Year 1

Question 1

According to research, which parenting style best predicts positive child characteristics including the development of prosocial behaviors?

a) Permissive

b) Authoritarian

c) Authoritative

d) Neglecting-Uninvolved

Answer 1

C) Authoritative

Question 2

2. What are the indicators of a securely attached infant?

a) The infant is quite distressed when separated from the mother.

b) The infant fails to cry when separated from the mother.

c) The infant shows distress when separate but happily greets when reunited.

d) The infant shows no distress when toys are present.

Answer 2

c) The infant shows distress when separate but happily greets when reunited.

Question 3

In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, this concept refers to a process of changing existing schemes in order to account for novel elements in an object or an event.
a) Accommodation

b) Articulation

c) Assimilation

d) Empathy

Answer 3

a) Accommodation

Question 4

The process by which people develop specific, positive emotional bonds with others, most notably between an infant and their primary caregiver, is otherwise known as:

a) attachment.

b) respect.

c) assimilation.

d) agency.

Answer 4

a) attachment.

Question 5

According to Erik Erikson, children between the ages of 6 and 12 are most likely to acquire a sense of ____________ before reaching early adolescence.
a) Initiative

b) Fidelity

c) Industry

d) Identity

Answer 5

c) Industry

Question 6

The ability to consider a situation from a point of view other than one’s own is known as:

a) emphatic response.

b) perspective-taking.

c) caring.

d) optimism.

Answer 6

b) perspective-taking.

Question 7

Vygotsky proposed that optimal development exists within a learning context, defined as the difference between what a learner can do without help and what he or she cannot do. Vygotsky referred to this difference as:
a) metacognition.

b) scaffolding.

c) the zone of proximal development, or ZPD.

d) repetition.

Answer 7

c) the zone of proximal development, or ZPD.

Question 8

According to Bronfenbrenner, the system which recognizes the interrelation between settings, or the “linkages and processes taking place between two or more settings containing the developing person” is the:

a) exosystem.

b) macrosystem.

c) mesosystem.

d) microsystem.

Answer 8

c) mesosystem.

Question 9

In Bronfenbrenner’s model, the most complex system, which consists of customs, values, and laws in a given individual’s culture is the:

a) exosystem.

b) macrosystem.

c) mesosystem.

d) microsystem.

Answer 9

b) macrosystem.

Question 10

Piaget asserts that normal cognitive growth passes through the following four stages:

a) infancy, toddler, child, adult.

b) infancy, early childhood, assimilation, accommodation.

c) birth, childhood, adolescence, adult.

d) infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, adolescence.

Answer 10

d) infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, adolescence.

Question 11

According to Vygotsky, a child’s mental abilities develop as a result of participation in collaborative activities with more skilled peers or adults. Consequently, it is the social interaction and that provide the foundation for cognitive development. (This one was weird, dunno if you have the updated one)
a) cultural context

b) family environment

c) quality of care giving

d) macrosystem

Answer 11

a) cultural context

Question 12

For counselors, it is helpful to view an individual’s developing self and lived experiences from a _______________ perspective.
a) cultural

b) systemic

c) linear

d) causal

Answer 12

b) systemic

Question 13

The ability of an organism to change in response to positive and negative environmental experience is defined as:

a) mutual selection

b) developmental niche

c) plasticity

d) maturation

Answer 13

c) plasticity

Question 14

Counselors apply multidimensional models most explicitly in their work with clients when they:

a) recognize the primary importance of genetic influences on behavior.

b) consider levels of influence on the individual and select interventions that are targeted to more than one level.

c) pay close attention to the stage of development that characterizes the client.

d) understand that client’s developmental tasks must be met in each stage of development.

Answer 14

b) consider levels of influence on the individual and select interventions that are targeted to more than one level.

Question 15

The brain is commonly classified into three main parts. They are:

a) midbrain, pons, and cerebellum.

b) forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.

c) midbrain, forebrain and cerebral cortex.

    d)   cerebellum, medulla and limbic system

Answer 15

b) forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.

Question 16

Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to Piaget’s theory?
a) Piaget firmly believed that children who were at a particular stage of cognitive development had the same level of understanding in all areas, such as understanding causality, morality, agency, etc.

b) Piaget believed that children’s progress through the stages could vary. For example, very intelligent children could skip a stage.

c) Piaget believed in the dynamic quality of stages and understood that children in the same stage could vary greatly in their specific understanding of causality, morality, and so forth.

d) Piaget believed that children could vary in their understanding of morality but that their understanding of causality was the same for all children within a particular stage.

Answer 16

c) Piaget believed in the dynamic quality of stages and understood that children in the same stage could vary greatly in their specific understanding of causality, morality, and so forth.

Question 17

Which of the following is the best example of the concept of a zone of proximal development?

a) Sherri works on her algebra homework for two hours without being able to answer a single question correctly.

b) Jeff makes a note of the homework assignment for his last period class and completes it while riding home on the school bus.

c) Cindy explains to her younger sister how to solve a problem in math by organizing the information in a new way. Her younger sister can then complete her homework.

d) A mother shows her 8-month-old infant flashcards of words in different languages while she repeats each word on the card.

Answer 17

c) Cindy explains to her younger sister how to solve a problem in math by organizing the information in a new way. Her younger sister can then complete her homework.

Question 18

Contemporary developmentalists focus on which question concerning nature and nurture?

a) Is nature the most important determinant of developmental change?

b) Is nurture the most important determinant of developmental change?

c) How do we explain the mechanisms by which nature and nurture interact to affect development?

d) Why is nurture most influential at certain developmental periods?

Answer 18

c) How do we explain the mechanisms by which nature and nurture interact to affect development?

Question 19

When environmental factors influence how hereditary material functions, this set of processes (involved in controlling genetic expression) is called:
a) epigenesis.

b) translation.

c) transcription.

d) mitosis.

Answer 19

a) epigenesis.

Question 20

An important attachment and bonding consideration for counselors and helpers to include when working with parents of infants is the infant’s:

a) temperament.

b) weight.

c) appetite.

d) gender.

Answer 20

a) temperament.

Question 21

According to recent views, the “Me” includes the material self, social self, and spiritual self. These aspects of self are defined by which term?

a) Self-concept

b) Self-esteem

c) Self-advocacy

d) Self-efficacy

Answer 21

a) Self-concept

Question 22

Piaget believed that the process of decentering and holding more than one piece of information at a time helps children become:

a) less egocentric.

b) more egocentric.

c) less socially engaged.

d) more critically independent on interactions with peers.

Answer 22

a) less egocentric.

Question 23

Broderick and Blewitt (2018) define Social Cognition as:

a) the ways that people feel about their relationships and the people in their lives.

b) the ways people think about people and how they reason about social relationships.

c) how we act, react, and respond to people and social relationships.

d) how we think about our self-concept and identity.

Answer 23

b) the ways people think about people and how they reason about social relationships.

Question 24

Children’s repeated interactions with others enhance their ability to decenter and to interpret others’ thoughts, feelings, and desires. This ability to consider another’s point of view is called what?

a) A script

b) Rehearsal

c) Metacognition

d) Perspective taking

Answer 24

d) Perspective taking

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a Friendship Skill according to Selman’s framework of friendship?

a) Appropriate assertiveness

b) Good communication

c) Expecting friends to meet one’s needs

d) Conflict resolution that maintain and enhance friendships

Answer 25

c) Expecting friends to meet one’s needs

Question 26

Which of the following factors compromises the efficiency of executive functioning (EF), which can influence a child’s ability to learn and achieve?

a) Stress

b) Lack of sleep

c) Boredom

d) Poor health

e) All of the above

Answer 26

e) All of the above

Question 27

An important component of metacognition is the ability to:

a) make friends.

b) think about what other people are thinking.

c) master science and math.

d) think about one’s thinking.

