Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neurology > Yearclub revision session > Flashcards

Yearclub revision session Flashcards

1
Q

unilateral throbbing headache

A

migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

migraine timeframe

A

4-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

acute treatment of migraine

A

NSAID or triptans (+/- antiemetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

migraine prophylaxis

A

propanolol or topiramate
avoid triggers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of headache is strongly linked to depression and anxiety and often triggered by stress?

A

tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a tension headache like?

A

‘a tight band of pressure’ and possible tingling sensation in this distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is cluster headache more common in men or women?

A

men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is cluster headache unilateral or bilateral periorbital pain?

A

unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

autonomic features of cluster headache

A
  • ptosis
  • miosis
  • nasal stuffiness
  • eye tearing
  • eyelid oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

do cluster headaches need MRI?

A

yes, and MRI angiogram.
to rule out secondary causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

acute management of cluster headaches

A

high flow O2 and subcutaneous or oral triptan +/- 2 week reducing course steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cluster headache prophylaxis

A

verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is hemicrania continua unilateral or bilateral?

A

unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hemicrania continua is a pain in which nerve distribution?

A

trigeminal (V1 mainly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hemicrania continua investigation

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hemicrania continua treatment

A

TOTAL response to indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

typical idiopathic intracranial hypertension patient

A

obese young woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension symptoms

A

headache - worse in morning/coughing
nausea and vomiting
blurred vision (papilloedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension fundoscopy findings

A

bilateral papilloedema, englarged blind spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension CT/MRI findings

A

“slit like ventricles”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension treatment

A

weight loss
acetazolamide
shunt CSF from ventricles to peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

trigeminal neuralgia headache

A
  • chronic neuropathic pain in distribution of CN V
  • severe pain when chewing and talking, pain on contact (e.g. washing face) with psychological consequences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

trigeminal neuralgia headache treatment

A

pain relief (carbamazepine or amitriptyline)

possibility of surgery: microvascular decompression, balloon compression, radiofrequency ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

trigeminal neuralgia causes

A
  • compression from superior cerebellar artery
  • AVM
  • tumours
  • MS
  • injury to the nerve (e.g. stroke or trauma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

“worst headache ever”

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

headache
fever
stiff neck
mental confusion
seizures
double vision

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

headache “behind the eye” and other neuro complications

A

optic neuritis - think MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a new headache which wakes you +/- vomiting a red flag for?

A

tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the commonest form of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Alzheimer’s disease pathophysiology

A

proteinopathy of amyloid protein
- leads to intracellular neurofibrillary tangles and extracellular amyloid plaques —> apoptosis

31
Q

Alzheimer’s disease progression

A
  • initially affects hippocampus causing forgetfulness
  • then more widespread cognitive decline
  • long term memory is relatively preserved from pre-disease state, but can’t make new memories

gradual, steady decline

31
Q

Alzheimer’s investigation findings: MRI, SPECT, CSF, tau

A

MRI: can show atrophy
SPECT: reduced uptake
CSF: amyloid decreases
tau: amyloid ratio increases

32
Q

Alzheimer’s disease treatment (improves symptoms but doesn’t slow decline)

A

1st line: rivastigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor)
2nd line: Memantine (NDMA receptor blocker)

33
Q

what is vascular dementia

A

dementia due to micro-infarction of brain tissue.
can be focal post stroke or generalised.

34
Q

usual age for vascular dementia

A

> 65

35
Q

vascular dementia progression

A

often step-wise rather than gradual

36
Q

What do MRI and SPECT show in vascular dementia?

A

MRI: severe small vessel disease
SPECT: PATCHY reduced uptake

37
Q

vascular dementia treatment

A

reduce vascular disease risk factors, monitor disease.
often overlap with Alzheimer’s in which case Rivastigmine can help

38
Q

which type of dementia is associated with tau proteinopathy?

A

fronto-temporal dementia

39
Q

at what age does fronto-temporal dementia tend to present?

A

younger, under 65

40
Q

fronto-temporal dementia symptoms

A

since frontal lobe:
often behavioural symptoms or disinhibition
drastic personality change
hyperorality/overeating

41
Q

MRI and SPECT findings in fronto-temporal dementia

A

atrophy, reduced uptake specifically in the frontal/temporal lobes

42
Q

fronto-temporal dementia management

A

aggressive disease which is hard to manage.
- trial of antipsychotics/trazadone (seratonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor)
- manage access to food, money, internet
- sort power of attorney

43
Q

which type of dementia has overlap with MND: C9ORF72 gene

A

fronto-temporal dementia

44
Q

Dementia with lewy bodies and Parkinson’s dementia treatment

A

cognitive symptoms - rivastigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor)
parkinsons- levodopa BUT levodopa can worsen hallucinations

45
Q

Huntington’s disease mode of inheritance

A

autosomal dominant

46
Q

Huntington’s pathophysiology

A

degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebrum.

mutations in the huntingtin gene (ch 4). Causes CAG trinucleotide expansion leading to long glutamine strings which are toxic to cells

47
Q

Huntington’s typical age of onset

A

30-50

48
Q

early features of Huntington’s disease

A

irritability
disinhibition

49
Q

later signs of Huntington’s disease

A

dystonia
chorea

50
Q

dystonia definition

A

involuntary muscle contractions that cause slow repetitive movements or abnormal postures that can sometimes be painful

51
Q

chorea definition

A

sudden, unintended, and uncontrollable jerky movements of the arms, legs, and facial muscles

52
Q

gold standard test for huntington’s

A

genetic test

53
Q

Huntington’s MRI findings

A

focal atrophy of caudate heads

54
Q

midline cranial nerves

A

1,2,3,4,6,12 (factors of 12)

55
Q

cranial nerves exiting pons

A

5,6,7,8

56
Q

cranial nerves exiting medulla

A

9,10,11,12

57
Q

TIA investigations

A
  • carotid duplex US
  • ECG
  • Blood tests
58
Q

TIA treatment

A
  • immediate antiplatelet (aspirin)
  • anti-HTN
  • statins
  • surgery/stenting
59
Q

anterior/middle cerebral artery affected by ischaemic stroke

A

numbness, muscle weakness

60
Q

where is broca’s area

A

left frontal lobe

61
Q

where is Wernicke’s area

A

left temporal lobe

62
Q

effect of ischaemic stroke affecting Broca’s area

A

slurred speech

63
Q

effect of ischaemic stroke affecting Wernicke’s area

A

understanding speech

64
Q

ischaemic stroke symptoms

A
  • hemiplegia
  • hemisensory loss
  • homonymous hemianopia
  • dysphagia
  • sensory neglect
65
Q

treatment for ischaemic strokes

A
  • thrombolysis/thrombectomy
  • aspirin

Longterm:
- aspirin
- DOAC (rivaroxaban etc) + BP cont. + statins + lifestyle

66
Q

cranium layers, outer to inner

A

skin
periosteum
bone
dura
arachnoid
(subarachnoid)
pia
brain

67
Q

fracture of the pterion can rupture which artery?

A

middle meningeal artery

68
Q

extradural haemorrhage most common cause

A

trauma - fracture of pterion causing rupture of middle meningeal artery

69
Q

why may an extradural (aka epidural) haemorrhage patient keep declining?

A

expanding haematoma until coning of the brainstem

70
Q

extradural haemorrhage investigation

A

non-contrast CT (biconvex lens shape)

71
Q

extradural haemorrhage management

A

initially stabilising the patient followed by surgical intervention with a decompression burr hole or craniotomy to evacuate the haematoma

72
Q

subdural haemorrhage - who is usually affected?

A

older people/chronic alcoholics

Neurology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions