Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

YSKT P year > YSKT > Flashcards

YSKT Flashcards

1
Q

<p>Pulsus paradoxus - Associated conditions?</p>

<p></p>

A

<p>Severe asthma Cardiac tamponade</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>Conditions associated with collapsing pulse?</p>

A

<p>Aortic regurgitation
Patent ductus arteriosus
Hyperkinetic states (anaemia, thyrotoxic, fever, exercise/pregnancy)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
<p>Croup - 
Organism?
Epidemiology?
Features?
Management?
Emergency treatment?</p>
A

<p>Parainfluenza virus

Peak incidence at 6 months - 3 years

Stridor, barking cough, fever, coryzal symptoms (sore throat, runny nose)

Single dose of oral dexamethasone (prednisolone is alternative)

High-flow O2
Nebulised adrenaline</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>Contraindications to COCP</p>

A

<p>>35 years old and smokes >15 cigs a day
Migraine with aura
History of thromboemboic disease or stroke or IHD
Breastfeeding < 6 weeks post-partum
Uncontrolled HTN
Immobility
Current breast cancer
Major surgery with prolonged immobilisation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>Complications with psoralen and UV A light therapy?</p>

A

<p>Squamous cell cancer

| </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
<p>Anal fissures - 
Risk factors?
Features?
Management of acute?
Management of chronic?</p>
A

<p>Constipation, IBD, STI

Painful, bright red, rectal bleeding

High-fibre diet with high fluid intake
Bulk-forming laxatives are first line
Lubricant before defacation

Topical glyceryl trinitrate
</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>Metastatic prostate cancer disease -

| Hormonal therapy?</p>

A

<p>Goserelin (Zoladex) with Cyproterone acetate </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>Clozapine -

| Adverse effects?</p>

A 
<p>Agranulocytosis; neutropenia 
Reduced seizure threshold
Constipation
Myocarditis
Hyper salivation</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>At birth recommended immunisations</p>

A

<p>BCG / hepatitis B vaccine if risk factors </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>2 months immunisations</p>

A

<p>'6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)
Oral rotavirus vaccine
PCV
Men B</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>3 months immunisations</p>

A

<p>'6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)
Oral rotavirus vaccine</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>4 months immunisations </p>

A

<p>'6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)
PCV
Men B</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>12-13 months immunisations </p>

A

<p>Hib/Men C
MMR
PCV
Men B</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>2-8 years immunisations</p>

A

<p>Flu vaccine (annual)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>3-4 years immunisations</p>

A

<p>'4-in-1 pre-school booster' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio)
MMR</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>12-13 years immunisations</p>

A

<p>HPV vaccination for girls</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>13-18 years immunisations</p>

A

<p>'3-in-1 teenage booster' (tetanus, diphtheria and polio)

| Men ACWY</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>Addison's disease management</p>

A

<p>Hydrocortisone: usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses

| Fludrocortisone</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Whooping cough (pertussis) -
Bacteria?
Management?
Complications?</p>

A

<p>Gram negative

Oral macrolide (clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin)
Household contacts given abx prophylaxis
School exclusion - 48 hours after commencing abx or 21 days after onset

Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Pneumonia
Bronchiectasis
Seizures</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>Test for diagnosis of Pagets disease of the nipple?</p>

A

<p>Punch biopsy</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Aspirin -

| Mechanism of action?</p>

A

<p>Antiplatelet - inhibits the production of thromboxane A2</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>Clopidogrel -

| Mechanism of action?</p>

A

<p>Antiplatelet - inhibits ADP binding to its platelet receptor</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>Enxoaparin -

| Mechanism of action?</p>

A

<p>Activates antithrombin III, which in turn potentiates the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Fondaparinux -

| Mechanism of action?</p>

A

<p>Activates antithrombin III, which in turn potentiates the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>Bivalirudin -

| Mechanism of action?</p>

A

<p>Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban -

| Mechanism of action?</p>

A

<p>Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>Right iliac fossa pain -

| Ddx</p>

A 
<p>Appendicitis
Crohns
Mesenteric adenitis
Diverticulitis
Meckel's
Perforated peptic ulcer
UTI
Testicular torsion
PID
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian torsion
Abortion</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>A 44-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of weakness in his hands and legs and numbness in his feet. He first noticed some problems with walking in his late teens and reports that he’s always been “clumsy” and will often trip over. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications. On examination, he has a high-stepping gait with wasting of the lower legs and high arches. Power is reduced in all limbs and reflexes are difficult to elicit. There is a reduction in sensation which is more pronounced distally. Coordination is intact. </p>

A

<p>Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>RSV -

| Organism?</p>

A

<p>Bronchiolitis</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa -

| Organism?</p>

A

<p>Pseudomonas</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>Treatment -
Hypothyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism?</p>

A

<p>Levothyroxine

Carbimazole</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>Acute ITP -
Epidemiology?
Occurence?
Course of illness?</p>

A

<p>More commonly seen in children
Equal sex incidence
May follow an infection or vaccination
Usually runs a self-limiting course over 1-2 weeks</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>Chronic ITP -
Epidemiology?
Course?</p>

A

<p>More common in young/middle-aged women

| Tends to run a relapsing-remitting course</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>Risk factors for Multiple Sclerosis </p>

A

<p>Smoking
Previous infectious mononucleosis
Genetics
Hypovitaminosis D</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>Paracetamol OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>N-acetylcysteine

| (Activated charcoal if ingested <1hour ago)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>Salicylate OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>Haemodialysis</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>Opiates OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>Naloxone</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>Benzodiazepines OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>Flumazenil (risk of seizures)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

<p>TCAs OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>IV bicarbonate may reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias in severe toxicity</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

<p>Warfarin OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>Vit K

| Prothrombin complex</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

<p>Heparin OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>Protamine sulphate</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

<p>Beta-blockers OD Treatment</p>

A

<p>Bradycardia - Atropine

| Resistance - Glucagon </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

<p>Ethylene glycol (and methanol poisoning) OD management</p>

A

<p>Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

| (Or ethanol)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

<p>Organophosphate insecticides OD management</p>

A

<p>Atropine

| </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

<p>Iron OD management</p>

A

<p>Desferrioxamine</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

<p>Lead OD management</p>

A

<p>Dimercaperol

| Calcium edetate</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

<p>Cyanide OD management</p>

A

<p>Hydroxocobalamin</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

<p>Pre-eclampsia -
Presentation
Risk factors
Management</p>

A

<p>Hypertension: typically > 170/110 mmHg and proteinuria, Headache, Visual disturbance, Papilloedema, RUQ/epigastric pain, Hyperreflexia

Aged 40 years or older, Nulliparity, Pregnancy interval of more than 10 years, Family history of pre-eclampsia, Previous history of pre-eclampsia, Body mass index of 30kg/m^2 or above, Pre-existing vascular disease such as hypertension, Pre-existing renal disease, Multiple pregnancy

Labetalol (or Nifedipine and hydralazine)
Delivery of baby
</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

<p>Features of Brown Sequard syndrome</p>

A

<p>Lateral hemisection of the spinal cord

Ipsilateral weakness below lesion
Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

<p>GCS -

| Modalities</p>

A

<p>Motor -

6. Obeys commands
5. Localises to pain
4. Withdraws from pain
3. Abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
2. Extending to pain
1. None

Verbal -

5. Orientated
4. Confused
3. Words
2. Sounds
1. None

Eye -

4. Spontaneous
3. To speech
2. To pain
1. None</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

<p>P450 Inducers</p>

A

<p>C - Carbamazepine
R - Rifampicin
A - Alcohol (chronic)
P - Phenytoin

G - Griseofulvin
P - Phenobarbitone
S - Sulphonylureas
St Johns Wort</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

<p>P450 Inhibitors</p>

A

<p>S - Sodium valproate
I - Isoniazid
C - Cimetidine
K - Ketoconazole

~~~
F - Fluconazole
A - Acute Alcohol/Amiodarone/Allopurinol
C - Chloramphenicol
E - Erythromycin
S - Sulfonamides
~~~

C - Ciprofloxacin
O - Omeprazole
M - Metronidazole
(Grapefruit juice)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

<p>First-line anti-epileptic in a 17-year-old girl with tonic-clonic seizures. She is not sexually active and does not use any form of contraception currently.</p>

A

<p>Lamotrigine</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

<p>Antibodies for limited (central) cutaneous systemic sclerosis?</p>

A

<p>Anti-centromere antibodies</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

<p>Anaphylaxis treatment</p>

A

<p>Adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml), repeated every 5 minutes if necessary</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

<p>Live attenuated vaccines</p>

A 
<p>BCG
MMR
Oral polio
Yellow fever
Oral typhoid</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

<p>Toxoid vaccines</p>

A

<p>Tetanus
Diphtheria
Pertussis</p>

58
Q

<p>Bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy</p>

A

<p>Oral metronidazole for 5-7 days - 400mg bd</p>

59
Q

<p>A 42-year-old man presents with a 2 week history of a worsening sore throat, is complaining of painful swallowing. On examination you notice that he has difficulty opening his jaw, purulent tonsils and his uvula is deviated to the right.
Diagnosis?
Management?</p>

A

<p>Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy), a complication of bacterial tonsillitis.