Answer 27

d) think about one’s thinking.

Question 28

Teaching children how to use the skill of “self-talk” can help reveal which of the following?

a) How the child is understanding a situation or circumstance.

b) How the child is solving the problem.

c) How the child’s thinking is influencing how they feel and act.

d) All of the above.

Answer 28

d) All of the above.

Question 29

Which of the following domain is NOT included in the overall structure of the general self-concept in middle childhood?

a) Nonacademic self-concept

b) Academic English self-concept

c) Job competence self-concept

d) Academic math self-concept

Answer 29

c) Job competence self-concept

Question 30

Observing the performance of others and using it as a basis for evaluating our own abilities and accomplishments is referred to as:

a) self-evaluation.

b) social appraisal.

c) social comparison.

d) self-ehancing bias.

Answer 30

c) social comparison.

Question 31

ased on the model of the structure of self-concept by Marsh and Shavelson, the non-academic self is divided into three areas: social, emotional, and:

a) relational.

b) spiritual.

c) intellectual.

d) physical.

Answer 31

d) physical.

Question 32

Perhaps the most important clinical consideration supported by current research in the field of middle childhood/early adolescence peer relationships is the need to direct interventions toward which of the following?

a) The family system

b) One single compelling target

c) Multiple targets

d) The school system

Answer 32

c) Multiple targets

Question 33

33. Which of the following are important influences in the development of moral reasoning skills in middle childhood?

a) Peer interactions

b) Following the rules

c) Perspective taking

d) a. and c.

Answer 33

d) a. and c.

Question 34

When two participants, such as a teacher and a student, begin a task with different understanding and through their shared inter-mental space eventually arrive at a shared understanding, they are engaged in the process of:
a) intersubjectivity.

b) scaffolding.

c) mediated learning.

d) zone of proximal development.

Answer 34

a) intersubjectivity.

Question 35

Which of the following hormones is synthesized in the hypothalamus, released by the pituitary glands, and plays a role in affiliative behaviors such as social cooperation, empathy, forgiveness, sexual and reproductive activities, and reducing stress?
a) Leptin

b) Oxytocin

c) Insulin

d) Ghrelin

Answer 35

b) Oxytocin

Question 36

Patterns of behaviors that are repeated across family generations, such as abuse, trauma, rejection, and maltreatment describe the phenomenon of:

a) homeostasis.

b) systemic transmission.

c) intergenerational transmission.

d) generational cycling.

Answer 36

c) intergenerational transmission.

Question 37

Which of the following is a cornerstone of emotional well-being and positive adjustment?
Group of answer choices

a) Moral development

b) Resilience

c) Attachment style

d) Emotional regulation

Answer 37

d) Emotional regulation

Question 38

The capacity for emotional response to wrongdoing is an important first step in which of the following?

a) Moral development

b) Ethical reasoning

c) Conscious discipline

d) Perspective taking

Answer 38

a) Moral development

Question 39

Which of the following parent skills are important influences on the health of their relationships with their children?
a) Presence

b) Warmth

c) Listening

d) All of the above.

Answer 39

d) All of the above.

Question 40

Having high expectations for people and believing that intelligence and performance can be nurtured and modified is reflective of which type of mindset?
a) Ability

b) Growth

c) Fixed

d) Fluid

Answer 40

b) Growth

Question 41

Being unable to see or understand things from a different perspective is referred to as:
A: imbalance.

B: resistance.

C: disagreeing.

D: egocentrism.

Answer 41

D: egocentrism.

Question 42

When clinicians assess a client’s presenting problem(s) in order to plan for treatment, which of the following approaches to diagnosis reflects a developmental viewpoint?
A: Consider those issues in a client’s life that result from multifinality.

B: Count the number of symptoms currently manifested in order to reach a specific diagnosis.

C: Assess the person’s level of symptomatology on a checklist and assign a diagnosis only when a certain percentile has been reached.

D: Assess the nature of the problem by considering the person’s unique history, interpersonal context, and challenges in the extrapersonal environment.

Answer 42

D: Assess the nature of the problem by considering the person’s unique history, interpersonal context, and challenges in the extrapersonal environment

Question 43

Which of the following therapeutic approaches is designed to help children develop their perspective taking and friendship skills?
A: Cognitive therapy.

B: Self-monitoring approach.

C: Pair therapy.

D: Immersion therapy.

Answer 43

C: Pair therapy.

Question 44

One factor that promotes self-esteem among minority group members is:
A: a strong and positive racial or ethnic identity.

B: being a member of a smaller, rather than a larger, social group.

C: making social comparisons to members of other cultural groups.

D: increased use of reflected appraisals in constructions of self.

Answer 44

A: a strong and positive racial or ethnic identity.

Question 45

Which of the following is a temperamental characteristic that is associated with prosocial behavior?
A: Low social anxiety.

B: Popularity among peers.

C: Coherent self-concept.

D: Intelligence.

Answer 45

A: Low social anxiety.

Question 46

Morality is an important domain of self-concept that involves the capacity to distinguish right from wrong and the capacity to choose to do right. The elements of morality include all of the following EXCEPT:
A: sociability.

B: emotions.

C: behaviors.

D: cognitions.

Answer 46

A: sociability.

Question 47

One aspect of prosocial behavior is defined as follows: a child exhibits “feeling with” another person, recognizing the emotional need of the other, and experiencing what the other is assumed to be feeling. This definition specifically applies to which of the following?
A: Altruism

B: Sympathy

C: Empathy

D: Self-sacrifice

Answer 47

C: Empathy

Question 48

Which of the following characteristics is most closely linked to children who exhibit prosocial or helping behaviors?
A: High social anxiety

B: Low social anxiety

C: Hedonistic perspective

D: Low needs-orientated reasoning

Answer 48

B: Low social anxiety

Question 49

People are generally motivated to evaluate themselves favorably in relation to others. Researchers refer to this tendency as which of the following?
A: Self-comparison bias

B: Positive appraisal

C: Social comparison

D: Self-enhancing bias

Answer 49

D: Self-enhancing bias

Question 50

Counselors working with school-age children and adolescents need to recognize that gender identity continues to develop in these years. Among the important findings from recent research is that girls tend to feel:

A: more content with their gender than boys.

B: more pressure to conform to gender stereotypes than boys.

C: less content with their gender than boys.

D: the same degree of pressure to conform to gender stereotypes as boys.

Answer 50

C: less content with their gender than boys.

Question 51

1) The group leadership skill of active listening includes all the following except:
sensing underlying messages.

the ability to formulate your next response while listening.

noting gestures and changes in expression.

being sensitive to discrepancies between a member’s words and body language.

Answer 51

the ability to formulate your next response while listening.

Question 52

The group leadership skill of clarification does not involve which of the following?
Focusing on key apparent issues.

Sorting out confused and conflicting feelings.

Asking open-ended questions in order to understand what a group member is saying

A tool that can be valuable in the initial stages of an en-counter.

Answer 52

Focusing on key apparent issues.

Question 53

The group leadership skill of summarizing is useful during all of the following except:

when the group process gets bogged down.

in arriving at a decision on where to go next.

at the end of a session.

at the beginning of a session.

Answer 53

at the beginning of a session.

Question 54

Which of the following is not how a group leader might use of the skill of facilitating?
working to create a climate of safety and acceptance

helping members express their fears and expectations

involving as few members as possible in the group interaction

providing encouragement and support as members explore highly personal material or as they try new behavior

Answer 54

involving as few members as possible in the group interaction

Question 55

5) Group leaders who use the skill of empathizing appropriately have a wide range of experiences that:

help them identify with others.

enable them to know fully what another person is experiencing.

enable them to completely identify with group members by temporarily abandoning their separateness from them.

enable them to overlook confusing nonverbal messages.

Answer 55

help them identify with others.

Question 56

The group leadership skill of interpreting involves all of the following except:
offering possible explanations for certain behaviors or symptoms.

helping a member move beyond an impasse.

discouraging members from making their own interpretations.

presenting an interpretation in the form of a hypothesis or hunch.

Answer 56

discouraging members from making their own interpretations.

Question 57

7) Which of the following examples is not an appropriate use of the skill of questioning?
“Why don’t you leave the relationship?”
“How do you experience the fear of rejection is this group?”
“How is avoiding confrontation working for you here in this group?”
“What do you fear might happen if you took the risk to be vulnerable here?”

Answer 57

“Why don’t you leave the relationship?”

Question 58

The use of support as a leadership skill is inappropriate:
when a member is venturing into frightening territory.
when a member is engaging in new behavior in a group.
when a member asks for support.
before a member has had the opportunity to fully experience a conflict or painful feelings.

Answer 58

before a member has had the opportunity to fully experience a conflict or painful feelings.

Question 59

The group leadership skill of blocking should not be used when group members:
bombard others with questions.
begin to cry.
break confidences.
invade privacy.

Answer 59

begin to cry.

Question 60

Which of the following would not be considered one of a group member’s rights?
protection from verbal or physical assaults
complete confidentiality
knowing the leader’s qualifications
help from the group leader in developing personal goals

Answer 60

complete confidentiality

Question 61

11) To avoid inadvertent breeches of confidentiality, group leaders should:
provide members with ways to talk about their experiences without identifying
other group members.

establish and strictly enforce a zero-tolerance policy for those who violate confidentiality by dismissing them from the group.

punish violaters of confidentiality with the silent treatment.

require members who breech confidentiality to pay a steep fine.

Answer 61

provide members with ways to talk about their experiences without identifying
other group members.

Question 62

Confidentiality in groups is:
a legal right of every member.
something that members can be guaranteed.
something that members cannot be guaranteed.
an absolute that can never be broken for any reason.

Answer 62

something that members cannot be guaranteed.

Question 63

13) The therapeutic factor in groups that involves actively doing what is necessary for change is _______________.
acceptance
power
Intimacy
willingness to risk and trust

Answer 63

willingness to risk and trust

Question 64

The therapeutic factor in groups that involves the sense that one has the internal resources necessary to direct one’s life is
freedom to experiment
intimacy
empathy
power

Answer 64

power

Question 65

Using a theoretical framework to guide your practice as a group leader is important for all of the following reasons except:
it tells you exactly what to do in every session.
it helps to define both your role and the members’ roles in a group.
it provides a frame of reference for understanding and evaluating the world of the client.
it helps you to select appropriate techniques in meeting the goals of the members.

Answer 65

it tells you exactly what to do in every session.

Question 66

16) In order to practice in a multiculturally competent manner, leaders who have adopted any of the major theoretical orientations should do all of the following except:

consider all dimensions of a member’s identity including age, gender, sexual orientation, ability, and religious affiliation

introduce exercises in an invitational and optional manner

validate and understand members experiences with racism, discrimination, and oppression before challenging them to respond differently

only consider a member’s age and gender

Answer 66

only consider a member’s age and gender

Question 67

17) Which of the therapeutic approaches below does not stress the role of thinking and doing and is not action-oriented?
cognitive therapy
behavior therapy
Gestalt therapy
reality therapy

Answer 67

Gestalt therapy

Question 68

The _________________ approach views people as being significantly influenced by unconscious motivation and early childhood experiences.
psychoanalytic
person-centered
existential
Adlerian

Answer 68

psychoanalytic

Question 69

A key goal of an Adlerian group is:
increasing insight into one’s irrational behaviors and unconscious dynamics.
fostering social interest, or facilitating a sense of connectedness with others.
changing self-defeating thinking.
creating new conditions for learning.

Answer 69

fostering social interest, or facilitating a sense of connectedness with others.

Question 70

The overall goal of choice theory/reality therapy is to help people find better ways to meet their needs for:
self-esteem and self-control.
survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun.
social interest.
psychosocial development.

Answer 70

survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun.

Question 71

Which of the following is the best procedure to follow when informing a person that they have not been accepted as a member in your group?
Have all applicants meet and then read the names of those selected.
Discuss the reasons for this decision with the particular person, taking care to be honest and sensitive, and providing them with an appropriate referral.
Inform them of your decision by means of a letter.
Have your administrative assistant call them

Answer 71

Discuss the reasons for this decision with the particular person, taking care to be honest and sensitive, and providing them with an appropriate referral.

Question 72

22) When a leader is experiencing strong feelings about what he or she perceives to be resistance, a powerful intervention is to:
Pay primary attention to the problem in the group.
Pay primary attention to particular group members.
Deal with his or her own feelings.
Allow the feelings to dissipate on their own.

Answer 72

Deal with his or her own feelings.

Question 73

Which of the following is not true concerning desirable size for a group?
It depends on the age of the clients and the type of group.
It depends on the leader’s experience and the type of problems to be explored.
A group for elementary school children should consist of at least eight to ten members.
A group for adolescents should consist of six to eight members.

Answer 73

A group for elementary school children should consist of at least eight to ten members.

Question 74

Which of the following is not considered an advantage of a therapeutic group over other intervention strategies?
Group members can learn effective social skills.
The group setting offers support for new behavior.
Groups are suited for everyone.
Participants can explore their style of relating to others.

Answer 74

Groups are suited for everyone.

Question 75

If the goal of a group is the simulation of everyday life, then it is a good idea to have:
a homogeneous group.
a heterogeneous group.
an endogenous group.
an androgynous group.

Answer 75

a heterogeneous group.

Question 76

During a group’s initial phase, members can build trust best by:
waiting until someone takes the first risk and then open-ing up.
revealing their lack of trust.
relying on “trust exercises” initiated by the leader (e.g., falling backward and trusting others to catch you).
sharing superficial details about themselves.

Answer 76

revealing their lack of trust.

Question 77

Which of the following statements is not true as it applies to resistance during the initial stage?
Resistance is generally not common during the initial stage of a group, since members are quite willing to get personally involved quickly.
Cultural factors may influence clients’ readiness to participate in a group.
Some initial resistance is to be expected in the early stage, even if people are eager to join in.
Because resistance often arises from fearful expectations, identifying and discussing these fears will benefit the whole group.

Answer 77

Resistance is generally not common during the initial stage of a group, since members are quite willing to get personally involved quickly.

Question 78

Reluctance to speak out may function as:
establishment of norms which is necessary for development of group cohesion.
development as a result of preconceived ideas about what takes place in a group.
an implicit norm that may develop as a result of leader modeling.
a healthy boundary rather than being an expression of resistance.

Answer 78

a healthy boundary rather than being an expression of resistance.

Question 79

29) Resistance in a group can be seen as:
not normal.
something that should be avoided at all costs.
a bad attitude on the part of the member.
potential material for productive exploration.

Answer 79

potential material for productive exploration.

Question 80

During the initial stage, interventions are aimed at providing __________.
conflict
management
challenges
encouragement

Answer 80

encouragement

Question 81

An example of a norm that is unlikely to be fostered in groups is that members are:
encouraged to confront each other in an uncaring or tactless manner.
encouraged to be personal and share meaningful aspects of themselves.
encouraged to give feedback to one another.
encouraged to focus on and express feelings.

Answer 81

encouraged to confront each other in an uncaring or tactless manner.

Question 82

Leaders and members demonstrate a lack of attention when they:
ask open-ended questions.
are thinking about what to say next.
listen intently.
strive to be present.

Answer 82

are thinking about what to say next.

Question 83

33) During the transition stage, anxiety is all of the following except:
High.
The result of external factors.
The result of internal factors.
Low.

Answer 83

Low.

Question 84

34) Which of the following fears are not common in the transition stage?
Fear of rejection.
Fear of self-disclosure.
Fear of being misunderstood.
Fear of being supported.

Answer 84

Fear of being supported.

Question 85

Which of the following statements about conflict is false?
It is to be avoided at all costs.
It often carries a negative connotation.
It is inevitable in all relationships and groups.
Unexplored conflict is expressed in defensive behavior.

Answer 85

It is to be avoided at all costs.

Question 86

36) When a member is consistently silent during group sessions, it is best to:
Consistently call on that person.
Invite the individual to explore what his or her silence means.
Avoid attacking the person for his or her silence.
Dismiss him/her from the group.

Answer 86

Avoid attacking the person for his or her silence.

Question 87

37) A member who monopolizes group time is all of the following except:
exhibiting a high degree of self-centeredness.
continually identifying with others.
sometimes welcomed in the early stages of a group’s progress.
silent.

Answer 87

silent

Question 88

38) The problem behavior of storytelling:
involves relating a detailed history of one’s past.
involves talking about others’ lives in very little detail.
should never be allowed.
is one kind of appropriate self-disclosure.

Answer 88

involves relating a detailed history of one’s past.

Question 89

The problem behavior of advice giving involves:
offering a perception.
offering an opinion.
telling people what they should feel and do.
listening without responding.

Answer 89

telling people what they should feel and do.

Question 90

Which of the following is not usually a characteristic of the working stage?
Group cohesion.
Universality.
Relatively few interpersonal conflicts and struggles.
Less dependence on the leader for direction.

Answer 90

Relatively few interpersonal conflicts and struggles.

Question 91

41) All of the following are characteristics of the working stage except:
members are encouraged to become more like each other in order to develop group cohesion.
group members use each other as a resource.
group norms are developed cooperatively by members and leader.
there is an emphasis on combining the feeling and thinking functions.

Answer 91

members are encouraged to become more like each other in order to develop group cohesion.

Question 92

Which of the following is not typically a co-leadership issue at the working stage?
Discussion of techniques.
Bringing closure to the group’s experience.
Evaluation of the group.
Theoretical orientations.

Answer 92

Bringing closure to the group’s experience.

Question 93

43) Which of the following statements is not true regarding feedback?
Positive feedback is rated as more desirable than negative feedback.
Specific here-and-now feedback that pertains to behavior in the group is especially useful.
Leaders should model effective delivery of feedback and encourage members to engage in thoughtful feedback exchange.
Negative feedback seems more credible and helpful in the early phases of a group.

Answer 93

Negative feedback seems more credible and helpful in the early phases of a group.

Question 94

44) One of the most important ways learning and self-discovery takes place in a group is through a combination of member:
confrontation and storytelling.
self-disclosure and feedback.
connecting and processing.
exploring and engaging.

Answer 94

self-disclosure and feedback.

Question 95

45) Effective feedback is an important component of which stage of group development?
Transition.
Initial.
Working.
Final.

Answer 95

Working

Question 96

46) Feedback is most useful when it is:
vague and general.
long and qualified or explained at length.
short and succinct.
clear and concise.

Answer 96

Clear and concise

Question 97

47) Which of the following is an example of global feedback that is of little use to group members?
“You are a super person and very easy to like.”
“I like your ability to be direct and honest in giving feedback.”
“My fear for you is that you will judge yourself more harshly than others.”
“Remember that people felt more connected to you when you stopped being sarcastic.”

Answer 97

“You are a super person and very easy to like.”

Question 98

48) In regards to teaching members how to give and receive feedback, group leaders are encouraged to:
model effective delivery of feedback.

encourage members to engage in thoughtful feedback exchanges.

read about and reflect on how to give and receive feedback.

a. and b.

Answer 98

a. and b.

Question 99

49) The major task of the final stage in a group’s development is:
development of trust.
development of group cohesion.
achieving intimacy.
consolidation of learning.

Answer 99

consolidation of learning.

Question 100

50) During the closing of a group, a task for the leader is to help members who are leaving identify how they can:
incorporate what was meaningful in the group into their daily life.
use what they learned against family and friends.
forget what was helpful about the group.
go about every day without using what they learned in the group.

Answer 100

incorporate what was meaningful in the group into their daily life.

Question 101

Who was considered the leading figure, or “father,” of the career counseling movement?
a. Super
b. Parsons
c. Roe
d. Holland

Answer 101

b. Parsons

Question 102

The terms “career life” or “life/career” illuminate the:
a. role of work only.
b. separation between work and life.
c. interconnection between all life roles.
d. necessity to choose one career path for your life

Answer 102

c. interconnection between all life roles.

Question 103

Parson’s outstanding contribution to the career counseling movement was his:
a. Conceptual framework for helping an individual select a career
b. Speech at the first national conference on vocational guidance

c. Method of measuring aptitudes for immigrants

d. Research on career development of children

Answer 103

a. Conceptual framework for helping an individual select a career

Question 104

Which of the following occurred during World War I?
a. The Great Depression and job loss

b. Writing of the first developmental theories
c. The women’s movement

d. Measurement movement

Answer 104

d. Measurement movement

Question 105

Which of the following is indicative of Stage 1 of career counseling (1890–1919)?
a. The growth of educational guidance in elementary and secondary schools

b. Organizational career development and the nature of work viewed as pervasive life roles
c. Time of significant growth of guidance needs in colleges and universities and in the training of counselors
d. The growth of placement services in urban areas to meet needs of growing industrial organizations

Answer 105

d. The growth of placement services in urban areas to meet needs of growing industrial organizations

Question 106

On what principle was career counseling founded?
a. The role of the group

b. Individual differences and strengths

c. Group compatibility

d. Individual likenesses

Answer 106

b. Individual differences and strengths

Question 107

Current practice places a strong emphasis between _____ and _____.
a. career development; mental health

b. mental health; client-counselor concerns
c. career development; performance
d. personal development; mental health

Answer 107

a. career development; mental health

Question 108

Donald Super’s model highlights:
a. it is superfluous to consider the interrelationships of all life roles.
b. success in one role does not facilitate success in another.

c. people are only involved in one life role.
d. success in one role facilitates success in another.

Answer 108

d. success in one role facilitates success in another.

Question 109

There appears to be solid evidence that workers in the 21st century should adopt:
a. The one career choice approach

b. Behavioral approaches

c. Person-in-environment approaches
d. A lifelong learning approach

Answer 109

d. A lifelong learning approach

Question 110

The current time (1990 to present), Stage 6, is viewed as:
a. a time of changing demographics and continued development of technology.
b. a focus on school-to-work transitions.

c. the beginning of multicultural counseling.

d. all of the above.

Answer 110

d. all of the above.

Question 111

What does Zunker (2008) present as the next challenge in the role of career counseling?
a. The combination of values and lifestyle preferences

b. Career and travel

c. The need to integrate career and personal concerns in the practice of career development
d. The global economy

Answer 111

c. The need to integrate career and personal concerns in the practice of career development

Question 112

An effective counselor maintains that:
a. a client fits into a stereotypical role.

b. society is culturally homogenous.

c. it is not necessary to consider the background of the client.

d. each client is a unique individual.

Answer 112

d. each client is a unique individual.

