Year 1 Flashcards
1
Q
According to research, which parenting style best predicts positive child characteristics including the development of prosocial behaviors?
a) Permissive
b) Authoritarian
c) Authoritative
d) Neglecting-Uninvolved
A
C) Authoritative
2
Q
- What are the indicators of a securely attached infant?
a) The infant is quite distressed when separated from the mother.
b) The infant fails to cry when separated from the mother.
c) The infant shows distress when separate but happily greets when reunited.
d) The infant shows no distress when toys are present.
A
c) The infant shows distress when separate but happily greets when reunited.
3
Q
In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, this concept refers to a process of changing existing schemes in order to account for novel elements in an object or an event.
a) Accommodation
b) Articulation
c) Assimilation
d) Empathy
A
a) Accommodation
4
Q
The process by which people develop specific, positive emotional bonds with others, most notably between an infant and their primary caregiver, is otherwise known as:
a) attachment.
b) respect.
c) assimilation.
d) agency.
A
a) attachment.
5
Q
According to Erik Erikson, children between the ages of 6 and 12 are most likely to acquire a sense of ____________ before reaching early adolescence.
a) Initiative
b) Fidelity
c) Industry
d) Identity
A
c) Industry
6
Q
The ability to consider a situation from a point of view other than one’s own is known as:
a) emphatic response.
b) perspective-taking.
c) caring.
d) optimism.
A
b) perspective-taking.
7
Q
Vygotsky proposed that optimal development exists within a learning context, defined as the difference between what a learner can do without help and what he or she cannot do. Vygotsky referred to this difference as:
a) metacognition.
b) scaffolding.
c) the zone of proximal development, or ZPD.
d) repetition.
A
c) the zone of proximal development, or ZPD.
8
Q
According to Bronfenbrenner, the system which recognizes the interrelation between settings, or the “linkages and processes taking place between two or more settings containing the developing person” is the:
a) exosystem.
b) macrosystem.
c) mesosystem.
d) microsystem.
A
c) mesosystem.
9
Q
In Bronfenbrenner’s model, the most complex system, which consists of customs, values, and laws in a given individual’s culture is the:
a) exosystem.
b) macrosystem.
c) mesosystem.
d) microsystem.
A
b) macrosystem.
10
Q
Piaget asserts that normal cognitive growth passes through the following four stages:
a) infancy, toddler, child, adult.
b) infancy, early childhood, assimilation, accommodation.
c) birth, childhood, adolescence, adult.
d) infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, adolescence.
A
d) infancy, early childhood, middle childhood, adolescence.
11
Q
According to Vygotsky, a child’s mental abilities develop as a result of participation in collaborative activities with more skilled peers or adults. Consequently, it is the social interaction and that provide the foundation for cognitive development. (This one was weird, dunno if you have the updated one)
a) cultural context
b) family environment
c) quality of care giving
d) macrosystem
A
a) cultural context
12
Q
For counselors, it is helpful to view an individual’s developing self and lived experiences from a _______________ perspective.
a) cultural
b) systemic
c) linear
d) causal
A
b) systemic
13
Q
The ability of an organism to change in response to positive and negative environmental experience is defined as:
a) mutual selection
b) developmental niche
c) plasticity
d) maturation
A
c) plasticity
14
Q
Counselors apply multidimensional models most explicitly in their work with clients when they:
a) recognize the primary importance of genetic influences on behavior.
b) consider levels of influence on the individual and select interventions that are targeted to more than one level.
c) pay close attention to the stage of development that characterizes the client.
d) understand that client’s developmental tasks must be met in each stage of development.
A
b) consider levels of influence on the individual and select interventions that are targeted to more than one level.
15
Q
The brain is commonly classified into three main parts. They are:
a) midbrain, pons, and cerebellum.
b) forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
c) midbrain, forebrain and cerebral cortex.
d) cerebellum, medulla and limbic system
A
b) forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
16
Q
Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to Piaget’s theory?
a) Piaget firmly believed that children who were at a particular stage of cognitive development had the same level of understanding in all areas, such as understanding causality, morality, agency, etc.
b) Piaget believed that children’s progress through the stages could vary. For example, very intelligent children could skip a stage.
c) Piaget believed in the dynamic quality of stages and understood that children in the same stage could vary greatly in their specific understanding of causality, morality, and so forth.
d) Piaget believed that children could vary in their understanding of morality but that their understanding of causality was the same for all children within a particular stage.
A
c) Piaget believed in the dynamic quality of stages and understood that children in the same stage could vary greatly in their specific understanding of causality, morality, and so forth.
17
Q
Which of the following is the best example of the concept of a zone of proximal development?
a) Sherri works on her algebra homework for two hours without being able to answer a single question correctly.
b) Jeff makes a note of the homework assignment for his last period class and completes it while riding home on the school bus.
c) Cindy explains to her younger sister how to solve a problem in math by organizing the information in a new way. Her younger sister can then complete her homework.
d) A mother shows her 8-month-old infant flashcards of words in different languages while she repeats each word on the card.
A
c) Cindy explains to her younger sister how to solve a problem in math by organizing the information in a new way. Her younger sister can then complete her homework.
18
Q
Contemporary developmentalists focus on which question concerning nature and nurture?
a) Is nature the most important determinant of developmental change?
b) Is nurture the most important determinant of developmental change?
c) How do we explain the mechanisms by which nature and nurture interact to affect development?
d) Why is nurture most influential at certain developmental periods?
A
c) How do we explain the mechanisms by which nature and nurture interact to affect development?
19
Q
When environmental factors influence how hereditary material functions, this set of processes (involved in controlling genetic expression) is called:
a) epigenesis.
b) translation.
c) transcription.
d) mitosis.
A
a) epigenesis.
20
Q
An important attachment and bonding consideration for counselors and helpers to include when working with parents of infants is the infant’s:
a) temperament.
b) weight.
c) appetite.
d) gender.
A
a) temperament.
21
Q
According to recent views, the “Me” includes the material self, social self, and spiritual self. These aspects of self are defined by which term?
a) Self-concept
b) Self-esteem
c) Self-advocacy
d) Self-efficacy
A
a) Self-concept
22
Q
Piaget believed that the process of decentering and holding more than one piece of information at a time helps children become:
a) less egocentric.
b) more egocentric.
c) less socially engaged.
d) more critically independent on interactions with peers.
A
a) less egocentric.
23
Q
Broderick and Blewitt (2018) define Social Cognition as:
a) the ways that people feel about their relationships and the people in their lives.
b) the ways people think about people and how they reason about social relationships.
c) how we act, react, and respond to people and social relationships.
d) how we think about our self-concept and identity.
A
b) the ways people think about people and how they reason about social relationships.
24
Q
Children’s repeated interactions with others enhance their ability to decenter and to interpret others’ thoughts, feelings, and desires. This ability to consider another’s point of view is called what?
a) A script
b) Rehearsal
c) Metacognition
d) Perspective taking
A
d) Perspective taking
25
Which of the following is NOT a Friendship Skill according to Selman's framework of friendship?
a) Appropriate assertiveness
b) Good communication
c) Expecting friends to meet one's needs
d) Conflict resolution that maintain and enhance friendships
c) Expecting friends to meet one's needs
26
Which of the following factors compromises the efficiency of executive functioning (EF), which can influence a child's ability to learn and achieve?
a) Stress
b) Lack of sleep
c) Boredom
d) Poor health
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
27
An important component of metacognition is the ability to:
a) make friends.
b) think about what other people are thinking.
c) master science and math.
d) think about one's thinking.
d) think about one's thinking.
28
Teaching children how to use the skill of "self-talk" can help reveal which of the following?
a) How the child is understanding a situation or circumstance.
b) How the child is solving the problem.
c) How the child's thinking is influencing how they feel and act.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
29
Which of the following domain is NOT included in the overall structure of the general self-concept in middle childhood?
a) Nonacademic self-concept
b) Academic English self-concept
c) Job competence self-concept
d) Academic math self-concept
c) Job competence self-concept
30
Observing the performance of others and using it as a basis for evaluating our own abilities and accomplishments is referred to as:
a) self-evaluation.
b) social appraisal.
c) social comparison.
d) self-ehancing bias.
c) social comparison.
31
ased on the model of the structure of self-concept by Marsh and Shavelson, the non-academic self is divided into three areas: social, emotional, and:
a) relational.
b) spiritual.
c) intellectual.
d) physical.
d) physical.
32
Perhaps the most important clinical consideration supported by current research in the field of middle childhood/early adolescence peer relationships is the need to direct interventions toward which of the following?
a) The family system
b) One single compelling target
c) Multiple targets
d) The school system
c) Multiple targets
33
33. Which of the following are important influences in the development of moral reasoning skills in middle childhood?
a) Peer interactions
b) Following the rules
c) Perspective taking
d) a. and c.
d) a. and c.
34
When two participants, such as a teacher and a student, begin a task with different understanding and through their shared inter-mental space eventually arrive at a shared understanding, they are engaged in the process of:
a) intersubjectivity.
b) scaffolding.
c) mediated learning.
d) zone of proximal development.
a) intersubjectivity.
35
Which of the following hormones is synthesized in the hypothalamus, released by the pituitary glands, and plays a role in affiliative behaviors such as social cooperation, empathy, forgiveness, sexual and reproductive activities, and reducing stress?
a) Leptin
b) Oxytocin
c) Insulin
d) Ghrelin
b) Oxytocin
36
Patterns of behaviors that are repeated across family generations, such as abuse, trauma, rejection, and maltreatment describe the phenomenon of:
a) homeostasis.
b) systemic transmission.
c) intergenerational transmission.
d) generational cycling.
c) intergenerational transmission.
37
Which of the following is a cornerstone of emotional well-being and positive adjustment?
Group of answer choices
a) Moral development
b) Resilience
c) Attachment style
d) Emotional regulation
d) Emotional regulation
38
The capacity for emotional response to wrongdoing is an important first step in which of the following?
a) Moral development
b) Ethical reasoning
c) Conscious discipline
d) Perspective taking
a) Moral development
39
Which of the following parent skills are important influences on the health of their relationships with their children?
a) Presence
b) Warmth
c) Listening
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
40
Having high expectations for people and believing that intelligence and performance can be nurtured and modified is reflective of which type of mindset?
a) Ability
b) Growth
c) Fixed
d) Fluid
b) Growth
41
Being unable to see or understand things from a different perspective is referred to as:
A: imbalance.
B: resistance.
C: disagreeing.
D: egocentrism.
D: egocentrism.
42
When clinicians assess a client’s presenting problem(s) in order to plan for treatment, which of the following approaches to diagnosis reflects a developmental viewpoint?
A: Consider those issues in a client’s life that result from multifinality.
B: Count the number of symptoms currently manifested in order to reach a specific diagnosis.
C: Assess the person’s level of symptomatology on a checklist and assign a diagnosis only when a certain percentile has been reached.
D: Assess the nature of the problem by considering the person’s unique history, interpersonal context, and challenges in the extrapersonal environment.
D: Assess the nature of the problem by considering the person’s unique history, interpersonal context, and challenges in the extrapersonal environment
43
Which of the following therapeutic approaches is designed to help children develop their perspective taking and friendship skills?
A: Cognitive therapy.
B: Self-monitoring approach.
C: Pair therapy.
D: Immersion therapy.
C: Pair therapy.
44
One factor that promotes self-esteem among minority group members is:
A: a strong and positive racial or ethnic identity.
B: being a member of a smaller, rather than a larger, social group.
C: making social comparisons to members of other cultural groups.
D: increased use of reflected appraisals in constructions of self.
A: a strong and positive racial or ethnic identity.
45
Which of the following is a temperamental characteristic that is associated with prosocial behavior?
A: Low social anxiety.
B: Popularity among peers.
C: Coherent self-concept.
D: Intelligence.
A: Low social anxiety.
46
Morality is an important domain of self-concept that involves the capacity to distinguish right from wrong and the capacity to choose to do right. The elements of morality include all of the following EXCEPT:
A: sociability.
B: emotions.
C: behaviors.
D: cognitions.
A: sociability.
47
One aspect of prosocial behavior is defined as follows: a child exhibits “feeling with” another person, recognizing the emotional need of the other, and experiencing what the other is assumed to be feeling. This definition specifically applies to which of the following?
A: Altruism
B: Sympathy
C: Empathy
D: Self-sacrifice
C: Empathy
48
Which of the following characteristics is most closely linked to children who exhibit prosocial or helping behaviors?
A: High social anxiety
B: Low social anxiety
C: Hedonistic perspective
D: Low needs-orientated reasoning
B: Low social anxiety
49
People are generally motivated to evaluate themselves favorably in relation to others. Researchers refer to this tendency as which of the following?
A: Self-comparison bias
B: Positive appraisal
C: Social comparison
D: Self-enhancing bias
D: Self-enhancing bias
50
Counselors working with school-age children and adolescents need to recognize that gender identity continues to develop in these years. Among the important findings from recent research is that girls tend to feel:
A: more content with their gender than boys.
B: more pressure to conform to gender stereotypes than boys.
C: less content with their gender than boys.
D: the same degree of pressure to conform to gender stereotypes as boys.
C: less content with their gender than boys.
51
1) The group leadership skill of active listening includes all the following except:
sensing underlying messages.
the ability to formulate your next response while listening.
noting gestures and changes in expression.
being sensitive to discrepancies between a member’s words and body language.
the ability to formulate your next response while listening.
52
The group leadership skill of clarification does not involve which of the following?
Focusing on key apparent issues.
Sorting out confused and conflicting feelings.
Asking open-ended questions in order to understand what a group member is saying
A tool that can be valuable in the initial stages of an en-counter.
Focusing on key apparent issues.
53
The group leadership skill of summarizing is useful during all of the following except:
when the group process gets bogged down.
in arriving at a decision on where to go next.
at the end of a session.
at the beginning of a session.
at the beginning of a session.
54
Which of the following is not how a group leader might use of the skill of facilitating?
working to create a climate of safety and acceptance
helping members express their fears and expectations
involving as few members as possible in the group interaction
providing encouragement and support as members explore highly personal material or as they try new behavior
involving as few members as possible in the group interaction
55
5) Group leaders who use the skill of empathizing appropriately have a wide range of experiences that:
help them identify with others.
enable them to know fully what another person is experiencing.
enable them to completely identify with group members by temporarily abandoning their separateness from them.
enable them to overlook confusing nonverbal messages.
help them identify with others.
56
The group leadership skill of interpreting involves all of the following except:
offering possible explanations for certain behaviors or symptoms.
helping a member move beyond an impasse.
discouraging members from making their own interpretations.
presenting an interpretation in the form of a hypothesis or hunch.
discouraging members from making their own interpretations.
57
7) Which of the following examples is not an appropriate use of the skill of questioning?
"Why don't you leave the relationship?"
"How do you experience the fear of rejection is this group?"
"How is avoiding confrontation working for you here in this group?"
"What do you fear might happen if you took the risk to be vulnerable here?"
"Why don't you leave the relationship?"
58
The use of support as a leadership skill is inappropriate:
when a member is venturing into frightening territory.
when a member is engaging in new behavior in a group.
when a member asks for support.
before a member has had the opportunity to fully experience a conflict or painful feelings.
before a member has had the opportunity to fully experience a conflict or painful feelings.
59
The group leadership skill of blocking should not be used when group members:
bombard others with questions.
begin to cry.
break confidences.
invade privacy.
begin to cry.
60
Which of the following would not be considered one of a group member’s rights?
protection from verbal or physical assaults
complete confidentiality
knowing the leader’s qualifications
help from the group leader in developing personal goals
complete confidentiality
61
11) To avoid inadvertent breeches of confidentiality, group leaders should:
provide members with ways to talk about their experiences without identifying
other group members.
establish and strictly enforce a zero-tolerance policy for those who violate confidentiality by dismissing them from the group.
punish violaters of confidentiality with the silent treatment.
require members who breech confidentiality to pay a steep fine.
provide members with ways to talk about their experiences without identifying
other group members.
62
Confidentiality in groups is:
a legal right of every member.
something that members can be guaranteed.
something that members cannot be guaranteed.
an absolute that can never be broken for any reason.
something that members cannot be guaranteed.
63
13) The therapeutic factor in groups that involves actively doing what is necessary for change is _______________.
acceptance
power
Intimacy
willingness to risk and trust
willingness to risk and trust
64
The therapeutic factor in groups that involves the sense that one has the internal resources necessary to direct one’s life is
freedom to experiment
intimacy
empathy
power
power
65
Using a theoretical framework to guide your practice as a group leader is important for all of the following reasons except:
it tells you exactly what to do in every session.
it helps to define both your role and the members’ roles in a group.
it provides a frame of reference for understanding and evaluating the world of the client.
it helps you to select appropriate techniques in meeting the goals of the members.
it tells you exactly what to do in every session.
66
16) In order to practice in a multiculturally competent manner, leaders who have adopted any of the major theoretical orientations should do all of the following except:
consider all dimensions of a member’s identity including age, gender, sexual orientation, ability, and religious affiliation
introduce exercises in an invitational and optional manner
validate and understand members experiences with racism, discrimination, and oppression before challenging them to respond differently
only consider a member’s age and gender
only consider a member’s age and gender
67
17) Which of the therapeutic approaches below does not stress the role of thinking and doing and is not action-oriented?
cognitive therapy
behavior therapy
Gestalt therapy
reality therapy
Gestalt therapy
68
The _________________ approach views people as being significantly influenced by unconscious motivation and early childhood experiences.
psychoanalytic
person-centered
existential
Adlerian
psychoanalytic
69
A key goal of an Adlerian group is:
increasing insight into one’s irrational behaviors and unconscious dynamics.
fostering social interest, or facilitating a sense of connectedness with others.
changing self-defeating thinking.
creating new conditions for learning.
fostering social interest, or facilitating a sense of connectedness with others.
70
The overall goal of choice theory/reality therapy is to help people find better ways to meet their needs for:
self-esteem and self-control.
survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun.
social interest.
psychosocial development.
survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun.
71
Which of the following is the best procedure to follow when informing a person that they have not been accepted as a member in your group?
Have all applicants meet and then read the names of those selected.
Discuss the reasons for this decision with the particular person, taking care to be honest and sensitive, and providing them with an appropriate referral.
Inform them of your decision by means of a letter.
Have your administrative assistant call them
Discuss the reasons for this decision with the particular person, taking care to be honest and sensitive, and providing them with an appropriate referral.
72
22) When a leader is experiencing strong feelings about what he or she perceives to be resistance, a powerful intervention is to:
Pay primary attention to the problem in the group.
Pay primary attention to particular group members.
Deal with his or her own feelings.
Allow the feelings to dissipate on their own.
Deal with his or her own feelings.
73
Which of the following is not true concerning desirable size for a group?
It depends on the age of the clients and the type of group.
It depends on the leader’s experience and the type of problems to be explored.
A group for elementary school children should consist of at least eight to ten members.
A group for adolescents should consist of six to eight members.
A group for elementary school children should consist of at least eight to ten members.
74
Which of the following is not considered an advantage of a therapeutic group over other intervention strategies?
Group members can learn effective social skills.
The group setting offers support for new behavior.
Groups are suited for everyone.
Participants can explore their style of relating to others.
Groups are suited for everyone.
75
If the goal of a group is the simulation of everyday life, then it is a good idea to have:
a homogeneous group.
a heterogeneous group.
an endogenous group.
an androgynous group.
a heterogeneous group.
76
During a group’s initial phase, members can build trust best by:
waiting until someone takes the first risk and then open-ing up.
revealing their lack of trust.
relying on “trust exercises” initiated by the leader (e.g., falling backward and trusting others to catch you).
sharing superficial details about themselves.
revealing their lack of trust.
77
Which of the following statements is not true as it applies to resistance during the initial stage?
Resistance is generally not common during the initial stage of a group, since members are quite willing to get personally involved quickly.
Cultural factors may influence clients’ readiness to participate in a group.
Some initial resistance is to be expected in the early stage, even if people are eager to join in.
Because resistance often arises from fearful expectations, identifying and discussing these fears will benefit the whole group.
Resistance is generally not common during the initial stage of a group, since members are quite willing to get personally involved quickly.
78
Reluctance to speak out may function as:
establishment of norms which is necessary for development of group cohesion.
development as a result of preconceived ideas about what takes place in a group.
an implicit norm that may develop as a result of leader modeling.
a healthy boundary rather than being an expression of resistance.
a healthy boundary rather than being an expression of resistance.
79
29) Resistance in a group can be seen as:
not normal.
something that should be avoided at all costs.
a bad attitude on the part of the member.
potential material for productive exploration.
potential material for productive exploration.
