partner ok, no past hx, all blood result normal except for low 21day progesterone

A

Early menopause

638
Q

Patient diagnosed and has mild cervical Dyskariosis. Next investigation?

A

HPV status If positive - Colposcopy

639
Q

SZ vs schizotypal disorder?

A

retained insight in schizotypal -odd beliefs and magical thinking, odd, eccentric behaviour

640
Q

Treatment for PTSD

A

Trauma focussed CBT FOR EXAMPLE eye movement desensitisation and processing

641
Q

UC - Drugs used to maintain remission?

A

1st line: oral Aminosalicyates – Mesalazine 2nd line: Azothioprine / Mercaptopurine

642
Q

When do you refer depressed woman?

A

Agitation

643
Q

UPM hemiparesis and apahsia where is the lesion?

A

MCA

644
Q

Baby born 6 hours at term, fed well 45mls, developed grunting and subcostal recession - Diagnosis?

A

Transient tachypnoea of newborn

645
Q

Patient post stroke, has IT job and 5th floor flat with lift. Has quite a few problems. - what would you do?

A

Full OT assessment and home visit before discharge

646
Q

6wks pregnant woman with light bleeding, HCG 100,000, and TVU showing fetal tissue?

A

Hydatidiform mole (incomplete)

647
Q

patient long time immunosuppression, post-transplant. What dermatological condition is in the highest risk?

A

SCC

648
Q

Milestones of 6 wks?

A

– can smile (refer if cannot smile at 10 weeks)

649
Q

Failure to pass meconium – does a pr exam and lots of faeces come out. Investigations?

A

Meconium plug syndrome CF blood sample Rectal suction biopsy Contrast enema

650
Q

Vocal nerve damage investigation?

A

Laryngoscopy

651
Q

Pt with sensory and motor signs peripherally. Vitamin?

A

Vitamin B12 (Vitamin E)

652
Q

What is Bishop score used for and what does each mean?

A

Assess the necessity of induction in prolonged pregnancy (>12days after EDD or 41 (+3)) <5= induction 5-9= ARM >9= spontaneous labour Call PEDS C: consistent P: position E: effacement D: dilatation S: station

653
Q

Venous leg ulcer management

A

Compression bandaging (4 layer), moisturiser, oral pentoxifylline (reduces platelet aggregation and inflammation)

654
Q

chronic pelvic pain dysmenorrhoea - pain often starts days before bleeding deep dyspareunia subfertility tender nodularity in the posterior vaginal fornix and visible vaginal endometriotic lesions may be seen

A

Endometriosis

655
Q

Commonest cause of preterm labour?

A

hx of premature labour hx cervical trauma hx of induced abortion maternal infections multiple pregnancies

656
Q

Treatment of dysmenorrhagia

A

Mefanamic acid COCP

657
Q

Back pain with irregular prostate, and urinary symptoms

A

Prostate cancer

658
Q

Woman with late decelerations on CTG, what next?

A

Do another foetal investigation - foetal blood sampling with pH. Late decelerations = deceleration starts at peak of uterine contraction, recovers after. Requires foetal blood sampling with pH. If acidotic -> Emergency c section.

659
Q

18m old child, can’t walk, crawls. Alert to strangers - where is delay?

A

Gross motor delay

660
Q

Down syndrome conditions risk

A
  • An abdominal x-ray is indicated in infants with DS, as they may be born with a GI defect such as duodenal or anal stenosis, or duodenal or anal atresia (30%). - Hearing screen and thyroid tests are required in all newborns in general. - Vision should be examined in the newborn period because some infants with DS are born with ophthalmic problems. - Haemoglobin for anemia - Dental due to caries - Obstructive sleep apnea
661
Q

School exclusion for chicken pox?

A

5 days after first skin eruption

662
Q

Heart condition baby goes blue when feeds? What is likely diagnosis

A

Transposition of great arteries Tetralogy of Fallot

663
Q

Treatment of compartment syndrome with trauma

A

Fasciotomy Amputation (With rhabdo –> hydration and bicarb)

664
Q

Pt in alcohol outreach team has a convulsion what treatment do you give him?

A

Treat DT with Diazepam

665
Q

Hep B Immune marker to indicate Hepatitis division/multiplying

A

HbsAg

666
Q

Stroke affecting vision weakness in arm>leg – which territory is affected?

A

MCA

667
Q

section 37

A

hospital order

668
Q

Guy arrested carrying knives, said paert of religious beliefs. Is ‘aloof’, what is likely diagnosis?

A

Schizotypal

669
Q

What is the management for MS relapse?

A

IV methylprednisolone 3 days

670
Q

Bone pain with fragility fractures, depression and renal stones

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

671
Q

What further test do you need to do to make sure lp is safe?

A

CT only done if contraindications

672
Q

Has an afferent pupillary defect. What nerve is it? Differential?

A

Optic

673
Q

New born gets UTI - symptoms?

A

•fever •vomiting •lethargy or irritability •poor feeding or failure to thrive •jaundice •septicaemia or shock •offensive smelling urine •febrile convulsions

674
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis microscopy

A

Motile trophozoites in vaginal discharge smears.

675
Q

Newborn sob, grunting, 6 hours after birth. Normal delivery, was fine before. What is likely cause?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

676
Q

Boy with developmental delay….thick calves - Diagnosis?

A

Duchenne’s

677
Q

NSTEMI with normal troponin

A

Unstable angina

678
Q

Patient comes in been treated. Got necrotising fasciitis. Next line of treatment?

A

Urgent surgical debridement 2) IV antibiotics (normally MRSA therefore give Vanc).

679
Q

Patient comes in with fever with new heart murmur? Treatment?

A

Infective endocarditis Flucloxacillin + Gentamicin

680
Q

High lipid, which drug to treat dyslipidemia?

A

Atorvastatin

681
Q

Patient comes in been to GP several times complaining of hand pain, tummy aches, urinary problems etc. Diagnosis?

A

Somatisation disorder (multiple physical symptoms present for at least 2 years, patients refuses to accept reassurance or negative tests)

682
Q

What is the immediate and prophylaxis management of cluster headache?

A

Acute: 100% O2 + subcut triptan Prophylaxis: verapamil

683
Q

CURB-65 - Score 3 management?

A
  • Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point) - Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point) - Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point) - Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systeolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) - Age >= 65 years (1 point)
684
Q

Raynaud’s, positive Scl-70, DsDNA negative?

A

Systemic sclerosis (diffuse cutaneous)

685
Q

Section 2 Used for? Recommendation? Apply? Duration?

A

Used for assessment Two Section 12 doctors or One section 12 patient’s GP Apply by nearest relative or AMHP (health professional) 28 days –> Discharged or convert to S3 (Patients can appeal in first 14 days)

686
Q

Meningitis CSF - Clear High pressure High lymphocytes Decreased glucose Moderately high protein India ink stain

A

Cryptococcal

687
Q

Paracetamol OD - liver transplant criteria?

A

pH < 7.3 or INR > 6.5 AND creatinine > 300 AND encephalopathy III or IV

688
Q

Guy had AKI after surgery do you assess his fluid balance or saline over 1 hr or calcium gluconate?

A

Assess fluid balance

689
Q

Drugs that cause restrictive lung disease?

A

amiodarone methotrexate nitrofuratoin

690
Q

Parathyroid blood results: Raised calcium Raised PTH Low phosphate High ALP Serum Ca:Cr clearance >0.01

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

691
Q

Patient with signs consistent with encephalopathy (liver failure) on the background of alcoholic cirrhosis and being alcohol independent. What is the first step in Mx?

A

Lactulose Phosphate enemas Stop diuretics if low potassium

692
Q

Other name for guillan barre syndrome?

A

Acute inflammation demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy

693
Q

Repeat key differentiating thing between stress & urge?

A

Nocturia

694
Q

Bilirubin in a neonate is high, baby has gone home, mom phones GP and mentions the baby was jaundiced at aged 14 hours. Management?

A

phototherapy (exchange transfusion only in encephalopathy or hypotonia or bilirubin >95%)

695
Q

Patient with RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, distension/ascites, early satiety, weight loss/cachexia, hepatic encephalopathy –which biochemical marker do you use?

A

HCC Alpha fetoprotein

696
Q

How does the COCP protect against PID?

A

Thickens cervical mucus – making it difficult for both sperm and bacteria to enter.

697
Q

Pt has a ‘nettle rash’ episodes lasting for 6h for the last 12 months. Most likely pathogenesis?

A

Allergy

698
Q

Pt with STEMI – Immediate management?

A

Morphine + metoclopramide Oxygen GTN – sublinhual/IV Aspirin 300mg Ticagrelor Anticoag – enoxaparin/abciximab

699
Q

Schizophrenic guy, police bring in under 136

A

MHA assessment and admit

700
Q

Indian baby who was bought in with mum looking pale. Hb done and found to be low. Baby is 1 years old and is on cows milk. What is the reason for anaemia?

A

Low iron in cows milk.

701
Q

Child with purpuric rash Bloody diarrhoea and abdo pain Rash on buttocks, legs and feet

A

Henloch Schonlein purpura

702
Q

What is the bitchy snaky name for GBS?

A

acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy

703
Q

Treatment of mastitis

A

Continue breastfeeding The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 10-14 days (Staph aureus)

704
Q

Milestones of 9 mths

A

– pulls to standing, crawls, shy but plays peek a boo, takes everything to the mouth (pincer), babble (inc mama, dada(

705
Q

GCS

A

Eyes Spontaneous To sound To pressure None Verbal Orientated Confused Words Sounds None Motor Obey commands Localising Normal flexion Abnormal flexion Extension None

706
Q

Patient comes in with periorbital pain, loss of visual acuity with scotoma (blind spot), loss of color vision, and rapid afferent pupillary defect. Normal optic disc on examination. Diagnosis?

A

Retrobulbar neuritis

707
Q

How do you prevent diabetic proliferative retinopathy?

A

Laser treatment

708
Q

Depression Anxiety Fatigue Decreased conc Cravings (increased appetite) Excess sleep Vivid dreams CRASH - suicide ideation, N&V, formication

A

Cocaine withdrawal

709
Q

Old lady saw spiders, incontinent, not looking after herself for last few days - Differentials?

A

Delirium tremens Lewy body dementia

710
Q

Painful eye movements, Swollen fingers + eosophageal

A

Myasthenia gravis

711
Q

XR of colles fracture

A

Horizontal across radius

712
Q

Pitting in nails and swelling in 3 DIP joints and dactylitis - Diagnosis?

A

Psoriatic arthritis (Hx of psoriasis is common)

713
Q

Patient stage 1 and needs augmentation. What is best way?

A

Oxytocin

714
Q

left Hemineglect and behavioural abnormalities where is the lesion?

A

ACA

715
Q

10 year old, limp, knee pain, no fever -groin or knee pain -bilateral hip px -trendelenburg’s gait -weight >90th ; obesity -endocrine disorders that cause obesity -puberty (12-13.5 boys) Diagnosis?

A

SUFE (Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

716
Q

Acute HF management?

A

Freusemide

717
Q

Man has replaced hip and is hallucinating and has long QT - Drug that’s causing it? lorazepam, risperidone, tamazepam, quetiapine and benzo, haloperidol

A

Haloperidol

718
Q

Increased prolactin Increased GH Normal/low LH+FSH Normal/low testosterone+estradiol

A

Pituitary adenoma

719
Q

Sickle cell disease with chest syndrome - management?