Question 113

The rise of _______ in the 1800s led to a dramatically changed work environment, resulting in the need to address working conditions of urban life.
a. the reformation

b. deindustrialization
c. socialism

d. industrialism

Answer 113

d. industrialism

Question 114

The career development theory that includes genetic endowments, special abilities, environmental conditions, and events is by the following author:
a. Holland

b. Super

c. Krumboltz
d. Pope

Answer 114

c. Krumboltz

Question 115

PEC theory emphasizes that:
a. Job satisfaction is completely related to family compatibility
b. Job satisfaction is completely determined by wages

c. Job satisfaction is related to work reinforcers

d. Job satisfaction is primarily the responsibility of the manager

Answer 115

c. Job satisfaction is related to work reinforcers

Question 116

A major tenet of Super’s theory is that the career pattern one follows through life:
a. Is primarily influenced by one’s vocational orientation

b. Is an expression of career maturity

c. Represents verification of one’s personal modal style

d. Results from expression of one’s vocational self-concept

Answer 116

d. Results from expression of one’s vocational self-concept

Question 117

The assumption that individuals have unique patterns of ability that can be measured and matched with jobs is a key concept of:
a. Trait-and-factor theory
b. Developmental theory

c. Self-concept theory

d. Construct theory

Answer 117

a. Trait-and-factor theory

Question 118

The choice model of the Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) is divided into three components as follows:
a. Define personal values, establish goals, take actions

b. Develop individual learning plan, execute plan, evaluate plan

c. Define goals, initiate action, success is determined by future behavior
d. Define personal values, develop interventions, execute plan

Answer 118

c. Define goals, initiate action, success is determined by future behavior

Question 119

According to the Cognitive Information Processing (CIP) theory, the major strategy of career interventions is to:
a. Provide interventions to identify personality dimensions

b. Provide interventions that improves one’s self-concept

c. Provide learning interventions to enhance one’s information processing ability
d. Provide interventions to understand the influence of life course events

Answer 119

c. Provide learning interventions to enhance one’s information processing ability

Question 120

What did John Holland (1992) stress as being important in the search for vocational satisfaction and stability?
a. The importance of self-knowledge
b. Satisfaction theory

c. Skilled trades

d. Diverse careers

Answer 120

a. The importance of self-knowledge

Question 121

Krumboltz and associates stress that each individual’s unique learning experiences during the life span develop primary influences that lead to career choice. Which statement is not listed as part of these primary influences?
a. Career-entry behavior such as applying for a job or selecting an educational or training institution
b. Expanding capabilities and interests

c. Sets of developed skills used in coping with the environment

d. Generalization of self-derived from experiences and performance in relation to learned standards

Answer 121

b. Expanding capabilities and interests

Question 122

What is the name of the theory suggesting chance events during one’s life span can have both positive and negative consequences?
a. Happenstance approach theory

b. Approach theory

c. Chance approach theory

d. Career chance theory

Answer 122

a. Happenstance approach theory

Question 123

As early as the 1940s, who was promoting the idea that career development is a process that unfolds gradually during the life span?
a. Krumboltz
b. Drucker

c. Sharf

d. Super

Answer 123

d. Super

Question 124

What is the centerpiece of Super’s approach to vocational behavior?
a. Stages and Tasks theory

b. Self-concept theory

c. Performance model theory
d. Choice model theory

Answer 124

b. Self-concept theory

Question 125

In the early 1990s, Super created a model to delineate the changing diversity of life roles experienced by individuals during the life span. What is the title of this model?
a. Lifestage model

b. Career maturity model
c. Archway model

d. Archway life model

Answer 125

c. Archway model

Question 126

Occupational aspirations is the main theme of which theorist?
a. Super

b. Krumboltz

c. Holland

d. Gottfredson

Answer 126

d. Gottfredson

Question 127

Which statement is correct with regard to constructivism?
a. Constructivists support the belief that individuals define themselves as they participate in events and relationships in their environment.
b. The psychological approach of constructivism to career development has not been influenced by the philosophical position of postmodernism.
c. Constructivists believe in fixed truth.

d. The constructivist’s viewpoint of career development relies on logical proofs supported by empirical data.

Answer 127

a. Constructivists support the belief that individuals define themselves as they participate in events and relationships in their environment.

Question 128

What key components are given in the first step toward establishing rapport and culturally appropriate relationships in the multicultural model of career counseling?
a. Isolating unique cultural variables

b. Identifying barriers

c. Goal setting as a collaborative negotiation
d. Trust and collaboration

Answer 128

d. Trust and collaboration

Question 129

A consensus of procedures in the career counseling models includes:
a. information gathering only.

b. diagnosis and decision making only.

c. assessment only.
d. information gathering, assessment, diagnosis, intervention strategies and decision making.

Answer 129

d. information gathering, assessment, diagnosis, intervention strategies and decision making.

Question 130

In order to understand how clients arrive at decisions, counselors view _________ as driving forces underlying an individual’s motivation toward certain activities and as a function of a fundamental sense of self.
a. core systems

b. core goals

c. thought processes

d. primary influences

Answer 130

b. core goals

Question 131

Super (1990) suggested that counselors may need to use a variety of helping procedures in the career counseling process and may function as:
a. teachers and trainers.

b. therapists and teachers.

c. coaches and trainers.
d. mentors, coaches and teachers.

Answer 131

d. mentors, coaches and teachers.

Question 132

In the developmental model what should clients focus on?
a. A balanced lifestyle is not a top priority in the developmental model

b. The development of all life roles for a balanced lifestyle, with an emphasis on an individual’s unique needs
c. The development of other people’s expectations

d. The restriction of career alternatives

Answer 132

b. The development of all life roles for a balanced lifestyle, with an emphasis on an individual’s unique needs

Question 133

Over time, counselors have discovered that the need for integrating career and personal concerns has been highlighted by which of the following?
a. The growing complexity of the job market

b. Globalization has been responsible for job loss in this country
c. The discovery of more psychological disorders

d. Personal problems in multiple life roles over the life span

Answer 133

d. Personal problems in multiple life roles over the life span

Question 134

What is the most effective mind-set when using a holistic approach to career counseling?
a. The concept of a narrow focus on career choice is preferable

b. The counselor needs to view the client from a total person perspective

c. It is not necessary to look at the interrelationship between career and personal problems
d. The client requires to focus on career and personal counseling separately

Answer 134

b. The counselor needs to view the client from a total person perspective

Question 135

Which of the following statements can be the most effective rationale for integrating career and personal concerns?
a. Barriers that interfere with career choice and development need to be eliminated
b. Work is a central component of one’s life and job availability is often limited

c. Career counseling is very inclusive and a lot of tests are used

d. The need for career counseling is continuous over the life span

Answer 135

a. Barriers that interfere with career choice and development need to be eliminated

Question 136

Which of the career theorists can be best identified with the statements “personal problems cannot be separated from career problems” and “belief systems and interests are interrelated in the career counseling process”?
a. Super

b. Krumboltz

c. Holland
d. Gottfredson

Answer 136

b. Krumboltz

Question 137

Which approach is recommended for career counseling in the 21st century?
a. Person-centered

b. Cognitive-behavioral
c. Holistic

d. Psychodynamic

Answer 137

c. Holistic

Question 138

What is representative of the current work situation in America?
a. There appears to be an increasing level of trust existing among workers toward their employers
b. There is stability in the job market despite the 2009 recession

c. Having a job that sustains one’s family is assured

d. Workers have lost the guarantee of a lifetime job, and job security no longer exists in many work environments

Answer 138

d. Workers have lost the guarantee of a lifetime job, and job security no longer exists in many work environments

Question 139

An inclusive type of interview focuses on:
a. dysfunctional thinking only.

b. personal concerns.
c. career concerns.

d. interrelationships of concerns and their effect on all life roles.

Answer 139

d. interrelationships of concerns and their effect on all life roles.

