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CLASS 21025 UNIT 5 NAVOSH > YOU MIGHT WANNA KNOW THIS PT 1 > Flashcards

YOU MIGHT WANNA KNOW THIS PT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who created OSHA and when

A

a. The Department of Labor created the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) on April 28, 1971.***

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2
Q
  1. Who is higher on the heirarchy
A

b. NIOSH acts as an assistant to OSHA

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3
Q
  1. What is SECNAVINST 5100.10 series. What does it do?
A

a. Department of the Navy Policy for Safety, Mishap Prevention, Occupational Health and Fire Protection Programs
b. (a) Implements the references to provide policy for the Department of the Navy safety, mishap prevention, and occupational health and fire protection programs* afloat and ashore.*

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4
Q
  1. A small description of OPNAVINST 5100.23 series (Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual)
A

a. Manual covering 30 topics/programs and applies to shore facilities.
* *”no where in the title does it say ‘ASHORE’” or “shore.” This is maybe noted because on the test there will be an answer that says “ashore” since the manual is for SHORE procedures

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5
Q
  1. Whats the OPNAVINST 5100.19 series and how many sections does it have
A

a. Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual for Forces Afloat
b. Consists of four sections*
c. ”the word afloat is in the name”*

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6
Q
  1. What is the Industrial Hygiene and what do they do
A

a. is the science* that deals with the recognition, evaluation, and control of potential health hazards in the work environment
b. “They do the surveys”*

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7
Q
  1. Who is the designated occupational safety and health official for the DON.***
A

a. Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Energy Installations and Environmental)
b. “whenever the Navy decides they wanna build something, it starts here”

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8
Q
  1. If you need money to do something, who controls it?*** Establishes planning, programming, staffing and budgeting for NAVOSH Programs
A

a. CNO

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9
Q
  1. Whats two things that the ISICS do?
A

a. Ensure afloat commands complete required safety surveys and industrial hygiene surveys (baseline and periodic).*
b. Conduct periodic NAVOSH inspections of subordinate commands.*

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10
Q
  1. Navy Medicine Professional Development Center (NMPDC) formally known as Navy Medicine Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education (NMPT&E)
A

a. Ensures all elements of the approved Navy Training Plan for NAVOSH afloat are properly executed.
b. ***?

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11
Q
  1. Commanding Officer
A

a. Designate command safety officer and ensure proper training.**
b. Establish a Safety Council and Enlisted Safety Committee. **
c. Ensure formal workplace safety inspections are conducted annually*** and IH
d. surveys occur at least once during each operational cycle.

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12
Q
  1. Safety Officer
A

a. Maintain and analyze NAVOSH records to include:
i. Inspections*
ii. Surveys*
b. (b) Safety Officer retains the inspection results for at least two years.***

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13
Q
  1. Safety Council
A

a. Meets quarterly or sooner***

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14
Q
  1. Enlisted Safety Committee
A

a. Safety Officer (senior member)
i. The only ones that are on both safety council and enlisted safety committee
b. Meet at least quarterly, ideally BEFORE safety council.

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15
Q
  1. On site job Random walk through by: ***
A

a. Commanding Officer
b. Executive Officer
c. Department Heads
d. Division Officers
e. Work Center Supervisors
f. Chiefs and division safety petty officers are not on the list**

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16
Q
  1. Afloat Operational Safety Assessment (AOSA)
A

Assessments should be conducted every 6 years for surface ship and submarines.***

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17
Q
  1. Board of Inspection and Survey (INSURV) and Command Occupational Safety and Health Management Evaluations
A

a. Every three years***

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18
Q
  1. OSHA may conduct inspections on ships but must meet all classification and military unique requirements.
A

a. They are the ONLY ones that can conduct inspections on ships
b. State officials MAY NOT conduct safety inspections on ships (like mayors and shit)

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19
Q
  1. Commander Naval Safety Center.
A

a. Assessments should be conducted every 6 years for surface ship and submarines.***

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20
Q

ENGINEERING REPAIR/DH (eart)

A

a. Provide the necessary equipment and protective clothing to asbestos workers..
b. Identify and provide list of personnel involved in asbestos operations to the medical department for consideration for entry into the AMSP.***

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21
Q

DIVO (Ships protocol)

A

Ensure that all mandatory training is conducted.***

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22
Q
  1. An important characteristic of asbestos (temp)
A

a. Heat Resistant from 500 - 1500 degrees Celsius***

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23
Q
  1. Two types of asbestos
A

a. Friable

b. Non-friable

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24
Q
  1. Describe Friable
A

a. can be crumbled, pulverized or reduced to powder by hand pressure
b. Acoustic Insulation*
c. Pipe Lagging*
d. Sheet gasket material used in high temperature applications.***

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25
Q
  1. Describe non-friable
A

a. cannot be crumbled, pulverized or reduce to powder by hand pressure
b. (a) Brake and clutch linings*
c. (b) Floor tiles and adhesives*
d. (c) Gaskets***

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26
Q
  1. The two types of diseases from asbestos exposure
A

a. Mesothelioma- 10-45 years

b. Asbestosis- progressively worsening disease of the lung

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27
Q
  1. Safety officers responsibilities (EART)
A

a. Ensure that ship’s personnel are trained to accomplish the job and ensure that no asbestos containing materials are introduced onto the ship.