A

O2 (sats >94%)+ incentive spirometry+ fluids+analgesia (sc morphine 0.1mg/kg)

720
Q

Malaysian girl, persistent jaundice (>2 weeks), yellow/brown urine, pale stools, hepatosplenomegaly after 3rd/4th week. High conjugate bilirubin Diagnosis?

A

Biliary atresia (rare) → absence of bile ducts. (Immediate Kasai procedure hepatoportoenterostomy → Drain bile) Ddx - neonatal hepatitis

721
Q

18 month of a child has respiratory distress that came on suddenly. Biphasic wheeze + afebrile. Investigations? Asthma emergency management?

A

SABA and PEFR Inhaled SABA, ICS, abx if needed, O2

722
Q

Coryzal symptoms Dry cough Increasing breathlessness Wheezing Fine inspiratory crackles Feeding difficult

A

Bronchiolitis (Respiratory syncytial virus)

723
Q

Best investigation for multiple sclerosis?

A

s MRI. (Sagittal)

724
Q

Patient with 3 month history with bowel troubles and campylobacter infection prior to this. Abdo pain relieved by defacation. Altered stool passage (straining, urgency, incomplete evacuation) abdominal bloating (more common in women than men), distension, tension or hardness symptoms made worse by eating and passage of mucus Normal bloods, no fever and negative stool. What is most likely dx?

A

IBS

725
Q

Haloperidol. What drug gets rid of side effects of haloperidol?

A

procyclidine

726
Q

Red painful eye with normal visual acuity - what to do next?

A

Look at the surface of the eye Snellen chart Inspection of lid and brow Inspection of the ocular surface and subtarsal surface, pupillary reactions

727
Q

Infections with Argyll-Robertson?

A

Occurs in neurosyphilis and diabetes

728
Q

Boy leaning forward, taking deep breaths epiglottitis? Next line of treatment.

A

Oxygen and abx (ceftriaxone and ampicillin)

729
Q

Main advantage of breast milk over formula?

A

Reduces risk of sudden infant death syndrome, reduces infections, reduced DM1, reduced asthma, eczema

730
Q

Young lady with polydipsia and urea. Had DKA – which fluids do you give?

A

0.9% NaCl 1L – over 1st hour, 0.9% NaCl 1L – over next 2 hours, etc

731
Q

In GUM clinic which infections can you test for and get results the same day?

A

HIV Chylamidia Gonorrhea

732
Q

Drugs that cause depression

A

Vigabtrin, topiramte, primidone, phenobarbital, lacosamide, gabapentin

733
Q

Cystic fibrosis on xray

A

Consolidation, hyperinflation, dilatation

734
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss (unilateral), tinnitus, headache, CN palsies (trigeminal/facial/vestibulocochlear nerve), vertigo (late sign), signs of raised ICP Diagnosis? Investigation?

A

Acoustic neuroma (vestibuloschwannoma) MRI brain - gadollinium enhanced

735
Q

Patient with painful ankle and negatively birifringent crystals – what is dx?

A

Gout

736
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma investigations? Tumour markers?

A

CT abdo CA 19-9

737
Q

she was feeling hot then cold and yawning and dilated pupils

A

Opioid withdrawal

738
Q

Skier - knee swelling that is delayed by one day

A

Meniscal tear

739
Q

Pt with light bleeding and crampy pain @ 7 weeks. Has a closed OS but on USS there is something which looks like a gestational sac?

A

Threatened miscarriage - presents with a closed cervical OS, normal uterus size, mild / light bleeding.

740
Q

Old man comes in because he has been leaking urine and feeling of incomplete emptiness.