Question 140

Positive feelings of well-being are primarily associated with:
a. Career indecision
b. Resiliency

c. Use of testing

d. Pay scale

Answer 140

b. Resiliency

Question 141

What are the driving forces behind significant life decisions?
a. Career choices

b. One’s values and core beliefs influenced by environmental experiences and life-course events
c. Anxiety reactions

d. Social interactions

Answer 141

b. One’s values and core beliefs influenced by environmental experiences and life-course events

Question 142

The rationale for life learning is based on a continuing need to develop planning strategies to:
a. upgrade skills.

b. meet technological changes and stay abreast of the information explosion.
c. reduce the chances of becoming obsolete.
d. all of the above.

Answer 142

d. all of the above.

Question 143

Which of the following is an example of program strategies for the adult in career transition?
a. Identifying developed skills, interests and work experiences
b. Reformulated goals

c. Focusing predominantly on past events

d. Both A and B

Answer 143

d. Both A and B

Question 144

Changing work roles will require many future workers to be:

a. Interested in a wide variety of jobs

b. Dual career-oriented

c. Knowledgeable about scientific careers
d. Flexible and adaptable

Answer 144

d. Flexible and adaptable

Question 145

Self-efficacy that is experienced by workers usually results in:
a. Low self-esteem

b. Poor job performance

c. Enhanced feelings of confidence

d. Deterioration of one’s self-concept

Answer 145

c. Enhanced feelings of confidence

Question 146

What are common concrete tasks of the early career phase?
a. Addressing pitfalls and stumbling blocks

b. Salary, merit pay, regulations and policies

c. Building harmonious relationships in the work environment, becoming oriented to work rules and regulations and demonstrating satisfactory performance
d. The individual’s personal reaction to advancement opportunities and acceptance of the values associated with employer goals and peer affiliates

Answer 146

c. Building harmonious relationships in the work environment, becoming oriented to work rules and regulations and demonstrating satisfactory performance

Question 147

In late career, what is the major focus of an individual’s life?
a. A shift from a minor role to a power role
b. Activities inside the workplace

c. Activities outside the workplace

d. None of the above

Answer 147

c. Activities outside the workplace

Question 148

The self-directed worker’s key resource is predicted to be:
a. Attitude

b. Personality

c. Knowledge

d. Experience

Answer 148

c. Knowledge

Question 149

How is the midcareer or maintenance stage characterized?
a. Socialization process

b. Continual adjustment process to improving working position and situation

c. Greater self-understanding and identification within the total system of a career field
d. Both B and C

Answer 149

d. Both B and C

Question 150

Which statement pertaining to the role leisure plays within work and leisure relationships is not accurate?
a. Individuals are to recognize that quality of life is associated with all life roles

b. Quality of life is attained through a more holistic approach to human and career development
c. A quality lifestyle is one in which there is a balance between time spent at work and time devoted to leisure activities
d. Secondary to the concerns of career counselors is the balance of life roles that gives clients the freedom for self-expression to enhance their needs

Answer 150

d. Secondary to the concerns of career counselors is the balance of life roles that gives clients the freedom for self-expression to enhance their needs

Question 151

What is assessment?
Gathering of information to form a holistic view of clients.
A type of treatment approach.
Formalized testing.
Mental Health Diagnosis.

Answer 151

Gathering of information to form a holistic view of clients.

Question 152

Compared to appraisal and evaluation, assessment is considered a(n) ____________ activity.
Objective
Subjective
Complex
Important

Answer 152

Objective

Question 153

The ________________ gave parents and children (over the age of 18) access to their own records and specified topics that could and could not be assessed without parental consent, or for students over 18, student consent.
Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
Hobson v. Hansen court ruling

Answer 153

Family Education Rights and Privacy Act

Question 154

Researchers estimate that approximately ___________ of communication occurs nonverbally.
5% - 10%
20% - 30%
45% - 50%
70% - 90%

Answer 154

70% - 90%

Question 155

Danielle was thinking about how the acculturation level of her client may be affecting her presenting issues in counseling. What phase of case conceptualization is Danielle exercising?
Cultural formulation
Clinical formulation
Diagnostic formulation
Treatment formulation

Answer 155

Cultural formulation

Question 156

A counselor and his client created several treatment goals including “improve time spent engaging in enjoyable activities.” What is wrong with this goal?
It is not measurable
It is too challenging
It is not attainable
It is a process goal, not an outcome goal

Answer 156

It is not measurable

Question 157

True or False: A counselor’s assessment report can serve as a legal document.
True
False

Answer 157

True

Question 158

Which following is not one of the sections in the DSM-5?
Insurance and billing information for each of the disorders
Updates made to the current manual and how it should be used in the clinical process
Disorders that are in need of further research
Symptoms and description of disorders

Answer 158

Insurance and billing information for each of the disorders

Question 159

Which of the following is not part of the series of three interviews for determining a defendant’s sanity?
Defendant’s purpose and intent of the alleged crime
Current mental state of defendant
Historical information about defendant
Mental state of defendant at the time of the alleged crime

Answer 159

Defendant’s purpose and intent of the alleged crime

Question 160

10) _______________ is defined as a set of tools and techniques used for describing, organizing, and interpreting information.
Statistics
Graphing
Calculating
Measuring

Answer 160

Statistics

Question 161

) Variables can be defined in how many ways?
2
1
3
4

Answer 161

2

Question 162

A distribution of data has a mean of 15 and a standard deviation of 2. How many standard deviations away from the mean is a value of 13?
It is one standard deviation above the mean
It is two standard deviations above the mean
It is one standard deviation below the mean
It is two standard deviations below the mean

Answer 162

It is one standard deviation below the mean

Question 163

To determine a client’s ________, the counselor took the client’s z-score and multiplied it by 10 then added 50.
t-score
stanine
m-score
percentile

Answer 163

t-score

Question 164

What refers to random measurement error?
Unsystematic error
Reliability
Systematic error
Standardized error

Answer 164

Unsystematic error

Question 165

The values of a correlation coefficient can range between _____ and _____.
-1.00 and +1.00
0 and +100
0 and +1.00
-2.00 and +2.00

Answer 165

-1.00 and +1.00

Question 166

Which of the following not is a factor that a test administrator must consider when determining whether a test produces scores that are reliable enough?
The time it takes to complete the test
Individual characteristics of the client that is being assessed
The purpose of the test administration
Type of reliability estimate being reported

Answer 166

The time it takes to complete the test

Question 167

True or False: Reliability is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for validity.
True
False

Answer 167

True

Question 168

Why is important that a well-established construct is used when examining content validity of a measure?
It determines what is assessed and what items are included on the measure
It makes it clearer whether the measure is reliable
A content validity ratio can be conducted
Establishing a clear construct is not necessary

Answer 168

It determines what is assessed and what items are included on the measure

Question 169

What is the purpose of group differentiation when assessing for construct validity?
To determine whether a test can differentiate two different groups of people in a way predicted by theory
To determine if scores on a test are found to be uncorrelated to scores on another instrument measuring a different construct
To produce a statistical coefficient
To see if the test is different than another similar test

Answer 169

To determine whether a test can differentiate two different groups of people in a way predicted by theory

Question 170

What is a drawback to using client satisfaction surveys to assess counseling outcomes?
Surveys are often not valid
Clients are often unwilling to complete it
Clients are not capable of completing it
Counselors feel uncomfortable requesting feedback from clients

Answer 170

Surveys are often not valid

Question 171

What is the purpose of a program evaluation?
Determine significance or merit of a program
Determine what assessment measures are most effective
Determine environmental conditions that allow a program to be effective
Determine acceptability of a program

Answer 171

Determine significance or merit of a program

Question 172

For a counselor to justify conclusions of a program evaluation, he or she needs to ensure that the conclusion is linked to the:
Data collected
Clinical judgement
Initial needs assessment
Wants and needs of stakeholders

Answer 172

Data collected

Question 173

__________________establishes uniform procedures for using an assessment so that the observation, administration, equipment, materials, and scoring rules remain the same for all who are administered the test.