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28
Q

DIVO responsibilities (EART)

A

a. Ensure that all mandatory training is conducted.***

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29
Q
  1. How to identify asbestos
A

a. Impossible to ID asbestos by visual inspections.*
b. Laboratory analysis is required to ID asbestos.
i. Polarized Light Microscopy*
ii. transfer electron microscopy are acceptable methods to ID fibers, which may be asbestos. ***

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30
Q
  1. Substitution with less hazardous materials approved under technical management of who
A

a. NAVSEASYSCOM

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31
Q
  1. Removal should be performed by what kid of facility
A

a. shore facility

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32
Q
  1. two types of engineering controls
A

a. Isolation***

b. Ventilation***

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33
Q
  1. The AMSP is designed to do what
A

identify signs and symptoms of asbestos related medical conditions as early as possible through periodic medical evaluations.*

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34
Q
  1. Placement of personnel into the AMSP is based on what
A

past history and/or current exposure or potential exposure to asbestos.***

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35
Q
  1. Whats the Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL).***
A

a. 0.1 fibers per cubic centimeter (f/cc) of air, calculated as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) exposure.***

36
Q
  1. Whats the Excursion Limit (EL).***
A

a. The EL is 1.0 f/cc averaged over a 30-minute sampling period.***

37
Q
  1. Notifiying requirements statement
A

employee was informed of the exam results and of any medical conditions resulting from exposure that require further follow-up/treatment.***

38
Q
  1. For removal of AMSP
A

a. Required documentation on a SF 600***

39
Q
  1. How long do we keep asbestos records
A

a. All shipboard asbestos records shall be transferred to supporting shore medical activity for permanent*** retention following transfer, discharge, or retirement of the individual. AKA FOREVER

40
Q
  1. Whats the NAVMED 6260/5,
A

a. Periodic Health Evaluation, History and Physical Examination***

41
Q
  1. Who has to Establish an effective Hearing Conservation Program (HCP) within the command
A

a. CO***

42
Q
  1. What does IH do in regards to hearing conservation
A

a. Annually, certify audiometric testing booths installed aboard the ships.*

43
Q
  1. Who is the liaison between IH and Occ Health
A

a. Safety officer***

44
Q
  1. Who maintains records of hearing stuff
A

a. Safety O*

45
Q
  1. What are the eight topics Medical goes over in the annual hearing conservation training
A

a. 1) Effects of hazardous noise.”MOST IMPORTANT ONE OUT OF ALL OF THEM”
b. 2) Designated noise hazardous areas and equipment
c. 3) Proper use and maintenance of HPDs.*
d. 4) The necessity for hearing testing.*
e. 5) Mandatory requirement to wear assigned hearing protection.*
f. 6) Off-duty hearing health hazard.*
g. 7) The effects of hearing loss on career longevity.*
h. 8) Communication in high-noise environments.*
i. ***NOT MENTIONED IN TG-“most importantly, make sure you print out their results and put it in their record”

46
Q
  1. Hazardous Noise Warning Decal Form Number and size
A

a. NAVMED 6260/2, 8 x 10***

47
Q
  1. Hazardous noise label form and size
A

a. NAVMED 6260/2A, 2X2*

48
Q
  1. When do you need your PPE on you
A

a. All the time*

49
Q
  1. Termination audios are on which form
A

a. DD 2216*

50
Q
  1. Definition of Abatement***
A

a. Reduction of noise at the source must be explored first before implementing other methods of hearing loss prevention

51
Q
  1. T/F: All personnel exposed to gunfire in a training situation or noise of a large caliber gun or missile firing, under any circumstance shall wear hearing protection.*
A

a. TRUE

52
Q
  1. Which exposure limits require which level of protection*
A

a. <84 dBA=no protection, >85=single, >96=double

53
Q
  1. How long are records of noise kept
A

a. 50 years*

54
Q
  1. Monitoring audio exams are done how often and on what
A

a. annually and on a DD 2216*

55
Q
  1. What does a Negative STS mean
A

a. Its better hearing*

56
Q
  1. What does a positive STS mean
A

a. It worse hearing*

57
Q
  1. What do you do if there is a positive STS
A

a. Either the Reference or monitoring audiogram may be in error, Retest the same day, If retest showed no STS. Assume that the monitoring audiogram was in error, If retest still showed improved hearing. Assume that the reference audiogram is in error, Establish the retest*

58
Q
  1. What do you do if there is a Negative STS
A

a. Retest after a 14 hour noise free environment (may not be accomplished by the use of hearing protection), to determine if the decrease of hearing is permanent, Supervisor should be notified, If retest do not indicate STS, Return to annual monitoring, If first retest showed STS and if frequencies below 3000 Hz are involved*

59
Q
  1. What do you do If first retest showed STS and if frequencies below 3000 Hz are involved.*
A

a. Screen for any medical issues through otoscopy and tympanometry.