A

Overflow incontinence

741
Q

Pt with frank haematuria. He had this before and took Abx and it went away. But now it has returned. Smokes 30 ciggs a day since he was born. Bladder cancer, UTI

A

UTI (Be aware Penicillin can cause haematuria)

742
Q

Schizoid characteristics

A

●Ideas of reference (differ from delusions in that some insight is retained) ●Odd beliefs and magical thinking ●Unusual perceptual disturbances ●Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness ●Odd, eccentric behaviour ●Lack of close friends other than family members ●Inappropriate affect ●Odd speech without being incoherent

743
Q

Type of miscarriage? no pain; bleeding < bleeding equivalent to menstruation; cervix = closing; uterine size = dates; ultrasound = empty uterus

A

Complete miscarriage

744
Q

Patient has come in. One vocal cord isn’t moving properly. What is the next investigation?

A

Layngoscopy

745
Q

Jaundice in first 24 hours - Mother was infected during pregnancy Treat?

A

Growth restriction Hepatosplenomegaly TTP (Congenital infections) Exchange transfusion

746
Q

What are the developmental milestones for 2.5 yrs old?

A

use 250 words walk, run, turn doorknob, selfish and self-centered

747
Q

Newborn baby from C-Section having difficulty breathing, cyanosis, CXR shows hyperinflated lungs and fluid in horizontal fissure

A

Transient tachypneoa of the new born–> usually gets better in 1-2 days

748
Q

Glasgow scale - Which parameter indicates worse outcome?

A

P - PO2 <8 A - age >55 N - WCC >15 C - Calcium <2 R - renal urea >16 E - AST >200 A - Albumin <32 S - Sugar >10 (3 or more is pancreatitis)

749
Q

CTPA vs d-dimer

A

Bait PE: CTPA unsure: d-dimer

750
Q

Parathyroid blood results: High Calcium Normal/low PTH Low phosphate High ALP

A

Parathyroid malignancy

751
Q

Type of miscarriage? no pain; bleeding = minimal brown; cervix = closed; uterine size = small; ultrasound = no fetal heart

A

Missed miscarriage

752
Q

Third stage of labour management

A

Oxytocin/Syntocinon and then Ergometrine Immediate cord clamping

753
Q

section 37/41

A

hospital order with restriction order

754
Q

Lady with lower abdominal pain, painful VE in fornices, pyrexial

A

PID

755
Q
  1. PV bleed, LMP 6 weeks ago, BHCG high, US shows no sac – Dx?
A

pregnancy of unknown location

756
Q

Patient with low TSH, normal t3 and t4, oligomenorrhoea, low FSH and LH, and exercises a lot. What is the most likely Dx?

A

Levothyroxine misuse

757
Q

Management of croup

A

Single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15mg/kg) to all children regardless of severity - prednisolone is an alternative if dexamethasone is not available - Advise paracetemol or ibuprofen for fever/pain Emergency treatment ● high-flow oxygen ● nebulised adrenaline

758
Q

Solid mass on liver imaging, diabetes, women taking estrogen-containing oral contraceptive medication - 4cm, vascular?

A

Hepatic adenoma

759
Q

A child presents with severe anaemia, pale, poor growth - recently stopped having breastmilk. What is the cause for the anaemia?

A

Beta thalassemia trait

760
Q

Milestones of 7 months

A

can sit without support (Refer if cannot sit at 12 months)

761
Q

Melanoma - key factor for prognosis?

A

Thickness (depth)

762
Q

Pt has migraine which are getting more frequent. What is the best prophylactic measure?

A

Propanolol - Beta Blocker.

763
Q

14 year boy comes in asking for contraception to have sex with 15year old.

A

Both are below age of 16 and above age 13 Underage sexual activity should always be seen as a possible indicator of child sexual exploitation.

764
Q

Lady positive pregnancy test (7weeks) , LIF pain and bleeding, what is most appropriate investigation?

A

TVUS

765
Q

Patient presents, after vomiting for past few days, with a little bleed - cause?

A

Mallory Weis tear

766
Q

Patient comes in had a TIA. Blind in the eye temporarily. Doppler show one artery stenosed 40% and one 80%? What is the treatment?

A

Carotid endarterectomy

767
Q

Migraine lady had really severe headache, neck stiffness, subjective lateral gaze diplopia, CT normal

A

MRI because SAH

768
Q

Acute asthma, already on salbumatol nebs and steroid, no improvement, what do you give next?

A
  1. Oxygen (if <94%) 2. Salbutamol - also consider IV 3. Ipratropium bromide 4. Oral steroids = prednisolone 3-5 days 5. Aminophylline/theophylline (OSHIMT) Magnesium sulphate IV is an adjuvent that can be given if no response after step 4.
769
Q

What does endomysial and anti-gliadin indicate?

A

Coeliacs

770
Q

Dermoid cyst - Cell type?

A

aka mature cystic teratoma germ cell Epithelioid cell

771
Q

After operation become hypertensive, <38C temp ?normal sats, what is the cause of fever

A

Atelectasis

772
Q

6 week child with congenital dysplasia -

A

Most unstable hips spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks Pavlik harness – if child <5 months If older than – surgery

773
Q

Kid hits her head bad and vomits 2 times what do you do?

A

Skull XR if suspected fracture 3 or more for CT MRI

774
Q

Hepatitis B treatment for positive surface antigen, + anti-HBc, + IgM, -antiHB, - anti HBe, +HBeAg

A

acute infection supportive care

775
Q

These white rashes found in newborn on the sole of hands and feet. What is this?

A

Congenital syphilis (rare in UK now)

776
Q

Newborn with hydropcephalus, intracranial calcification, acute fundal chorioretinitis as shown below. What is this?

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

777
Q

A 35-year-old female patient presents to you in the cardiology department with a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind the breastbone. The pain does not radiate to any other region of the body and on questioning she refutes feeling sweaty and has not experienced any nausea and vomiting. She explains the pain is worse at night when she is lying flat in bed and improves somewhat once she sits up. She discloses that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for this. On auscultation you note scratchy, rubbing sounds loudest during systole.

A

Pericarditis

  • widespread saddle shaped ST elevation
  • PR depression: most specific ECG marker

*note that SLE or any rhematic disease is a risk of getting pericarditis

778
Q

what is this?

A

Inferolateral STEMI

ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF

Progressive development of Q waves in II, III and aVF

Reciprocal ST depression in aVL (± lead I)

779
Q
A

Mongolian Blue spot

780
Q

A 4-year-old boy develops multiple tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs. He is otherwise well.

Hx of streptococcal infection 3 wks ago.

A

Guttate psoriasis

-Most cases resolve spontaneoulsy within 2-3mths

781
Q

A middle aged man develops a non-pruritic rash after starting allopurinol therapy for gout. The rash develop within 24 hours and started on the back of his hands.

A

Erythema multiforme

  • target lesions that starts in the back of hands and feet then spread to torso
  • upper limbs affected more commonly
782
Q

A 30-year-old man presents with a two-week history of a productive cough. Whilst examining him you notice a large number of atypical naevi over his torso. On his back you count between 20-25 moles. He reports no change in any of his moles, no bleeding and no itch. One particular mole is noted due to the irregular border. It is 6 * 4 mm in size.

A

Superficial melanoma

  • mostly affects arms, legs, back and chest
  • more in young people

*Remember changes in size, shape and color

783
Q
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

-characterised: raised, keratotic (scaly, crusty), ill-defined nodule, may be ulcerated

784
Q
A

Basal Cell carcinoma

  • nodular is most common
  • characterised: skin-colored, surface telangiectasia, pearly rolled edge, ulcerated center
785
Q
A

Actinic keratosis

*premalignant lesion–> SCC

-characterised:

small, crusty or scaly, lesions

may be pink, red, brown or the same colour as the skin

typically on sun-exposed areas e.g. temples of head

multiple lesions may be present

786
Q
A

Bowen’s disease

*intradermal SCC

-characterised:

red, scaly patches

often occur on sun-exposed areas such as the lower limbs

-more common in older females

787
Q
A

Erythema nodosum

  • seen in IBD (crohn’s, UC)
  • characterised:

inflammation of subcutaneous fat

typically causes tender, erythematous, nodular lesions

usually occurs over shins, may also occur elsewhere (e.g. forearms, thighs)

usually resolves within 6 weeks

lesions heal without scarring

788
Q

Patient comes in with persistent ulceration of the mouth, pain and sore throat.

O/E: neck lymphadenopathy and inside mouth (pic below)

A

Oropharyngeal cancer

789
Q
A

Systemic sclerosis

-Characterised: sclerodactyly, skin thickening, raynaud’s phenomenon, swelling of hands and feet

805
Q
A
806
Q
A
807
Q

These white rashes found in newborn on the sole of hands and feet. What is this?

A

Congenital syphilis (rare in UK now)

808
Q

Newborn with hydropcephalus, intracranial calcification, acute fundal chorioretinitis as shown below. What is this?

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

809
Q

A 35-year-old female patient presents to you in the cardiology department with a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind the breastbone. The pain does not radiate to any other region of the body and on questioning she refutes feeling sweaty and has not experienced any nausea and vomiting. She explains the pain is worse at night when she is lying flat in bed and improves somewhat once she sits up. She discloses that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for this. On auscultation you note scratchy, rubbing sounds loudest during systole.

A

Pericarditis

  • widespread saddle shaped ST elevation
  • PR depression: most specific ECG marker

*note that SLE or any rhematic disease is a risk of getting pericarditis

810
Q

what is this?

A

Inferolateral STEMI

ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF

Progressive development of Q waves in II, III and aVF

Reciprocal ST depression in aVL (± lead I)

811
Q
A

Mongolian Blue spot

812
Q

A 4-year-old boy develops multiple tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs. He is otherwise well.

Hx of streptococcal infection 3 wks ago.

A

Guttate psoriasis

-Most cases resolve spontaneoulsy within 2-3mths

813
Q

A middle aged man develops a non-pruritic rash after starting allopurinol therapy for gout. The rash develop within 24 hours and started on the back of his hands.

A

Erythema multiforme

  • target lesions that starts in the back of hands and feet then spread to torso
  • upper limbs affected more commonly
814
Q

A 30-year-old man presents with a two-week history of a productive cough. Whilst examining him you notice a large number of atypical naevi over his torso. On his back you count between 20-25 moles. He reports no change in any of his moles, no bleeding and no itch. One particular mole is noted due to the irregular border. It is 6 * 4 mm in size.

A

Superficial melanoma

  • mostly affects arms, legs, back and chest
  • more in young people

*Remember changes in size, shape and color

815
Q
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

-characterised: raised, keratotic (scaly, crusty), ill-defined nodule, may be ulcerated

816
Q
A

Basal Cell carcinoma

  • nodular is most common
  • characterised: skin-colored, surface telangiectasia, pearly rolled edge, ulcerated center
817
Q
A

Actinic keratosis

*premalignant lesion–> SCC

-characterised:

small, crusty or scaly, lesions

may be pink, red, brown or the same colour as the skin

typically on sun-exposed areas e.g. temples of head

multiple lesions may be present

818
Q
A

Bowen’s disease

*intradermal SCC

-characterised:

red, scaly patches

often occur on sun-exposed areas such as the lower limbs

-more common in older females

819
Q
A

Erythema nodosum

  • seen in IBD (crohn’s, UC)
  • characterised:

inflammation of subcutaneous fat

typically causes tender, erythematous, nodular lesions

usually occurs over shins, may also occur elsewhere (e.g. forearms, thighs)

usually resolves within 6 weeks

lesions heal without scarring

820
Q

Patient comes in with persistent ulceration of the mouth, pain and sore throat.

O/E: neck lymphadenopathy and inside mouth (pic below)

A

Oropharyngeal cancer

821
Q
A

Systemic sclerosis

-Characterised: sclerodactyly, skin thickening, raynaud’s phenomenon, swelling of hands and feet

822
Q

What is it?

A

Lentigo melanoma

823
Q

what is it?

A

Acanthosis nigricans

824
Q

what is it?

cause?

A

Red man syndrome

Vancomycin

825
Q

What is it?

A

Subungal melanoma

826
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

827
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

828
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Papilloedema

829
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Diabetes retinopathy

830
Q

What is it?

A

Hypermetropia

Eye turn upwards

831
Q

What is it?

A

Exotropia

Eye turns outward

832
Q

What is it?

A

Anterior uveitis

833
Q

What is it?

A

Diabetic non proliferative retinopathy

834
Q

Diagnosis?

Signs?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome - ground glass

835
Q

Diagnosis?

A

GI perforation

836
Q

What is it?

A

Gottrons papules

837
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Lupus pernio

838
Q

CD4+ AIDS infections

A

:)

839
Q

Identify bleed?

Vessel Affected?

A

MCA

Ischemic stroke

840
Q

Identify bleed?

Vessels affected?

A

Subdural haematoma

Bridging veins

841
Q

Identify type of bleed?

Vessel?

A

Extradural/Epidural haematoma

Middle meningeal artery

842
Q

Identify the type of bleed?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

843
Q

Identify the type of bleed?

A

Intracerebral haemorrhage

844
Q

Bilirubin graph for newborn

A

:)

845
Q

Staging for colorectal cancer

A

Dukes criteria

846
Q

Staging for colorectal cancer

A

Dukes criteria

847
Q

Bilirubin graph for newborn

A

:)

848
Q

Identify the type of bleed?

A

Intracerebral haemorrhage

849
Q

Identify the type of bleed?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

850
Q

Identify type of bleed?

Vessel?

A

Extradural/Epidural haematoma

Middle meningeal artery

851
Q

Identify bleed?

Vessels affected?

A

Subdural haematoma

Bridging veins

852
Q

Identify bleed?

Vessel Affected?

A

MCA

Ischemic stroke

853
Q

CD4+ AIDS infections

A

:)

854
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Lupus pernio

855
Q

What is it?

A

Gottrons papules

856
Q

Diagnosis?

A

GI perforation

857
Q

Diagnosis?

Signs?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome - ground glass

858
Q

What is it?

A

Diabetic non proliferative retinopathy

859
Q

What is it?

A

Anterior uveitis

860
Q

What is it?

A

Exotropia

Eye turns outward

861
Q

What is it?

A

Hypermetropia

Eye turn upwards

862
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Diabetes retinopathy

863
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Papilloedema

864
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

865
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

866
Q

What is it?

A

Subungal melanoma

867
Q

what is it?

cause?

A

Red man syndrome

Vancomycin

868
Q

what is it?

A

Acanthosis nigricans

869
Q

What is it?

A

Lentigo melanoma

870
Q

Interpret this CTG

A

Late decelerations

871
Q

Interpret the CTG

A

Early decelerations

872
Q

Interpret this ECG

A

Inferolateral STEMI

873
Q

Interpret this ECG

A

Pericarditis

874
Q

Identify this ECG

A

1st degree Heart block

875
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Type 2 Heart Block

Mobitz I

876
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Type 2 Heart Block

Mobitz II

877
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Complete heart block

878
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Slow AF

879
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Atrial fibrillation

880
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Pulmonary Embolism

881
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

882
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Torsades

883
Q

Identify this ECG

A

AVNRT

884
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Ventricular fibrillation

885
Q

Identify this ECG

A

hyperkalaemia

886
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Atrial flutter

887
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Unstable angina

888
Q

Identify this ECG

A

Atrial fibrillation