Answer 173

STANDARDIZATION

Question 174

Katherine, a mental health counselor, is reading the manual of a personality inventory and sought out additional review information in the Mental Measurements Yearbook. What step of the assessment process is Katherine exercising?
Before administration
During administration
After administration
Interpretation

Answer 174

Before administration

Question 175

What are important factors a counselor must consider when providing accommodations to a client during test administration?
That the accommodation does not significantly impact the score the client
That the client does not take advantage of the accommodations
That the accommodation for one client is fair for another client
That the client wants the accommodations

Answer 175

That the accommodation does not significantly impact the score the client

Question 176

Which of the following represents the “real” person?
Psychological Core
State characteristics
Typical responses
Role-related behavior

Answer 176

Psychological Core

Question 177

What type of personality assessment technique consists of observations, interviews, and case notes?
Informal
Formal
Objective
Projective

Answer 177

Informal

Question 178

Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor (16PF)?
Cattell
Carroll
Jung
Weschler

Answer 178

Cattell

Question 179

What assessment was developed to diagnose and better understand interpersonal behavior in the general population?
California Psychological Inventory
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
NEO Personality Inventory
Sixteen Personality Factor

Answer 179

California Psychological Inventory

Question 180

What construction technique consists of 10 animal pictures in social context and assesses the personality or emotional disturbance of the examinee?
Children’s Apperception Test
Word Association Test
Thematic Apperception Test
Roberts Apperception Test for Children

Answer 180

Children’s Apperception Test

Question 181

Which of the following is not one of the advantages of projective assessments, compared to self-report inventories?
Ease of administration, scoring, and interpretation
There is less risk of social desirability
Examinees have flexibility in their responses
Helps facilitate rapport with a client

Answer 181

Ease of administration, scoring, and interpretation

Question 182

The trait-and-factor theory consists of all of the following elements except:
Knowledge of educational requirements of various careers
Knowledge of one’s own attitudes, abilities, and interests
Matching knowledge of the self and jobs
Knowledge of jobs

Answer 182

Knowledge of educational requirements of various careers

Question 183

_____________ inventories measure values besides those associated with job success.
General values
Life values
Interest
Work-related values

Answer 183

General values

Question 184

________aptitude tests focus on one aspect of ability and are used to determine how well a person might perform in a particular profession or likelihood of success in a specific vocation.
Specific
Multiple
Individual
Single

Answer 184

Specific

Question 185

Whose theory served as an original theory of intelligence?
Spearman
Cattell
Gardner
Wechsler

Answer 185

Spearman

Question 186

Piaget believed that children move through the stages of cognitive development as a result of:
Interaction of biological factors and learning
Physical growth and enrichment Activities
Heredity and secondary education
Problem solving and information processing abilities

Answer 186

Interaction of biological factors and learning

Question 187

What is a unique aspect of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children – second edition, compared to other intelligence tests?
It is based on dual theoretical foundation
It has high validity and reliability
It is considered a Class B instrument
It is used as a placement examination in British primary schools

Answer 187

It is based on dual theoretical foundation

Question 188

When did the group intelligence movement begin?
During World War I
During the Great Depression
During World War II
After the enactment of the Individuals with Disability Education Act

Answer 188

During World War I

Question 189

The intensity of a behavior measures:
The magnitude of the behavior
How often the behavior occurs
How long the behavior lasts
Amount of time it takes the behavior to begin after an identified stimulus

Answer 189

The magnitude of the behavior

Question 190

______________ behavioral assessment is typically used in schools to determine whether a student exhibiting problem behaviors meets criteria for a disability.
Functional
Direct
Indirect
Clinical

Answer 190

Functional

Question 191

Observing how a client interacts with others in a group counseling session at a local mental health center is an example of what type of observation?
Analogue
Naturalistic
Covert
Overt

Answer 191

Analogue

Question 192

What behavior rating scale system consists of 5 components including structured developmental history, parent rating scale, teacher rating scale, self-report of personality, and student observation system?
BASC-2
BRP-2
CBCL 6-18
Connors

Answer 192

BASC-2

Question 193

If a state decided to adopt the Common Core Standards, what else must they adopt?
A national achievement test
School personnel and staff hiring guidelines
A curriculum that accompanies the Common Core Standards
The college version of the Common Core Standards

Answer 193

A national achievement test

Question 194

What is the most widely used comprehensive achievement battery?
Iowa Test of Basic Skills
Stanford Achievement Test
Wechsler Individual Achievement Test
TerraNova Test

Answer 194

Iowa Test of Basic Skills

Question 195

In what way are the SAT and ACT different?
The SAT is an aptitude test whereas the ACT is an achievement test
The SAT is an achievement test whereas the ACT is an aptitude test
The ACT is the preliminary test to the SAT
The SAT is administered at the secondary level whereas the ACT is administered at the postsecondary level

Answer 195

The SAT is an aptitude test whereas the ACT is an achievement test

Question 196

In terms of world view, which is component refers to reasoning?
Epistemology
Ontology
Semiotics
Axiology

Answer 196

Epistemology

Question 197

According to the textbook, even when a test is offered in a different language besides English, what is important to consider before administering the test?
Whether the translated version has been normed
Whether the client would feel comfortable taking the test
Whether the counselor has the ability to administer the test in another language
Whether a translator is available

Answer 197

Whether the translated version has been normed

Question 198

__________ speaks to the counselor’s need to treat clients fairly.
Justice
Fidelity
Equal treatment
Autonomy

Answer 198

Justice

Question 199

What is a unique inclusion found in the ACA Code of Ethics that is not found in other ethical codes of other mental health professions?
Counselors can refrain from making a diagnosis
Counselors can use their clinical judgment to break confidentiality
Counselors can administer, score, and interpret any mental health-related test or assessment
Counselors may choose to obtain or not obtain informed consent before assessment

Answer 199

Counselors can refrain from making a diagnosis

Question 200

___________ refers to the belief that counselors should not cause harm to their clients.
Nonmaleficence
Beneficence
Justice
Fidelity

Answer 200

Nonmaleficence

Question 201

The term associated with identifying differences between groups that are NOT due to chance is ______.
probability
meaningfulness
significance
statistics

Answer 201

significance

Question 202

What is the term for error that cannot be controlled?
Type I error
chance
Type II error
probability

Answer 202

chance

Question 203

There is always the possibility of error in statistics because the ______ is not directly tested.
population
sample
significance
probability

Answer 203

population

Question 204

What is the definition of the degree of risk you are willing to take that you will reject a null hypothesis when it is actually true?
Type I error
chance
Type II error
statistical significance

Answer 204

statistical significance

Question 205

When you accept the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, you are making a ______.
Type I error
Type II error
Type III error
power

Answer 205

Type II error

Question 206

Which of the following occurs when you reject the null hypothesis when it is true?
Type I error
correct decision
Type II error
power

Answer 206

Type I error

Question 207

When you accept the null hypothesis when in reality it is true you have a ______.
Type I error
correct answer
Type II error
power

Answer 207

correct answer

Question 208

You have compared the obtained value with the critical value. What do you do next?
Provide a statement of the null hypothesis.
Set the level of significance.
Compute the test statistic value.
Reject the null hypothesis if the obtained value is more extreme than the critical value.

Answer 208

Reject the null hypothesis if the obtained value is more extreme than the critical value.