80
During the initial stage, interventions are aimed at providing __________.
conflict
management
challenges
encouragement
encouragement
81
An example of a norm that is unlikely to be fostered in groups is that members are:
encouraged to confront each other in an uncaring or tactless manner.
encouraged to be personal and share meaningful aspects of themselves.
encouraged to give feedback to one another.
encouraged to focus on and express feelings.
encouraged to confront each other in an uncaring or tactless manner.
82
Leaders and members demonstrate a lack of attention when they:
ask open-ended questions.
are thinking about what to say next.
listen intently.
strive to be present.
are thinking about what to say next.
83
33) During the transition stage, anxiety is all of the following except:
High.
The result of external factors.
The result of internal factors.
Low.
Low.
84
34) Which of the following fears are not common in the transition stage?
Fear of rejection.
Fear of self-disclosure.
Fear of being misunderstood.
Fear of being supported.
Fear of being supported.
85
Which of the following statements about conflict is false?
It is to be avoided at all costs.
It often carries a negative connotation.
It is inevitable in all relationships and groups.
Unexplored conflict is expressed in defensive behavior.
It is to be avoided at all costs.
86
36) When a member is consistently silent during group sessions, it is best to:
Consistently call on that person.
Invite the individual to explore what his or her silence means.
Avoid attacking the person for his or her silence.
Dismiss him/her from the group.
Avoid attacking the person for his or her silence.
87
37) A member who monopolizes group time is all of the following except:
exhibiting a high degree of self-centeredness.
continually identifying with others.
sometimes welcomed in the early stages of a group’s progress.
silent.
silent
88
38) The problem behavior of storytelling:
involves relating a detailed history of one’s past.
involves talking about others’ lives in very little detail.
should never be allowed.
is one kind of appropriate self-disclosure.
involves relating a detailed history of one’s past.
89
The problem behavior of advice giving involves:
offering a perception.
offering an opinion.
telling people what they should feel and do.
listening without responding.
telling people what they should feel and do.
90
Which of the following is not usually a characteristic of the working stage?
Group cohesion.
Universality.
Relatively few interpersonal conflicts and struggles.
Less dependence on the leader for direction.
Relatively few interpersonal conflicts and struggles.
91
41) All of the following are characteristics of the working stage except:
members are encouraged to become more like each other in order to develop group cohesion.
group members use each other as a resource.
group norms are developed cooperatively by members and leader.
there is an emphasis on combining the feeling and thinking functions.
members are encouraged to become more like each other in order to develop group cohesion.
92
Which of the following is not typically a co-leadership issue at the working stage?
Discussion of techniques.
Bringing closure to the group’s experience.
Evaluation of the group.
Theoretical orientations.
Bringing closure to the group’s experience.
93
43) Which of the following statements is not true regarding feedback?
Positive feedback is rated as more desirable than negative feedback.
Specific here-and-now feedback that pertains to behavior in the group is especially useful.
Leaders should model effective delivery of feedback and encourage members to engage in thoughtful feedback exchange.
Negative feedback seems more credible and helpful in the early phases of a group.
Negative feedback seems more credible and helpful in the early phases of a group.
94
44) One of the most important ways learning and self-discovery takes place in a group is through a combination of member:
confrontation and storytelling.
self-disclosure and feedback.
connecting and processing.
exploring and engaging.
self-disclosure and feedback.
95
45) Effective feedback is an important component of which stage of group development?
Transition.
Initial.
Working.
Final.
Working
96
46) Feedback is most useful when it is:
vague and general.
long and qualified or explained at length.
short and succinct.
clear and concise.
Clear and concise
97
47) Which of the following is an example of global feedback that is of little use to group members?
“You are a super person and very easy to like.”
“I like your ability to be direct and honest in giving feedback.”
“My fear for you is that you will judge yourself more harshly than others.”
“Remember that people felt more connected to you when you stopped being sarcastic.”
“You are a super person and very easy to like.”
98
48) In regards to teaching members how to give and receive feedback, group leaders are encouraged to:
model effective delivery of feedback.
encourage members to engage in thoughtful feedback exchanges.
read about and reflect on how to give and receive feedback.
a. and b.
a. and b.
99
49) The major task of the final stage in a group’s development is:
development of trust.
development of group cohesion.
achieving intimacy.
consolidation of learning.
consolidation of learning.
100
50) During the closing of a group, a task for the leader is to help members who are leaving identify how they can:
incorporate what was meaningful in the group into their daily life.
use what they learned against family and friends.
forget what was helpful about the group.
go about every day without using what they learned in the group.
incorporate what was meaningful in the group into their daily life.
101
Who was considered the leading figure, or “father,” of the career counseling movement?
a. Super
b. Parsons
c. Roe
d. Holland
b. Parsons
102
The terms “career life” or “life/career” illuminate the:
a. role of work only.
b. separation between work and life.
c. interconnection between all life roles.
d. necessity to choose one career path for your life
c. interconnection between all life roles.
103
Parson’s outstanding contribution to the career counseling movement was his:
a. Conceptual framework for helping an individual select a career
b. Speech at the first national conference on vocational guidance
c. Method of measuring aptitudes for immigrants
d. Research on career development of children
a. Conceptual framework for helping an individual select a career
104
Which of the following occurred during World War I?
a. The Great Depression and job loss
b. Writing of the first developmental theories
c. The women’s movement
d. Measurement movement
d. Measurement movement
105
Which of the following is indicative of Stage 1 of career counseling (1890–1919)?
a. The growth of educational guidance in elementary and secondary schools
b. Organizational career development and the nature of work viewed as pervasive life roles
c. Time of significant growth of guidance needs in colleges and universities and in the training of counselors
d. The growth of placement services in urban areas to meet needs of growing industrial organizations
d. The growth of placement services in urban areas to meet needs of growing industrial organizations
106
On what principle was career counseling founded?
a. The role of the group
b. Individual differences and strengths
c. Group compatibility
d. Individual likenesses
b. Individual differences and strengths
107
Current practice places a strong emphasis between _____ and _____.
a. career development; mental health
b. mental health; client-counselor concerns
c. career development; performance
d. personal development; mental health
a. career development; mental health
108
Donald Super’s model highlights:
a. it is superfluous to consider the interrelationships of all life roles.
b. success in one role does not facilitate success in another.
c. people are only involved in one life role.
d. success in one role facilitates success in another.
d. success in one role facilitates success in another.
109
There appears to be solid evidence that workers in the 21st century should adopt:
a. The one career choice approach
b. Behavioral approaches
c. Person-in-environment approaches
d. A lifelong learning approach
d. A lifelong learning approach
110
The current time (1990 to present), Stage 6, is viewed as:
a. a time of changing demographics and continued development of technology.
b. a focus on school-to-work transitions.
c. the beginning of multicultural counseling.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
111
What does Zunker (2008) present as the next challenge in the role of career counseling?
a. The combination of values and lifestyle preferences
b. Career and travel
c. The need to integrate career and personal concerns in the practice of career development
d. The global economy
c. The need to integrate career and personal concerns in the practice of career development
112
An effective counselor maintains that:
a. a client fits into a stereotypical role.
b. society is culturally homogenous.
c. it is not necessary to consider the background of the client.
d. each client is a unique individual.
d. each client is a unique individual.