IV antibiotics and surgical drainage, and a tonsillectomy should be considered in 6 weeks.</p>

60
Q

<p>Features of pulmonary oedema on CXR</p>

A 
<p>Interstitial oedema
Bat's wing appearance
Upper lobe diversion (increased blood flow to the superior parts of the lung)
Kerley B lines
Pleural effusion
</p>
61
Q

<p>What is raised on anorexia?</p>

A 
<p>Growth hormone
Glucose
salivary Glands
Cortisol
Cholesterol
Carotinaemia</p>
62
Q

<p>Painless vaginal bleeding typically around 6-9 weeks</p>

A

<p>Threatened miscarriage</p>

63
Q

<p>Light vaginal bleeding and symptoms of pregnancy disappear</p>

A

<p>Missed (delayed) miscarriage</p>

64
Q

<p>Complete or incomplete depending or whether all fetal and placental tissue has been expelled.</p>

A

<p>Inevitable miscarriage</p>

65
Q

<p>Heavy bleeding and crampy, lower abdo pain.</p>

A

<p>Incomplete miscarriage</p>

66
Q

<p>Typically history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea with lower abdominal pain (usually unilateral) initially and vaginal bleeding later. Shoulder tip pain and cervical excitation may be present</p>

A

<p>Ectopic pregnancy</p>

67
Q

<p>Typically bleeding in first or early second trimester associated with exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis. The uterus may be large for dates and serum hCG is very high</p>

A

<p>Hydatidiform mole</p>

68
Q

<p>Constant lower abdominal pain and, woman may be more shocked than is expected by visible blood loss. Tender, tense uterus* with normal lie and presentation. Fetal heart may be distressed</p>

A

<p>Placental abruption</p>

69
Q

<p>Vaginal bleeding, no pain. Non-tender uterus* but lie and presentation may be abnormal</p>

A

<p>Placenta praevia</p>

70
Q

<p>Rupture of membranes followed immediately by vaginal bleeding. Fetal bradycardia is classically seen</p>

A

<p>Vasa praevia</p>

71
Q

<p>Which nerve is damaged -

| Weakness in knee extension, loss of the patella reflex, numbness of the thigh</p>

A

<p>Femoral nerve</p>

72
Q

<p>Which nerve is damaged -

| Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion, numbness of the calf and foot</p>

A

<p>Lumbosacral trunk</p>

73
Q

<p>Which nerve is damaged -

| Weakness in knee flexion and foot movements, pain and numbness from gluteal region to ankle</p>

A

<p>Sciatic nerve</p>

74
Q

<p>Which nerve is damaged -

| Weakness in hip adduction, numbness over the medial thigh</p>

A

<p>Obturator nerve</p>

75
Q

<p>A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with a mass in her lower neck. She first noticed it around 2 months ago, along with some weight loss and night sweats, which she attributed to the stress of starting a new job. She is particularly worried because the lump in her neck has been growing, now measuring around 2cm, and becomes extremely painful whenever she drinks alcohol.
Diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Hodgkin's lymphoma

Painful on alcohol consumption***</p>

76
Q

<p>Personality disorder -

| Antisocial</p>

A

<p>Failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors as indicated by repeatedly performing acts that are grounds for arrest;
More common in men;
Deception, as indicated by repeatedly lying, use of aliases, or conning others for personal profit or pleasure;
Impulsiveness or failure to plan ahead;
Irritability and aggressiveness, as indicated by repeated physical fights or assaults;
Reckless disregard for safety of self or others;
Consistent irresponsibility, as indicated by repeated failure to sustain consistent work behavior or honor financial obligations;
Lack of remorse, as indicated by being indifferent to or rationalizing having hurt, mistreated, or stolen from another</p>

77
Q

<p>Personality disorder -

| Avoidant</p>

A

<p>Avoidance of occupational activities which involve significant interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism, or rejection.
Unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked
Preoccupied with ideas that they are being criticised or rejected in social situations
Restraint in intimate relationships due to the fear of being ridiculed
Reluctance to take personal risks doe to fears of embarrassment
Views self as inept and inferior to others
Social isolation accompanied by a craving for social contact</p>

