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Infectious Diseases + Microbiology > Year 5 Core Conditions > Flashcards

Year 5 Core Conditions Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the incubation period of influenza?

A

2 days

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2
Q

How is influenza spread?

A

Respiratory droplets

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3
Q

How many types of influenza strain are there? What is the most common?

A
  • A B and C
  • A and B are more common
  • seasonal fluctuation, more common in winter
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4
Q

What are the symptoms of influenza infection?

A
  • Fever
  • Sweats
  • Myalgia
  • Dry cough
  • Sore throat
  • Sneezing
  • Headaches
  • Nausea
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5
Q

Length of illness with flu?

A
  • typically resolves 3-7days

* cough and malaise can persist for >2weeks

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6
Q

What is the investigations to diagnosis influenza?

A

*Nasal PCR swab

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7
Q

Management of flu?

A
  • Supportive: fluids, paracetamol and rest
  • Supplementary oxygen if desaturating
  • Usually self resolves with own immune system
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8
Q

Complications of influenza?

A

*Pneumonia

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9
Q

What type of virus is measles?

A

RNA paramyxovirus

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10
Q

How is measles spread?

A

Respiratory droplets

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11
Q

What is the incubation period of measles?

A

10-14 days

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12
Q

When are people infective with measles from and to?

A

Infective from prodrome until 4 days after rash starts

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13
Q

What are the features of measles prodrome?

A

Irritibale, conjuntivitis and fever

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14
Q

What are the tell tale features of measles?

A
  • Koplik spots (before): ‘grains of salt on the buccal mucosa
  • Rash: discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy and confluent which starts behind the ears and then to the whole body
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15
Q

What investigations can confirm measles?

A

IgM antibodies can be detected within a few days of rash onset

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16
Q

What is the management of measles?

A
  • Mainly supportive
  • admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients
  • notifiable Diseases&raquo_space; inform public health
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17
Q

What is the most common complication of measles?

A

Otitis media

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18
Q

What is the most common complication cause of death in measles cases?

A

Pneumonia

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19
Q

What very rare complication from measles may present 5-10 years following measles?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

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20
Q

What is the management of contacts to measles?

A

*if child not immunised against measles then MMR offered which should be given within 72hours

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21
Q

What type of virus is mumps caused by?

A

RNA paramyxovirus

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22
Q

How is mumps spread?

A
  • Respiratory droplets

* Respiratory tract epithelial cells&raquo_space; parotid gland&raquo_space; other tissues

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23
Q

When is a person with mumps infective?

A

7 days before and 9 days after parotid swelling starts

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24
Q

What is the incubation period of mumps?

A

14-21 days

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25
Q

What are the clinical features of mumps?

A
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Muscular pain
  • parotitis = ‘earache’ ‘pain on eating’ =unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70%
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26
Q

What is the management of mumps?

A
  • Rest
  • paracetamol for fever
  • notifiable disease to public health
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27
Q

What are the complications of mumps?

A
  • Orchitis (25% of post pubertal males)
  • Hearing loss (unilateral and transient)
  • Meningoencephalitis
  • pancreatitis
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28
Q

What virus causes rubella?

A

Tagovirus

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29
Q

What is rubella also known as?

A

German measles

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30
Q

What is the incubation period of rubella?

A

14-21 days

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31
Q

When are patients with rubella infectious from and to?

A

7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash

32
Q

What are the prodrome features of rubella?

A

Low grade fever

33
Q

What are the clinical features of rubella?

A
  • Prodrome: fever
  • Rash: maculopapular, initially on the face before spreading the whole body, usually fades by 3-5days
  • lymphadenopathy
34
Q

What are the complications of rubella?

A
  • Arthritis
  • thrombocytopenia
  • encephalitis
  • myocarditis
35
Q

What is the management of rubella?

A

*Supportive: fluids, paracetamol and rest

36
Q

When is the risk of damage to the fetus high due to rubella?

A
  • first 8-10 weeks 90% risk

* damage after 16weeks rare

37
Q

What are the features of congenital rubella syndrome?

A
  • Sensorineural deafness
  • Congenital cataracts
  • Congenital heart disease
  • growth retardation
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • pupuric skin lesion
  • Cerebral palsy
  • micropthalmia
38
Q

What is chicken pox caused by?

A

Varicella zoster virus

39
Q

What is shingles?

A

Reactivation of the dormant varicella zoster virus in a dorsal root ganglion

40
Q

How is chicken pox spread?

A

Respiratory droplets

41
Q

When is person with chicken pox infective?

A

4 days before rash and until 5 days after the rash first appeared

42
Q

What is the incubation period of chicken pox?

A

10-21 days

43
Q

What are the clinical features of chicken pox?

A
  • Fever initially
  • Itchy, rash started on head/trunk before spreading
  • Initially macular then papular then vesicular
  • systemic upset usually mild
44
Q

What is the management of chicken pox?

A
  • Trim nails
  • Calamine lotion
  • school exclusion until all lesions are dry and have crusted over
45
Q

What is a common complication of chicken pox?