113
The rise of _______ in the 1800s led to a dramatically changed work environment, resulting in the need to address working conditions of urban life.
a. the reformation
b. deindustrialization
c. socialism
d. industrialism
d. industrialism
114
The career development theory that includes genetic endowments, special abilities, environmental conditions, and events is by the following author:
a. Holland
b. Super
c. Krumboltz
d. Pope
c. Krumboltz
115
PEC theory emphasizes that:
a. Job satisfaction is completely related to family compatibility
b. Job satisfaction is completely determined by wages
c. Job satisfaction is related to work reinforcers
d. Job satisfaction is primarily the responsibility of the manager
c. Job satisfaction is related to work reinforcers
116
A major tenet of Super’s theory is that the career pattern one follows through life:
a. Is primarily influenced by one’s vocational orientation
b. Is an expression of career maturity
c. Represents verification of one’s personal modal style
d. Results from expression of one’s vocational self-concept
d. Results from expression of one’s vocational self-concept
117
The assumption that individuals have unique patterns of ability that can be measured and matched with jobs is a key concept of:
a. Trait-and-factor theory
b. Developmental theory
c. Self-concept theory
d. Construct theory
a. Trait-and-factor theory
118
The choice model of the Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) is divided into three components as follows:
a. Define personal values, establish goals, take actions
b. Develop individual learning plan, execute plan, evaluate plan
c. Define goals, initiate action, success is determined by future behavior
d. Define personal values, develop interventions, execute plan
c. Define goals, initiate action, success is determined by future behavior
119
According to the Cognitive Information Processing (CIP) theory, the major strategy of career interventions is to:
a. Provide interventions to identify personality dimensions
b. Provide interventions that improves one’s self-concept
c. Provide learning interventions to enhance one’s information processing ability
d. Provide interventions to understand the influence of life course events
c. Provide learning interventions to enhance one’s information processing ability
120
What did John Holland (1992) stress as being important in the search for vocational satisfaction and stability?
a. The importance of self-knowledge
b. Satisfaction theory
c. Skilled trades
d. Diverse careers
a. The importance of self-knowledge
121
Krumboltz and associates stress that each individual’s unique learning experiences during the life span develop primary influences that lead to career choice. Which statement is not listed as part of these primary influences?
a. Career-entry behavior such as applying for a job or selecting an educational or training institution
b. Expanding capabilities and interests
c. Sets of developed skills used in coping with the environment
d. Generalization of self-derived from experiences and performance in relation to learned standards
b. Expanding capabilities and interests
122
What is the name of the theory suggesting chance events during one’s life span can have both positive and negative consequences?
a. Happenstance approach theory
b. Approach theory
c. Chance approach theory
d. Career chance theory
a. Happenstance approach theory
123
As early as the 1940s, who was promoting the idea that career development is a process that unfolds gradually during the life span?
a. Krumboltz
b. Drucker
c. Sharf
d. Super
d. Super
124
What is the centerpiece of Super’s approach to vocational behavior?
a. Stages and Tasks theory
b. Self-concept theory
c. Performance model theory
d. Choice model theory
b. Self-concept theory
125
In the early 1990s, Super created a model to delineate the changing diversity of life roles experienced by individuals during the life span. What is the title of this model?
a. Lifestage model
b. Career maturity model
c. Archway model
d. Archway life model
c. Archway model
126
Occupational aspirations is the main theme of which theorist?
a. Super
b. Krumboltz
c. Holland
d. Gottfredson
d. Gottfredson
127
Which statement is correct with regard to constructivism?
a. Constructivists support the belief that individuals define themselves as they participate in events and relationships in their environment.
b. The psychological approach of constructivism to career development has not been influenced by the philosophical position of postmodernism.
c. Constructivists believe in fixed truth.
d. The constructivist’s viewpoint of career development relies on logical proofs supported by empirical data.
a. Constructivists support the belief that individuals define themselves as they participate in events and relationships in their environment.
128
What key components are given in the first step toward establishing rapport and culturally appropriate relationships in the multicultural model of career counseling?
a. Isolating unique cultural variables
b. Identifying barriers
c. Goal setting as a collaborative negotiation
d. Trust and collaboration
d. Trust and collaboration
129
A consensus of procedures in the career counseling models includes:
a. information gathering only.
b. diagnosis and decision making only.
c. assessment only.
d. information gathering, assessment, diagnosis, intervention strategies and decision making.
d. information gathering, assessment, diagnosis, intervention strategies and decision making.
130
In order to understand how clients arrive at decisions, counselors view _________ as driving forces underlying an individual’s motivation toward certain activities and as a function of a fundamental sense of self.
a. core systems
b. core goals
c. thought processes
d. primary influences
b. core goals
131
Super (1990) suggested that counselors may need to use a variety of helping procedures in the career counseling process and may function as:
a. teachers and trainers.
b. therapists and teachers.
c. coaches and trainers.
d. mentors, coaches and teachers.
d. mentors, coaches and teachers.
132
In the developmental model what should clients focus on?
a. A balanced lifestyle is not a top priority in the developmental model
b. The development of all life roles for a balanced lifestyle, with an emphasis on an individual’s unique needs
c. The development of other people’s expectations
d. The restriction of career alternatives
b. The development of all life roles for a balanced lifestyle, with an emphasis on an individual’s unique needs
133
Over time, counselors have discovered that the need for integrating career and personal concerns has been highlighted by which of the following?
a. The growing complexity of the job market
b. Globalization has been responsible for job loss in this country
c. The discovery of more psychological disorders
d. Personal problems in multiple life roles over the life span
d. Personal problems in multiple life roles over the life span
134
What is the most effective mind-set when using a holistic approach to career counseling?
a. The concept of a narrow focus on career choice is preferable
b. The counselor needs to view the client from a total person perspective
c. It is not necessary to look at the interrelationship between career and personal problems
d. The client requires to focus on career and personal counseling separately
b. The counselor needs to view the client from a total person perspective
135
Which of the following statements can be the most effective rationale for integrating career and personal concerns?
a. Barriers that interfere with career choice and development need to be eliminated
b. Work is a central component of one’s life and job availability is often limited
c. Career counseling is very inclusive and a lot of tests are used
d. The need for career counseling is continuous over the life span
a. Barriers that interfere with career choice and development need to be eliminated
136
Which of the career theorists can be best identified with the statements "personal problems cannot be separated from career problems" and "belief systems and interests are interrelated in the career counseling process"?
a. Super
b. Krumboltz
c. Holland
d. Gottfredson
b. Krumboltz
137
Which approach is recommended for career counseling in the 21st century?
a. Person-centered
b. Cognitive-behavioral
c. Holistic
d. Psychodynamic
c. Holistic
138
What is representative of the current work situation in America?
a. There appears to be an increasing level of trust existing among workers toward their employers
b. There is stability in the job market despite the 2009 recession
c. Having a job that sustains one’s family is assured
d. Workers have lost the guarantee of a lifetime job, and job security no longer exists in many work environments
d. Workers have lost the guarantee of a lifetime job, and job security no longer exists in many work environments
139
An inclusive type of interview focuses on:
a. dysfunctional thinking only.
b. personal concerns.
c. career concerns.
d. interrelationships of concerns and their effect on all life roles.
d. interrelationships of concerns and their effect on all life roles.