60
Q
  1. When do you let supervisors know of their members positive STS
A

a. Within 21 days in writing, (MFR)*

61
Q
  1. Noise Abatement Strategies ***
A

a. Engineering controls are the Primary means of protection.***

62
Q
  1. What are the administrative controls
A

a. The secondary means of protecting people are administrative control. Limiting times of exposure/enforcing safe stay time.*

63
Q
  1. Hearing conservations, engineering controls
A

a. Sound proofing aka acoustical dampening/enclosure***

64
Q
  1. Who appoint a respiratory protection manager in writing
A

a. CO***

65
Q
  1. Who ensures training on respirator program requirements for users, issuers and supervisors
A

a. Respiratory Protection Program Manager

b. Shall complete the required training course within three months of assuming the position

66
Q
  1. Who assists RPPM in identifying hazards, evaluating hazards, and selecting the appropriate respirators
A

a. MDR***

67
Q
  1. Who can wear a respirator
A

a. Personnel who have been confirmed by the MDR as having no deployment limiting medical conditions, and with a current annual PHA are considered qualified to wear any type of respirator.* (IMR and no deployment limiting issues)

68
Q
  1. Do Shipboard personnel undergoing shore firefighting training required to obtain medical qualification or respirator fit testing for Self-Contained Breathing Apparatuses (SCBA), including the Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA), prior to reporting for training
A

a. No*

69
Q
  1. When do you use a respirator user cert exam 716
A

a. where Individual Medical Readiness status cannot be determined or other medical factors exists

70
Q
  1. define Aerosols
A

a. Any material dispensed from a pressurized container using a gas propellant.***

71
Q
  1. Define Dust
A

a. Small solid particles created by breaking up of larger particles by processes such as crushing, grinding, or expulsion.***

72
Q
  1. Oxygen Deficient Atmosphere
A

a. Must be 19.5% by volume to use an air-purifying respirator.***

73
Q
  1. Atmosphere Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health IDLH
A

a. The concentration of a contaminant which can produce an immediate irreversible debilitating effect on health, or which can cause death.

74
Q
  1. For engineering controls, whats exhaust
A

a. Forced Air Systems (Laboratory Hoods in Medical/Dental spaces)

75
Q
  1. what is Ventilation
A

control of potentially airborne substance through the movement of air***

76
Q
  1. Can military gas masks must be used in place of an airpurifying respirator
A

a. Never

77
Q
  1. Whats The maximum length of hose allowed from a compressor or air fitting to the respirator
A

a. The maximum length of hose allowed from a compressor or air fitting to the respirator

78
Q
  1. What are EEBDs
A

a. THEY ARE FOR ESCAPE ONLY! They have a very short duration air supply and MUST NEVER BE USED FOR ENTRY INTO A HAZARDOUS ATMOSPHERE; THEY ARE FOR ESCAPE ONLY!***

79
Q
  1. Whats an air purifying respirator
A 
Remove air contaminants by filtering, or absorbing them as the air passes
through the cartridge. 
Adequate oxygen (19.5 percent by volume) must be present
80
Q
  1. Whats an atmosphere-supplying respirator
A

(1) Protects the user by supplying oxygen to ensure maintenance of life. Specific incidences
for use:
(a) Used when the contaminant has no warning property.
(b) The contaminant’s concentration is too high to use an air-purifying respirator.
(c) Used when an environment is Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH).

81
Q
  1. Cleaning and Sanitizing Respirators, Temperatures above what should be avoided
A

a. 43°C (110°F)*** (look for 53…)

82
Q
  1. How often are you fit tested for respirators
A

a. Annually*

83
Q
  1. What are the three forms of qualitative fit testing
A

a. Isoamyl acetate (banana oil), Saccharin mist, and Irritant smoke. (Preferred Method)***

84
Q
  1. What do you quantitative fit testing
A

a. This type of fit testing can only be performed by shore activities.***

85
Q

________do not provide protection against air contaminants. They
are for MEDICAL/DENTAL USE ONLY and must NEVER be used as an airpurifying respirator.do not provide protection against air contaminants. They
are for MEDICAL/DENTAL USE ONLY and must NEVER be used as an airpurifying respirator.

A

SURGICAL MASKS

CLASS 21025 UNIT 5 NAVOSH (10 decks)

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