78
Q

<p>Personality disorder -

| Borderline</p>

A

<p>>Efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment
Unstable interpersonal relationships which alternate between idealization and devaluation
Unstable self image
Impulsivity in potentially self damaging area (e.g. Spending, sex, substance abuse)
Recurrent suicidal behaviour
Affective instability
Chronic feelings of emptiness
Difficulty controlling temper
Quasi psychotic thoughts</p>

79
Q

<p>Personality disorder -

| Histrionic</p>

A

<p>Inappropriate sexual seductiveness
Need to be the centre of attention
Rapidly shifting and shallow expression of emotions
Suggestibility
Physical appearance used for attention seeking purposes
Impressionistic speech lacking detail
Self dramatization
Relationships considered to be more intimate than they are</p>

80
Q

<p>Personality disorder -

| Schizoid </p>

A 
<p>Indifference to praise and criticism
Preference for solitary activities
Lack of interest in sexual interactions
Lack of desire for companionship
Emotional coldness
Few interests
Few friends or confidants other than family</p>
81
Q

<p>Personality disorder -

| Schizotypal</p>

A 
<p>Ideas of reference (differ from delusions in that some insight is retained)
Odd beliefs and magical thinking
Unusual perceptual disturbances
Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness
Odd, eccentric behaviour
Lack of close friends other than family members
Inappropriate affect
Odd speech without being incoherent
</p>
82
Q

<p>Neonatal bilious vomiting with a double bubble sign on AXR</p>

A

<p>Duodenal atresia</p>

83
Q

<p>A 65-year-old woman presents with jaundice, weight loss and passing clay-coloured stools. She also describes recurrent bouts of colicky RUQ abdominal pain. On examination a mass is palpable in the RUQ </p>

A

<p>Cholangiocarcinoma</p>

84
Q

<p>Tumour marker for ovarian cancer</p>

A

<p>CA 125</p>

85
Q

<p>Tumour marker for pancreatic cancer</p>

A

<p>CA 19-9</p>

86
Q

<p>Tumour marker for breast cancer</p>

A

<p>CA 15-3</p>

87
Q

<p>A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset visual disturbance whilst watching TV. He attends the emergency department and is found to have a right homonymous hemianopia. His past medical history includes gout for which he takes allopurinol 100mg OD. ECG shows an irregular narrow complex bradycardia with no discernible P waves. CT head is performed and shows a subacute posterior cerebral artery infarction on the left side.
Management?</p>

A

<p>2 weeks of aspirin 300mg OD before consideration of anti-coagulation in cases of ischaemic stroke and atrial fibrillation. </p>

88
Q

<p>Rovsing's sign</p>

A

<p>Used for appendicitis

| RIF pain on palpation of LIF</p>

89
Q

<p>Drugs that cause drug induced lupus</p>

A 
<p>Procainamide
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Minocycline
Phenytoin</p>
90
Q

<p>A neonate is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar scores at birth. On examination he is noted to have a micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers and rocker-bottom feet.
Diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)</p>

91
Q 
<p>Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions
Diagnosis?</p>
A

<p>Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)</p>

92
Q 
<p>Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism
Diagnosis?</p>
A

<p>Fragile X</p>

93
Q

<p>Unilateral tinnitus and deafness
Vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex
Diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Acoustic neuroma</p>

94
Q

<p>Migraine treatment -
Acute?
Prophylaxis?</p>

A

<p>Acute: triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol

Prophylaxis: topiramate or propranolol
</p>

95
Q

<p>Hyperamylasaemia</p>

A 
<p>Acute pancreatitis
Pancreatic pseudocyst
Mesenteric infarct
Perforated viscus
Acute cholecystitis
Diabetic ketoacidosis</p>
96
Q

<p>Drugs that cause Myasthenia exacerbatation</p>

A 
<p>Penicillamine
Quinidine, Procainamide
Beta-blockers
Lithium
Phenytoin
Antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines</p>
97
Q

<p>Pioglitazone side effects</p>

A

<p>Weight gain
•Fluid retention
Liver dysfunction
Fractures</p>

98
Q

<p>Metformin side effects</p>

A

<p>Lactic acidosis and gastric disturbances (diarrhoea)</p>

99
Q

<p>Missed pills on the progesterone only pill</p>

A

<p>If < 3 hours* late: continue as normal
If > 3 hours*: take missed pill as soon as possible, continue with rest of pack, extra precautions (e.g. Condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours</p>

100
Q

<p>A 10-month-old infant is brought to accident and emergency with a 3 day history of fever and a new onset rash affecting the arms, legs and abdomen that began today. Despite this fever the child has been his usual self and does not seem to be irritated by the rash.