140
Positive feelings of well-being are primarily associated with:
a. Career indecision
b. Resiliency
c. Use of testing
d. Pay scale
b. Resiliency
141
What are the driving forces behind significant life decisions?
a. Career choices
b. One’s values and core beliefs influenced by environmental experiences and life-course events
c. Anxiety reactions
d. Social interactions
b. One’s values and core beliefs influenced by environmental experiences and life-course events
142
The rationale for life learning is based on a continuing need to develop planning strategies to:
a. upgrade skills.
b. meet technological changes and stay abreast of the information explosion.
c. reduce the chances of becoming obsolete.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
143
Which of the following is an example of program strategies for the adult in career transition?
a. Identifying developed skills, interests and work experiences
b. Reformulated goals
c. Focusing predominantly on past events
d. Both A and B
d. Both A and B
144
Changing work roles will require many future workers to be:
a. Interested in a wide variety of jobs
b. Dual career-oriented
c. Knowledgeable about scientific careers
d. Flexible and adaptable
d. Flexible and adaptable
145
Self-efficacy that is experienced by workers usually results in:
a. Low self-esteem
b. Poor job performance
c. Enhanced feelings of confidence
d. Deterioration of one’s self-concept
c. Enhanced feelings of confidence
146
What are common concrete tasks of the early career phase?
a. Addressing pitfalls and stumbling blocks
b. Salary, merit pay, regulations and policies
c. Building harmonious relationships in the work environment, becoming oriented to work rules and regulations and demonstrating satisfactory performance
d. The individual’s personal reaction to advancement opportunities and acceptance of the values associated with employer goals and peer affiliates
c. Building harmonious relationships in the work environment, becoming oriented to work rules and regulations and demonstrating satisfactory performance
147
In late career, what is the major focus of an individual’s life?
a. A shift from a minor role to a power role
b. Activities inside the workplace
c. Activities outside the workplace
d. None of the above
c. Activities outside the workplace
148
The self-directed worker's key resource is predicted to be:
a. Attitude
b. Personality
c. Knowledge
d. Experience
c. Knowledge
149
How is the midcareer or maintenance stage characterized?
a. Socialization process
b. Continual adjustment process to improving working position and situation
c. Greater self-understanding and identification within the total system of a career field
d. Both B and C
d. Both B and C
150
Which statement pertaining to the role leisure plays within work and leisure relationships is not accurate?
a. Individuals are to recognize that quality of life is associated with all life roles
b. Quality of life is attained through a more holistic approach to human and career development
c. A quality lifestyle is one in which there is a balance between time spent at work and time devoted to leisure activities
d. Secondary to the concerns of career counselors is the balance of life roles that gives clients the freedom for self-expression to enhance their needs
d. Secondary to the concerns of career counselors is the balance of life roles that gives clients the freedom for self-expression to enhance their needs
151
What is assessment?
Gathering of information to form a holistic view of clients.
A type of treatment approach.
Formalized testing.
Mental Health Diagnosis.
Gathering of information to form a holistic view of clients.
152
Compared to appraisal and evaluation, assessment is considered a(n) ____________ activity.
Objective
Subjective
Complex
Important
Objective
153
The ________________ gave parents and children (over the age of 18) access to their own records and specified topics that could and could not be assessed without parental consent, or for students over 18, student consent.
Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
Hobson v. Hansen court ruling
Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
154
Researchers estimate that approximately ___________ of communication occurs nonverbally.
5% - 10%
20% - 30%
45% - 50%
70% - 90%
70% - 90%
155
Danielle was thinking about how the acculturation level of her client may be affecting her presenting issues in counseling. What phase of case conceptualization is Danielle exercising?
Cultural formulation
Clinical formulation
Diagnostic formulation
Treatment formulation
Cultural formulation
156
A counselor and his client created several treatment goals including “improve time spent engaging in enjoyable activities.” What is wrong with this goal?
It is not measurable
It is too challenging
It is not attainable
It is a process goal, not an outcome goal
It is not measurable
157
True or False: A counselor’s assessment report can serve as a legal document.
True
False
True
158
Which following is not one of the sections in the DSM-5?
Insurance and billing information for each of the disorders
Updates made to the current manual and how it should be used in the clinical process
Disorders that are in need of further research
Symptoms and description of disorders
Insurance and billing information for each of the disorders
159
Which of the following is not part of the series of three interviews for determining a defendant’s sanity?
Defendant’s purpose and intent of the alleged crime
Current mental state of defendant
Historical information about defendant
Mental state of defendant at the time of the alleged crime
Defendant’s purpose and intent of the alleged crime
160
10) _______________ is defined as a set of tools and techniques used for describing, organizing, and interpreting information.
Statistics
Graphing
Calculating
Measuring
Statistics
161
) Variables can be defined in how many ways?
2
1
3
4
2
162
A distribution of data has a mean of 15 and a standard deviation of 2. How many standard deviations away from the mean is a value of 13?
It is one standard deviation above the mean
It is two standard deviations above the mean
It is one standard deviation below the mean
It is two standard deviations below the mean
It is one standard deviation below the mean
163
To determine a client’s ________, the counselor took the client’s z-score and multiplied it by 10 then added 50.
t-score
stanine
m-score
percentile
t-score
164
What refers to random measurement error?
Unsystematic error
Reliability
Systematic error
Standardized error
Unsystematic error
165
The values of a correlation coefficient can range between _____ and _____.
-1.00 and +1.00
0 and +100
0 and +1.00
-2.00 and +2.00
-1.00 and +1.00
166
Which of the following not is a factor that a test administrator must consider when determining whether a test produces scores that are reliable enough?
The time it takes to complete the test
Individual characteristics of the client that is being assessed
The purpose of the test administration
Type of reliability estimate being reported
The time it takes to complete the test
167
True or False: Reliability is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for validity.
True
False
True
168
Why is important that a well-established construct is used when examining content validity of a measure?
It determines what is assessed and what items are included on the measure
It makes it clearer whether the measure is reliable
A content validity ratio can be conducted
Establishing a clear construct is not necessary
It determines what is assessed and what items are included on the measure
169
What is the purpose of group differentiation when assessing for construct validity?
To determine whether a test can differentiate two different groups of people in a way predicted by theory
To determine if scores on a test are found to be uncorrelated to scores on another instrument measuring a different construct
To produce a statistical coefficient
To see if the test is different than another similar test
To determine whether a test can differentiate two different groups of people in a way predicted by theory
170
What is a drawback to using client satisfaction surveys to assess counseling outcomes?
Surveys are often not valid
Clients are often unwilling to complete it
Clients are not capable of completing it
Counselors feel uncomfortable requesting feedback from clients
Surveys are often not valid
171
What is the purpose of a program evaluation?
Determine significance or merit of a program
Determine what assessment measures are most effective
Determine environmental conditions that allow a program to be effective
Determine acceptability of a program
Determine significance or merit of a program
172
For a counselor to justify conclusions of a program evaluation, he or she needs to ensure that the conclusion is linked to the:
Data collected
Clinical judgement
Initial needs assessment
Wants and needs of stakeholders
Data collected
173
__________________establishes uniform procedures for using an assessment so that the observation, administration, equipment, materials, and scoring rules remain the same for all who are administered the test.
STANDARDIZATION
174
Katherine, a mental health counselor, is reading the manual of a personality inventory and sought out additional review information in the Mental Measurements Yearbook. What step of the assessment process is Katherine exercising?
Before administration
During administration
After administration
Interpretation
Before administration
175
What are important factors a counselor must consider when providing accommodations to a client during test administration?
That the accommodation does not significantly impact the score the client
That the client does not take advantage of the accommodations
That the accommodation for one client is fair for another client
That the client wants the accommodations
That the accommodation does not significantly impact the score the client
176
Which of the following represents the “real” person?
Psychological Core
State characteristics
Typical responses
Role-related behavior
Psychological Core
177
What type of personality assessment technique consists of observations, interviews, and case notes?
Informal
Formal
Objective
Projective
Informal
178
Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor (16PF)?
Cattell
Carroll
Jung
Weschler
Cattell
179
What assessment was developed to diagnose and better understand interpersonal behavior in the general population?
California Psychological Inventory
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
NEO Personality Inventory
Sixteen Personality Factor
California Psychological Inventory
180
What construction technique consists of 10 animal pictures in social context and assesses the personality or emotional disturbance of the examinee?
Children's Apperception Test
Word Association Test
Thematic Apperception Test
Roberts Apperception Test for Children
Children's Apperception Test
181
Which of the following is not one of the advantages of projective assessments, compared to self-report inventories?
Ease of administration, scoring, and interpretation
There is less risk of social desirability
Examinees have flexibility in their responses
Helps facilitate rapport with a client
Ease of administration, scoring, and interpretation
182
The trait-and-factor theory consists of all of the following elements except:
Knowledge of educational requirements of various careers
Knowledge of one’s own attitudes, abilities, and interests
Matching knowledge of the self and jobs
Knowledge of jobs
Knowledge of educational requirements of various careers
183
_____________ inventories measure values besides those associated with job success.
General values
Life values
Interest
Work-related values
General values
184
________aptitude tests focus on one aspect of ability and are used to determine how well a person might perform in a particular profession or likelihood of success in a specific vocation.
Specific
Multiple
Individual
Single
Specific
185
Whose theory served as an original theory of intelligence?
Spearman
Cattell
Gardner
Wechsler
Spearman
186
Piaget believed that children move through the stages of cognitive development as a result of:
Interaction of biological factors and learning
Physical growth and enrichment Activities
Heredity and secondary education
Problem solving and information processing abilities
Interaction of biological factors and learning
187
What is a unique aspect of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children – second edition, compared to other intelligence tests?
It is based on dual theoretical foundation
It has high validity and reliability
It is considered a Class B instrument
It is used as a placement examination in British primary schools
It is based on dual theoretical foundation
188
When did the group intelligence movement begin?
During World War I
During the Great Depression
During World War II
After the enactment of the Individuals with Disability Education Act
During World War I
189
The intensity of a behavior measures:
The magnitude of the behavior
How often the behavior occurs
How long the behavior lasts
Amount of time it takes the behavior to begin after an identified stimulus
The magnitude of the behavior
190
______________ behavioral assessment is typically used in schools to determine whether a student exhibiting problem behaviors meets criteria for a disability.
Functional
Direct
Indirect
Clinical
Functional
191
Observing how a client interacts with others in a group counseling session at a local mental health center is an example of what type of observation?
Analogue
Naturalistic
Covert
Overt
Analogue
192
What behavior rating scale system consists of 5 components including structured developmental history, parent rating scale, teacher rating scale, self-report of personality, and student observation system?
BASC-2
BRP-2
CBCL 6-18
Connors
BASC-2
193
If a state decided to adopt the Common Core Standards, what else must they adopt?
A national achievement test
School personnel and staff hiring guidelines
A curriculum that accompanies the Common Core Standards
The college version of the Common Core Standards
A national achievement test
194
What is the most widely used comprehensive achievement battery?
Iowa Test of Basic Skills
Stanford Achievement Test
Wechsler Individual Achievement Test
TerraNova Test
Iowa Test of Basic Skills
195
In what way are the SAT and ACT different?
The SAT is an aptitude test whereas the ACT is an achievement test
The SAT is an achievement test whereas the ACT is an aptitude test
The ACT is the preliminary test to the SAT
The SAT is administered at the secondary level whereas the ACT is administered at the postsecondary level
The SAT is an aptitude test whereas the ACT is an achievement test
196
In terms of world view, which is component refers to reasoning?
Epistemology
Ontology
Semiotics
Axiology
Epistemology
197
According to the textbook, even when a test is offered in a different language besides English, what is important to consider before administering the test?
Whether the translated version has been normed
Whether the client would feel comfortable taking the test
Whether the counselor has the ability to administer the test in another language
Whether a translator is available
Whether the translated version has been normed
198
__________ speaks to the counselor’s need to treat clients fairly.
Justice
Fidelity
Equal treatment
Autonomy
Justice
199
What is a unique inclusion found in the ACA Code of Ethics that is not found in other ethical codes of other mental health professions?
Counselors can refrain from making a diagnosis
Counselors can use their clinical judgment to break confidentiality
Counselors can administer, score, and interpret any mental health-related test or assessment
Counselors may choose to obtain or not obtain informed consent before assessment
Counselors can refrain from making a diagnosis
200
___________ refers to the belief that counselors should not cause harm to their clients.
Nonmaleficence
Beneficence
Justice
Fidelity
Nonmaleficence
201
The term associated with identifying differences between groups that are NOT due to chance is ______.
probability
meaningfulness
significance
statistics
significance
202
What is the term for error that cannot be controlled?
Type I error
chance
Type II error
probability
chance
203
There is always the possibility of error in statistics because the ______ is not directly tested.
population
sample
significance
probability
population
204
What is the definition of the degree of risk you are willing to take that you will reject a null hypothesis when it is actually true?
Type I error
chance
Type II error
statistical significance
statistical significance
205
When you accept the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, you are making a ______.
Type I error
Type II error
Type III error
power
Type II error
206
Which of the following occurs when you reject the null hypothesis when it is true?
Type I error
correct decision
Type II error
power
Type I error
207
When you accept the null hypothesis when in reality it is true you have a ______.
Type I error
correct answer
Type II error
power
correct answer
208
You have compared the obtained value with the critical value. What do you do next?
Provide a statement of the null hypothesis.
Set the level of significance.
Compute the test statistic value.
Reject the null hypothesis if the obtained value is more extreme than the critical value.
Reject the null hypothesis if the obtained value is more extreme than the critical value.
209
If a researcher sets the decision rule p value at .05, what is the probability of making a Type I error?
1%
5%
10%
20%
5%
210
The one-sample Z-test is used to compare the ______ to the ______.
mean of a sample; mean of a population
mean of a population; mean of a sample
mean of a sample; mean of a second sample
mean of a population; mean of a second population
mean of a sample; mean of a population
211
After the z value is calculated,you need to locate the ______ from a table of z scores.
obtained value
test value
calculated value
critical value
critical value
212
What is the denominator in the equation for the z value in a one-sample Z-test?
standard error of the median
standard error of the population
standard error of the mean
standard error of the sample
standard error of the mean
213
The standard deviation of all possible means selected from the population is the ______.
mean of the population
critical value
Type I error
standard error of the mean
standard error of the mean
214
After conducting a one-sample Z-test, you arrived at a value of 5.7 for the z value. What is your conclusion?
Reject the null hypothesis
Accept the null hypothesis
It would depend on the statistical significance level you set.
You have miscalculated the z score
Reject the null hypothesis
215
The numerator of the equation for the z value is ______.
the population average subtracted from the mean of the sample
. the mean of the sample subtracted from the population average
the mean of the sample minus the standard error of the mean
the standard error of the mean added to the mean of the sample
the population average subtracted from the mean of the sample
216
The standard error of the mean is the best estimate that we can come up with given that it is impossible to compute ______.
all the possible variances
all the possible standard deviations
all the possible means
all the possible medians
all the possible means
217
If you have a population standard deviation of 20 and a sample size of 4, what is your standard error of the mean?
-10
10
-5
5
10
218
If you have a sample size of 4 and a population standard deviation of 12, what is your standard error of the mean?
-3
11
6
5
6
219
Independent groups are ______.
not related in any way
related but don't affect each other
dependent on each other
continuous
not related in any way
220
The t test for independent means is used when looking at the difference in average scores of one or more variables between ______ group(s) that are ______ one another.
two; dependent on
two; independent of
one; dependent on
one; independent of
two; independent of
221
The t test for independent means is used when each group is tested ______.
once or twice
twice
only once
any number of times
only once
222
The t test for independent means is used when you are testing how many groups?
two groups
one group
two or more groups
four groups
two groups
223
To examine the difference among the average scores of three unrelated groups, which of the following statistical techniques should be selected?
regression
t test of dependent samples
t test of independent samples
analysis of variance
analysis of variance
224
In the formula that computes a t value, what does n1 represent?
scored for group 1
means for group 1
total number of participants
number of participants in group 1
number of participants in group 1
225
When examining group difference where the direction of the difference is specified, which of the following is used?
two-tailed test
one-tailed test
nondirectional test
critical values
one-tailed test
226
Which statistical technique is used to examine one group of subjects under two different conditions?
regression
dependent-samples t test
analysis of variance
independent samples t test
dependent-samples t test
227
The t test for dependent means is used when you have ______.
two groups
three groups
one group
more than two groups
one group
228
The t test for dependent means is used when your sample is tested ______.
one time
one or more times
two times
two or more times
two times
229
In a t test for dependent samples that examines the difference between a pretest and posttest, what type of hypothesis is used?
directional
nondirectional
null hypothesis
experimental
directional
230
To be 99% confident you have not committed a Type I error, at what level should the p value be set?
.10
.50
.05
.01
.01
231
To compute the test statistic or t value, what must first be calculated to approximate the sample size?
pooled variance
standard deviation
mean score
degrees of freedom
degrees of freedom
232
What is the formula used to calculate degrees of freedom for a t test for dependent groups?
n-1
n1 + n2 - 1
n1 - 1 + n2
n1 + n2
n-1
233
Who is the creator of the F statistic?
Pearson Fisher
Karl Pearson
R. A. Fisher
R.A. Pearson
R. A. Fisher
234
A simple analysis of variance is used to study participants who are tested ______.
only once
twice
more than twice
as many times as you like
only once
235
The ANOVA can be used to test the differences ______.
Between two groups
Between more than two groups
In one group only
among three groups only
Between more than two groups
236
A simple analysis of variance includes how many factor(s) or treatment variables in the analysis?
one or more
two
three or more
one
one
237
What is a simple analysis of variance also called?
two-way ANOVA
factorial ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
no-way ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
238
A factorial ANOVA includes ______ independent variable(s).
one
two
more than two
more than one
more than one
239
Which of the following would be an example of a design that examines the effects of region of residence (e.g., Northeast, South, Midwest, and West) and income (i.e., low, medium, and high)?
simple ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
4 × 3 ANOVA
3 × 3 ANOVA
4 × 3 ANOVA
240
If you wanted to examine whether the degree of parental involvement differs based on students’ grade in school (i.e., first, second, third, etc.), what is the dependent variable of interest?
grade level
students
parents
degree of parent involvement
degree of parent involvement
241
When examining the impact of more than one independent variable on the outcome variable, what type of ANOVA should be used?
factorial ANOVA
multivariate ANOVA
one-way ANOVA
simple ANOVA
factorial ANOVA
242
When analysis of data reveals a difference between levels of a factor, what is this called?
interaction effect
factor effect
level effect
main effect
main effect
243
The factorial ANOVA is used when you have ______.
one independent variable
two dependent variables
more than one independent variables
two or more dependent variables
more than one independent variables
244
In ANOVA, you have an interaction effect when ______.
the effect of one independent variable differs based on the level of a second independent variable
the effect of one dependent variable differs based on the level of a second dependent variable
the effect of one dependent variable differs based on the level of a second independent variable
the effect of one independent variable differs based on the level of a second dependent variable
the effect of one independent variable differs based on the level of a second independent variable
245
The number of main effects is equal to the number of ______.
dependent variables
independent variables
Independent variables plus the number of interaction effects
dependent variables minus the number of interaction effects
independent variables
246
If you find that income significantly varies by gender, you have ______.
a main effect
an interaction effect
both a main and an interaction effect
no effect
a main effect
247
The correlation coefficient measures ______.
mean differences
causation
prediction
association
association
248
What do correlation coefficients examine?
differences between two groups
. differences between two or more groups
the relationship between variables
how variables can be arranged into higher-order factors
the relationship between variables
249
Correlation coefficients can test ______ variable(s) at a time.
only one
only two
more than one
more than two
only two
250
What is another term for a positive correlation?
indirect correlation
nondirectional correlation
direct correlation
unidirectional correlation
direct correlation
251
What can be used as the basis for prediction?
t test
correlation
F test
Cohen's D
correlation
252
Which of the following is used to illustrate the best guess as to the predicted Y variable score based on X?
regression equation
scatter plot
predictable lines
regression line
regression line
253
In a scatter plot, if all data points were aligned along a 45° angle, the correlation would be ______.
medium strength
weak
perfect
zero
perfect
254
When adding additional predictors to a regression analysis, you should try to find predictors that are related to ______ but not ______.
the independent variable; the dependent variables
the dependent variable; the independent variables
the predictors; the outcome
all main effects; any interaction effect
the dependent variable; the independent variables
255
A regression line is also called the ______.
scatter plot line
line of best fit
line graph
line of the estimate
line of best fit