Question 209

If a researcher sets the decision rule p value at .05, what is the probability of making a Type I error?
1%
5%
10%
20%

Answer 209

5%

Question 210

The one-sample Z-test is used to compare the ______ to the ______.
mean of a sample; mean of a population
mean of a population; mean of a sample
mean of a sample; mean of a second sample
mean of a population; mean of a second population

Answer 210

mean of a sample; mean of a population

Question 211

After the z value is calculated,you need to locate the ______ from a table of z scores.
obtained value
test value
calculated value
critical value

Answer 211

critical value

Question 212

What is the denominator in the equation for the z value in a one-sample Z-test?
standard error of the median
standard error of the population
standard error of the mean
standard error of the sample

Answer 212

standard error of the mean

Question 213

The standard deviation of all possible means selected from the population is the ______.
mean of the population
critical value
Type I error
standard error of the mean

Answer 213

standard error of the mean

Question 214

After conducting a one-sample Z-test, you arrived at a value of 5.7 for the z value. What is your conclusion?
Reject the null hypothesis
Accept the null hypothesis
It would depend on the statistical significance level you set.
You have miscalculated the z score

Answer 214

Reject the null hypothesis

Question 215

The numerator of the equation for the z value is ______.
the population average subtracted from the mean of the sample
. the mean of the sample subtracted from the population average
the mean of the sample minus the standard error of the mean
the standard error of the mean added to the mean of the sample

Answer 215

the population average subtracted from the mean of the sample

Question 216

The standard error of the mean is the best estimate that we can come up with given that it is impossible to compute ______.
all the possible variances
all the possible standard deviations
all the possible means
all the possible medians

Answer 216

all the possible means

Question 217

If you have a population standard deviation of 20 and a sample size of 4, what is your standard error of the mean?
-10
10
-5
5

Answer 217

10

Question 218

If you have a sample size of 4 and a population standard deviation of 12, what is your standard error of the mean?
-3
11
6
5

Answer 218

6

Question 219

Independent groups are ______.
not related in any way
related but don’t affect each other
dependent on each other
continuous

Answer 219

not related in any way

Question 220

The t test for independent means is used when looking at the difference in average scores of one or more variables between ______ group(s) that are ______ one another.
two; dependent on
two; independent of
one; dependent on
one; independent of

Answer 220

two; independent of

Question 221

The t test for independent means is used when each group is tested ______.
once or twice
twice
only once
any number of times

Answer 221

only once

Question 222

The t test for independent means is used when you are testing how many groups?
two groups
one group
two or more groups
four groups

Answer 222

two groups

Question 223

To examine the difference among the average scores of three unrelated groups, which of the following statistical techniques should be selected?
regression
t test of dependent samples
t test of independent samples
analysis of variance

Answer 223

analysis of variance

Question 224

In the formula that computes a t value, what does n1 represent?
scored for group 1
means for group 1
total number of participants
number of participants in group 1

Answer 224

number of participants in group 1

Question 225

When examining group difference where the direction of the difference is specified, which of the following is used?
two-tailed test
one-tailed test
nondirectional test
critical values

Answer 225

one-tailed test

Question 226

Which statistical technique is used to examine one group of subjects under two different conditions?
regression
dependent-samples t test
analysis of variance
independent samples t test

Answer 226

dependent-samples t test

Question 227

The t test for dependent means is used when you have ______.
two groups
three groups
one group
more than two groups

Answer 227

one group

Question 228

The t test for dependent means is used when your sample is tested ______.
one time
one or more times
two times
two or more times

Answer 228

two times

Question 229

In a t test for dependent samples that examines the difference between a pretest and posttest, what type of hypothesis is used?
directional
nondirectional
null hypothesis
experimental

Answer 229

directional

Question 230

To be 99% confident you have not committed a Type I error, at what level should the p value be set?
.10
.50
.05
.01

Answer 230

.01

Question 231

To compute the test statistic or t value, what must first be calculated to approximate the sample size?
pooled variance
standard deviation
mean score
degrees of freedom

Answer 231

degrees of freedom

Question 232

What is the formula used to calculate degrees of freedom for a t test for dependent groups?
n-1
n1 + n2 - 1
n1 - 1 + n2
n1 + n2

Answer 232

n-1

Question 233

Who is the creator of the F statistic?
Pearson Fisher
Karl Pearson
R. A. Fisher
R.A. Pearson

Answer 233

R. A. Fisher

Question 234

A simple analysis of variance is used to study participants who are tested ______.
only once
twice
more than twice
as many times as you like

Answer 234

only once

Question 235

The ANOVA can be used to test the differences ______.
Between two groups
Between more than two groups
In one group only
among three groups only

Answer 235

Between more than two groups

Question 236

A simple analysis of variance includes how many factor(s) or treatment variables in the analysis?
one or more
two
three or more
one

Answer 236

one

Question 237

What is a simple analysis of variance also called?
two-way ANOVA
factorial ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
no-way ANOVA

Answer 237

one-way ANOVA

Question 238

A factorial ANOVA includes ______ independent variable(s).
one
two
more than two
more than one

Answer 238

more than one

Question 239

Which of the following would be an example of a design that examines the effects of region of residence (e.g., Northeast, South, Midwest, and West) and income (i.e., low, medium, and high)?
simple ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
4 × 3 ANOVA
3 × 3 ANOVA

Answer 239

4 × 3 ANOVA

Question 240

If you wanted to examine whether the degree of parental involvement differs based on students’ grade in school (i.e., first, second, third, etc.), what is the dependent variable of interest?
grade level
students
parents
degree of parent involvement

Answer 240

degree of parent involvement

Question 241

When examining the impact of more than one independent variable on the outcome variable, what type of ANOVA should be used?
factorial ANOVA
multivariate ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
simple ANOVA

Answer 241

factorial ANOVA

Question 242

When analysis of data reveals a difference between levels of a factor, what is this called?
interaction effect
factor effect
level effect
main effect

Answer 242

main effect

Question 243

The factorial ANOVA is used when you have ______.
one independent variable
two dependent variables
more than one independent variables
two or more dependent variables

Answer 243

more than one independent variables

Question 244

In ANOVA, you have an interaction effect when ______.
the effect of one independent variable differs based on the level of a second independent variable
the effect of one dependent variable differs based on the level of a second dependent variable
the effect of one dependent variable differs based on the level of a second independent variable
the effect of one independent variable differs based on the level of a second dependent variable

Answer 244

the effect of one independent variable differs based on the level of a second independent variable

Question 245

The number of main effects is equal to the number of ______.
dependent variables
independent variables
Independent variables plus the number of interaction effects
dependent variables minus the number of interaction effects

Answer 245

independent variables

Question 246

If you find that income significantly varies by gender, you have ______.
a main effect
an interaction effect
both a main and an interaction effect
no effect

Answer 246

a main effect

Question 247

The correlation coefficient measures ______.
mean differences
causation
prediction
association

Answer 247

association

Question 248

What do correlation coefficients examine?
differences between two groups
. differences between two or more groups
the relationship between variables
how variables can be arranged into higher-order factors

Answer 248

the relationship between variables

Question 249

Correlation coefficients can test ______ variable(s) at a time.
only one
only two
more than one
more than two

Answer 249

only two

Question 250

What is another term for a positive correlation?
indirect correlation
nondirectional correlation
direct correlation
unidirectional correlation

Answer 250

direct correlation

Question 251

What can be used as the basis for prediction?
t test
correlation
F test
Cohen’s D

Answer 251

correlation

Question 252

Which of the following is used to illustrate the best guess as to the predicted Y variable score based on X?
regression equation
scatter plot
predictable lines
regression line

Answer 252

regression line

Question 253

In a scatter plot, if all data points were aligned along a 45° angle, the correlation would be ______.
medium strength
weak
perfect
zero

Answer 253

perfect

Question 254

When adding additional predictors to a regression analysis, you should try to find predictors that are related to ______ but not ______.
the independent variable; the dependent variables
the dependent variable; the independent variables
the predictors; the outcome
all main effects; any interaction effect

Answer 254

the dependent variable; the independent variables

Question 255

A regression line is also called the ______.
scatter plot line
line of best fit
line graph
line of the estimate

Answer 255

line of best fit