A

Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions

46
Q

What are rare complications of chicken pox?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • encephalitis
  • disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox
  • arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis rarely seen
47
Q

What is the cause of whooping cough?

A

Gram negative bacterium called pertussis

48
Q

How is pertussis spread?

A

Respiratory droplets

49
Q

What is the immunity of whooping cough?

A

Neither infection nor immunisation results in lifelong protection -hence adults may develop whooping cough despite having had routine immunisations

50
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria of whooping cough?

A

Should be suspected if a person has an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more and has one or more of the following:
>paroxysmal cough
>Inspiratory whoop
>post-tussive vomiting
>undiagnosed apnoea attacks in young infants

51
Q

What is the classic presentation of whooping cough?

A

*Coughing bouts
>worse at night and after feeding
>may be ended with vomiting
>associated central cyanosis

  • Inspiratory whoop
  • Infants may have spells of apnoea
  • persisten cough may cause subconjunctival haemorrhages
  • symptoms can last 10-14 weeks
52
Q

How is whooping cough diagnosed?

A
  • Per nasal swab culture for pertussis

* PCR and serology now used

53
Q

What is the management of whooping cough?

A
  • If under 6 months =admitted
  • notifiable disease
  • oral macrolide indicated if onset of cough is within previous 21 days
  • household contacts offered antibiotic prophylaxis
  • school exclusion 48 hour after commencing antibiotics (or 21days after onset of symptoms if no antibiotics)
54
Q

What are the complications of whooping cough?

A
  • subconjunctival haemorrhage
  • pneumonia
  • bronchiectasis
  • seizures
55
Q

What is traveller’s diarrhoea defined as?

A

At least 3 loose to watery stools in 24hours with or without abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting or blood in stool

56
Q

What is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

Escherichia coli

57
Q

What is the presentation in ‘acute food poisoning’?

A

Sudden onset of nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea after the ingestion of a toxin

58
Q

What organisms typically cause acute food poisoning?

A
  • Staph aureus
  • Bacillus cereus
  • Clostridium perfringens
59
Q

What is Giardiasis caused by?

A

Flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia

60
Q

How is Giardia lambia spread?

A

Faeco-oral route

61
Q

What are the features of a Giardia infection?

A
  • Often asymptomatic
  • lethargy, bloating, abode pain
  • flatulence
  • non-bloody diarrhoea
  • chronic diarrhoea, malabsorption
62
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Campylobacter

63
Q

How is campylobacter spread?

A
  • Spread by faecal oral route

* From handling raw meat

64
Q

What are the features of campylobacter?

A
  • Prodrome: headache and malaise (flu like)
  • Fever
  • Diarrhoea often bloody
  • abdo pain mimic appendicitis’s
65
Q

What is the management of campylobacter?

A
  • Usually self limiting
  • If symptoms severe give antibiotics
  • first line antibiotic clarithromycin
  • Ciprofloxacin alternative
66
Q

What causes of gastroeneteritis present with bloody diarrhoea?

A
  • Campylobacter
  • Shigella
  • Amoebiasis
67
Q

What has an incubation period of 1-6hours?

A
  • Staph aureus

* Bacillus cereus

68
Q

What has an incubation period of 12-48hours?

A
  • Salmonella

* E. coli

69
Q

What has an incubation period of 48-72 hours?

A
  • Shigella

* Campylobacter

70
Q

What gastroenteritis has an incubation period of >7days?

A
  • Giardiasis

* Amoebiasis

71
Q

What is the cause of malaria?

A 
Plasmodium protozoa (single cella parasites)
4 species:
>Plasmodium flaciparum (most common)
>Plasmodium vivax
>Plasmodium ovale
>Plasmodium malariae
72
Q

How is malaria spread?

A

Anopheles mosquito

73
Q

What does malaria do?

A
  • Destroy liver cells

* Destroy red blood cells

74
Q

What are the most common areas affected with malaria?

A
  • Latin amaerica
  • Sub saharan Africa
  • South Asia
  • South east asia
75
Q

What conditions help protection from malaria?

A
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Thalassemia
  • G6PD deficiency
76
Q

What are the stages of a malaria infection? What happens?

A

Pre-erythocyte schizogony:

  1. Mosquito injection sporozoites into blood circulation
  2. Sporozoites enter the liver, divide in cells and release merozoites into bloodstream

Erythocytic schizogony

  1. Merozoites invade erythrocytes, grow and dive to form 8-32 parasites, bursting the cell to be released into the blood stream
  2. This cycle continues and the number of parasites increase

Gametogony:

  1. The merozoites develop into sexual forms of the parasite known as gametocytes
  2. Once formed the patient is infective
77
Q

What are the features of severe malaria?

A
  • Schizonts on blood film
  • Parasitaemia >2%
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Acidosis
  • Temperature >39
  • Severe anaemia
  • Complications: seizures, coma, AKI, ARDS, DIC

Infectious Diseases + Microbiology (7 decks)

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