On closer inspection, the rash appears erythematous with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is predominantly on the limbs and there are no signs of excoriation. The child is now afebrile at 36.9ºC.

Diagnosis?
Organism?
</p>

A

<p>Roseola infantum

HHV 6</p>

101
Q

<p>Tricyclic antidepressants side effects</p>

A

<p>Anticholinergic side effects (dry mouth, blurred vision and urinary retention)
Antihistaminic side effects (weight gain). </p>

102
Q 
<p>Microaneurysms
Blot haemorrhages
Hard exudates
Cotton wool spots
Venous beading/looping and Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA)
</p>
A

<p>Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy</p>

103
Q

<p>Gastroenteritis caused by rice -

| Organism?</p>

A

<p>Bacillus cereus is a gram-positive rod, which is highly adaptable to extremes of pH and oxygen levels</p>

104
Q

<p>A patient is investigated for leukocytosis. Cytogenetic analysis shows the presence of the following translocation: t(9;22)(q34;q11).
Diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Chronic myeloid leukemia

| </p>

105
Q

<p>t(15;17) -

| Haematological diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3)

| Fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes</p>

106
Q

<p>t(8;14) -
Haematological diagnosis?
Microscopy?</p>

A

<p>Burkitt's lymphoma
MYC oncogene is translocated to an immunoglobulin gene

Starry sky</p>

107
Q

<p>t(11;14) -

| Haematological diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Mantle cell lymphoma

| Deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene</p>

108
Q

<p>t(14;18) -

| Haematological diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Follicular lymphoma

| Increased BCL-2 transcription</p>

109
Q

<p>Rifampicin -
Mechanism?
Side effects?</p>

A

<p>Inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase preventing transcription of DNA into mRNA (inducer)

Hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms</p>

110
Q

<p>Isoniazid -
Mechanism?
Side effects?</p>

A

<p>Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

Peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
Hepatitis, agranulocytosis
Liver enzyme inhibitor
</p>

111
Q

<p>Pyrazinamide -
Mechanism?
Side effects?</p>

A

<p>Converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I

Hyperuricaemia causing gout
arthralgia, myalgia
hepatitis</p>

112
Q

<p>Ethambutol -
Mechanism?
Side effects?</p>

A

<p>Inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan

Optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment
Dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment</p>

113
Q

<p>Causative organism of pneumonia in alcoholics</p>

A

<p>Klebsiella pneumoniae</p>

114
Q

<p>Pemphigus vulgaris -
Pathophysiology?
Epidemiology?
Biopsy?</p>

A

<p>Autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against desmoglein 3, a cadherin-type epithelial cell adhesion molecule.

Ashkenazi Jewish population

Acantholysis on biopsy</p>

115
Q

<p>Causes of microcytic anaemia</p>

A

<p>Iron deficiency anaemia
Thalassemia
Sideroblastic anaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease</p>

116
Q

<p>Causes of normocytic anaemia</p>

A 
<p>Anaemia of chronic disease
Acute haemmorhage
Haemolytic anaemia
Haematological malignancies
Aplasia and marrow disorder</p>
117
Q

<p>Causes of macrocytic anaemia</p>

A

<p>Megaloblastic -
Pernicious anemia/B12
Folate deficiency

~~~
Non Megaloblastic -
Hypothyroidism
COPD
ETOH XS
Liver disease
Reticulocytosis
Marrow disorders</p>

~~~

118
Q

<p>A 46-year-old lady presents with a 2 week history of a worsening sore throat, and is complaining of painful swallowing. On examination you notice that her uvula is deviated to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?</p>

A

<p>Peritonsillar abscess</p>

119
Q

<p>35 year old female with tender erythematous nodules over her forearms
Calcium - 2.78

Diagnosis?
Causes?
</p>

A

<p>Erythema no do sum

~~~
Strep,TB
Sarcoidosis, IBD
Malignancy
Penicillin
Pregnancy</p>

~~~

120
Q

<p>Thoracic trauma </p>

A

<p>Check passmed</p>

121
Q

<p>56 year old man from Pakistan presents to his GP with numbness and tingling in his feet for one week. Looking at his medical history you discovered he has recently been diagnosed with tuberculosis and hypertension.
Which drug is causing the problem?</p>

A

<p>Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect</p>

122
Q

<p>4 week old formula fed infant with persistent non-billows vomiting and increasing lethargy
Substantial appetite

He appears pale, and you can see visible peristalsis in the left upper quadrant. </p>

A

<p>Pyloric stenosis</p>

123
Q

How long for diagnosis of PTSD?

A

1 month

124
Q
A
125
Q

Criteria for using FFP?

A

PT or APTT ration >1.5
150-220mL
can also be given prophylactically in pts undergoing invasive surgery with risk of major bleeding
-universal donor of FFP is AB because of lack of anti-A or B antibodies

126
Q

Criteria for using cryoprecipitate?

A

fibrinogen concentration <1.5 g/L

eg. DIC, liver failure, hypofibrinogenaemia secondary to massive transfusion
- emergency haemophiliacs
- von Willebrand disease
- prophylactically pt sig bleeding fibrinogen concentration <1.0g/L

127
Q

Criteria of Prothrombin complex concentrate?

A
  • emergency reversal of anticoag in patients with severe bleeding or a head injury with suspected intracerebral heamorrhage
  • prophylactically undergoing emergency surgery depending on the particular circumstance
128
Q

Criteria of Prothrombin complex concentrate?

A
  • emergency reversal of anticoag in patients with severe bleeding or a head injury with suspected intracerebral heamorrhage
  • prophylactically undergoing emergency surgery depending on the particular circumstance
129
Q

Causes of normal anion gap (hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis)

A
  • GI bicarb loss: diarrhoea, fistula, ureterosigmoidostomy
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • drugs: acetazolamide
  • ammonium chloride injection
  • addision’s
130
Q

Causes of raised anion gap?

A
  • lactate: shock, hypoxia
  • ketones: DKA, alcohol
  • urate: renal failure
  • acid posioning: paracetamol, methanol
131
Q

What is bartter’s syndrome?

A

rare inherited disease characterised by a defect in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which results in low potassium levels (hypokalemia), increased blood pH (alkalosis), and normal to low blood pressure.

132
Q

What is bartter’s syndrome?

A

rare inherited disease characterised by a defect in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which results in low potassium levels (hypokalemia), increased blood pH (alkalosis), and normal to low blood pressure.

133
Q

18mths old comes in with rash that developed after having fever for a few days. Has white spots inside mouth, irritated and inflamed eyes. Dx?

A

Measles

134
Q

Measles rash?

A

starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy and confluent

135
Q

Complications of measles?

A
  • otitis media: most common complication
  • pneumonia: most common cause of death
  • encephalitis
  • subactue sclerosing panencephalitis
  • febrile convulsions
  • keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration
  • diaorrhoea
  • increased incidence of appendicitis
  • myocarditis
136
Q

Measles Rx:

A

mainly supportive

  • admit if pregnant or immunosuppresed
  • give MMR vaccine if child still not given within 72 hrs
137
Q

First line management for postnatal depression in women without previous hx of depression?

A

CBT

-if they refuse of do not respond then give them SSRI

138
Q

A 73-year-old comes to see you asking if she can stop her alendronic acid.

She has been taking it for six years having had a distal radial fracture at this time, after she tripped over on an uneven kerb. There have been no further fractures, nor any preceding this injury. Six years ago, her DEXA scan showed a T-score of -2.4. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable and she has no recent history of falls. She has never smoked.

What is the appropriate action to discuss with the patient?

A

After a five year period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan.
The best option would therefore be to re-scan her now, and consider a two year break if her T score is >-2.5

139
Q

High risk groups for bisphosphonates?

A 
Age >75
Glucocorticoid therapy
Previous hip/vertebral fractures
Further fractures on treatment
High risk on FRAX scoring
T score
140
Q

Severity of Grave’s disease grade?

A

NOSPECS

  • No signs / symptoms
  • Only signs (e.g: upper lid retraction)
  • Signs & symptoms (including soft-tissue involvement)
  • Proptosis
  • Extra-ocular muscle involvement
  • Corneal involvement
  • Sight loss due to optic nerve involvement
141
Q

What is

Erythema infectiosum ?

A

(also known as fifth disease or ‘slapped-cheek syndrome’)

caused by parvovirus B19

YSKT P year (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions