[Y2] Organisms Respond To Changes In Their Internal and External Environment Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a stimulus?

A

A detectable change in the internal or external environment of an organism that leads to a response in the organism.

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2
Q

What is the benefit of being able to respond to a stimulus?

A
  • Increases the chance of survival for an organism.
  • Organism have a greater chance if raising offspring.
  • Thus passing on their alleles to the next generation.
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3
Q

How are stimuli detected

A

By receptors specific to the type of stimuli.

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4
Q

What is a coordinator?

A

Something that formulates a suitable response to a stimulus.

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5
Q

How are responses produced to stimuli?

A

By an effector.

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6
Q

What is the sequence of events in the nervous system?

A

stimulus → receptor → coordinator → effector → response

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7
Q

What is taxes?

A

A simple response whose direction is determined by the direction of the stimulus

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8
Q

How might a motile organism respond to a stimulus via taxis?

A

Moving its whole body:

  • towards a favourable stimulus.
  • away from an unfavourable one.
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9
Q

Give an example of a positive taxis.

A
  • Single-celled algae will move towards light.

- This increases their chances of survival since, being photosynthetic, they require light to manufacture their food.

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10
Q

Give an example of a negative taxis.

A
  • Earthworms will move away from light.
  • This increases their chances of survival because it takes them into the soil, where they are better able to conserve water, find food, and avoid preditors.
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11
Q

What are kineses?

A

A response where organisms change its speed at which it moves and the rate of change of direction.

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12
Q

How might a kineses stimuli be different from a taxes one?

A
  • Stimuli for kineses tends to be less directional.
  • e.g. Humidity and temperature.
  • does not always produce a clear gradient from one extreme to another.
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13
Q

Give an example of kinesis.

A
  • Occurs in woodlice.
  • They lose water from the body in dry conditions.
  • When they move into a dry environment from a damp one, they move rapidly in a straight line.
  • This is so they go straight through the dry environment
  • When they move into a damp environment from a dry one they move more slowly, and change direction more.
  • This is so they travel in circles and spend more time in the dry environment.
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14
Q

What are tropisms

A

A growth of part of a plant in response to a directional stimulus.

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15
Q

What is:

  • positive phototropism?
  • negative phototropism?
  • positive gravitropism?
  • negative gravitropism?
A
  • positive phototropism: Shoots grow towards the light
  • negative phototropism: Roots grow away from light
  • positive gravitropism: Shoots grow in the same direction as gravity acts.
  • negative gravitropism: Roots grow in the opposing direction to which gravity acts.
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16
Q

What do plant growth factors do?

A
  • They exert their influence by affecting growth and, they may be made by cells located throughout the plant rather than in particular organs.
  • Unlike animal hormones, some plant growth factors affect the tissue that releases them rather than acting ona distant target organ.
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17
Q

Give an example of a plant growth factor.

A

Indoleacetin acid (IAA)

  • belongs to the subgroup called auxins.
  • among other things, IAA controls plant cell elongation.
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18
Q

What is unilateral light?

A

A light that is detected from one side.

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19
Q

What takes place in the response of shoots of flowering plants to unilateral light?

A
  • Cells in the tip of the shoot produce IAA, which is then transported down the shoot.
  • The IAA is initially transported evenly throughout all regions as it begins to move down the shoot.
  • Light causes the movement of IAA from the light side to the shaded side of the shoot.
  • A great concentration of IAA builds up on the shaded side of the shoot than the light side.
  • As IAA causes elongation of shoot cells and there is a greater concentration of IAA on the shaded side of the shoot, the cells on this side elongate more.
  • The shaded side of the shoot elongates faster than the light side, causing the shoot tip to bend towards the light
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20
Q

How does IAA differ in roots to its effect in shoots?

phototropism

A
  • Promotes cell elongationín shoots

- Inhibits cell elongation in roots: therefore roots are negatively phototrophic.

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21
Q

What takes place in the response of a horizontally-growing root to gravity?

A
  • Cells in the tip of the shoot produce IAA, which is then transported along the root.
  • The IAA is initially transported to all sides of the root
  • Gravity influences the movement of IAA from the upper side to the lower side of the root.
  • A greater concentration of IAA builds up on the lower side of the root than the upper side.
  • As IAA inhibits the elongation of root cells and the is a greater concentration of IAA on the lower side, the cells on this side elongate less than those on the upper.
  • The relatively greater elongation of cells on the upper side compared to the lower side causes the root to bend downwards in the direction of the force of gravity.
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22
Q

How does IAA differ in shoots to its effect in roots?

gravitropism

A
  • In shoots, the greater concentration of IAA on the lower side increases cell elongation and causes this side to elongate more than the upper side.
  • As a result, the shoots grow upwards opposing the force of gravity.
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23
Q

What effect does IAA have on plant cells?

A

Increases their plasticity (ability to streach).

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24
Q

What type of cells/part of cell does IAA work in?

A
  • Only on young cell walls.
  • As they are able to elongate.

Cannot happen in older cell walls as…

  • as the cell matures they develop greater rigidity, so older parts of the plant roots/shoots are unable to respond.
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25
Q

What is the proposed explanation of how IAA increases the plasticity of the cell?

A

The acid growth hypothesis.

  • Involves active transport of hydrogen ions from the cytoplasm into spaces in the cell wall.
  • Causes the cell wall to become more plastic allowing the cell to elongate by expansion.
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26
Q

What is a reflex arc?

A

The pathway of neurons involved in a simple nervous response to stimuli.

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27
Q

What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?

A
  • Central nervous system (CNS): Brain and spinal cord.

- Peripheral nervous system (PNS): pairs of nerves that originate from the brain or spinal cord…

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28
Q

How is the nervous system divided further (from the major divisions)

A

PNS:

  • Sensory neurones: carry nerve impulses from receptors towards CNS
  • Motor neurones: carry nerve impulses away from CNS to effectors.
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29
Q

How can the motor nervous system be further subdivided?

A

PNS => Motor:

  • Voluntary nervous system: carries nerve impulses to body muscles, under conscious control.
  • Autonomic nervous system: carries nerve impulses to glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle; controlled subconsciously.
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30
Q

What is the spinal cord?

A

A column of nervous tissue that runs along the back and lies inside the vertebral column fro protection.

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of a reflex?

A
  • Rapid.
  • Short-lived.
  • Localised.
  • Involuntary.
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32
Q

Why is a reflex sometimes a spinal reflex?

A

One of the neurones involved is in the spinal cord.

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33
Q

What happens during a spinal reflex? (use hand on hot surface example)

A
  • Stimulus: heat from the hot object.
  • Receptor: temperature receptors in the skin generates a nerve impulse in the sensory neurone.
  • Sensory neurone: passes nerve impulses to the spinal cord.
  • Coordinator (intermediate neurone): links the sensory neurone to the motor neurone in spinal cord.
  • Motor neurone: carries nerve impulses from the spinal cord to muscles in the upper arm.
  • Effector: muscles in the upper arm, which is stimulated to contract.
  • Response: pulling hand away from the hot object.
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34
Q

Why is reflex action important?

A
  • Involuntary ∴ don’t require a decision from the brian:
    • This allows it to continue to carry out more complexes responses.
    • Brain not overloaded with situations that require the same response.
    • Some impulses are sent to brain, so it is informed and can override if necessary.
  • Protect the body from harm, do not need to be learned.
  • Fast, as neuron pathway is short with very few (1 or 2) synapses. (synapses are the slowest link).
  • Absence of any decision-making process means that action is rapid.
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35
Q

What is the difference between sensory reception and sensory perception?

A
  • Sensory reception is the function of receptors to a spesific type of stimuli.
  • Sensory perception involves making sense of information from the receptors.
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36
Q

What are the features of sensory reception (as illustrated by the Pacinian corpuscle?

A
  • Is specific to a single type of stimulus: responds only to mechanical pressure.
  • Produces a generator potential by acting as a transducer: transduces mechanical energy of the stimulus into a generator potential.
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37
Q

What is a generator potential?

A

When receptors in the nervous system convert the energy of the stimulus into a nervous impules.

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38
Q

What does the Pacinian corpuscle respond to?

A

Mechanical stimuli, such as pressure.

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39
Q

Where are Pacinian corpuscles found?

A

Deep in skin and more abundant:
- on the fingers

  • on the sole of feet
  • on external genitalia.
  • in joints, ligament and tendons (allow organisms to know which joints are changing direction.)
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40
Q

Describe the structure of the Pacinian corpuscle.

A
  • A single sensory neuron at the centre of layers of tissue.

- Each layer of tissue is separated by a gel.

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41
Q

How does the Pacinian corpuscle’s structure transduce mechanical energy from the stimulus into a generator potential?

A
  • In the central neurons plasma membrane stretch-mediated sodium channels are found.
  • Their permeability to sodium changes when they are deformed.
  • At its resting state the channels are too narrow to allow sodium ions to pass along them, so the neuron has a resting potential.
  • When pressure is applied, the deformation causes the sodium channels to stretch, widening the channel so sodium ions can diffuse into the neuron.
  • The influx of sodium ions depolarises the membrane, producing a generator potential.
  • This creates an action potential that passes along the neuron to the CNS (via other neurons).
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42
Q

(In mammals) where are light receptors located?

A

The retina.

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43
Q

How many light receptors are there?

A

Millions.

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44
Q

How many types of light receptor are there? Name them.

A

Two.

Rods and cones.

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45
Q

How are rods and cones transducers?

A

They convert energy carried by light into electrical energy.

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46
Q

What are the properties of rod cells?

A
  • One type.
  • Cannot distinguish between different wavelengths (black and white image).
  • More numerous than cones.
  • Many connected to a single sensory neuron in the optic nerve.
  • Rod-shaped
  • More are located at the periphery of the retina and absent at the fovea
  • Give poor visual acuity
  • Sensitive to low light intensity.
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47
Q

What are the properties of cone cells?

A
  • Three types: each responding to different wave lengths.
  • Can respond to different wavelengths (coloured image).
  • less numerous than rods.
  • One connected to a single sensory neuron in the optic nerve.
  • Cone-shaped
  • Fewer are located at the periphery of the retina and concentrated at the fovea.
  • Give good visual acuity
  • No sensitive to low light intensity
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48
Q

How do rod cells allow us to see at low light intensities (e.g. at night)?

A
  • Rods respond to low light and many connect to the same bipolar neuron.
  • Due to retinal convergence there is a much higher chance that the threshold value is exceeded than with one.
  • Once the threshold is met there is enough energy for the pigment rhodopsin to be broken down.
  • This summation allows us to see low light intensities (e.g. at night).
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49
Q

Why do rods cells have a poor visual acuity?

A
  • Many rod cells link to the same bipolar neuron.
  • So light revied by cells sharing the same neurone will only generate a single impulse regardless of how many neurones are stimulated.
  • Therefore the brain cannot distinguish between the separate sources of light that stimulated the rods.
  • So two dots close together cannot be resolved and will appear as a single blob.
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50
Q

How do cone cells allow us to see different colours?

A
  • There are three different types of cones (RGB) that respond to different wavelengths of light (and have there own type of iodopsin).
  • depending on the proportions of each cone stimulated, we can perceive images in full colour (from red to violet).
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51
Q

Why do cones only respond to high-intensity light?

A
  • Cones are connected to there own bipolar neuron, so cannot combine to exceed the threshold to create a generator potential.
  • As well as this, high energy is needed to break down its pigment, iodopsin to stimulate a generator potential.
  • Therefore only high-intensity light will be enough to overcome the threshold needed to break down iodopsin and create a generator potential.
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52
Q

Why do cone cells give good visual acuity?

A
  • Each cone cell has its own connection to a single bipolar neuron.
  • If two adjacent cones are stimulated the brain will receive two separate impulses.
  • This means it is able to distinguish between two sources of light.
  • So two dots close together can be resolved and will appear clearly.
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53
Q

Describe the distribution of rods and cones on the retina and explain why this is the case?

A
  • There distribution on the retina is uneven.
  • Light is focused opposite to the pupil on the retina (known as the fovea).
  • Thus the fovea receives the highest intensity light.
  • So cones are found at the fovea.
  • Their concentration diminishes the further away, to the point where only rods are found at the peripheries of the retina where light intensity is at its lowest.
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54
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system responsible for?

A

Involuntary (subconscious) activities of the internal muscles and glands.

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55
Q

State and explain the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

A

Sympathetic:

  • Stimulates effectors and speeds up activity.
  • to help cope with stressful situations by heightening awareness and preparing for activity.

Parasympathetic:

  • Inhibits effectors and slows down any activity.
  • to control activities under normal resting conditions, and conserving energy and replenishing the body’s reserves.
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56
Q

What word describes the relation between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

A

They are antagonistic to each other.

  • This fact means they are able to work in tandem to regulate internal glands and muscles.
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57
Q

What does myogenic mean and what is it used to describe?

A
  • When a muscles contractions are regulated from within the muscle itself.
  • Used to describe the cardiac muscle.
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58
Q

What is the opposite of myogenic?

A

Neurogenic.

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59
Q

What about the heart makes it myogenic?

A

It has a sinoatrial node (SAN) where the initial stimulus for contraction originates.

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60
Q

What are the sequences of events that control the basic heart rate?

A
  • A wave of electrical excitation spreads out from the sinoatrial node (SAN) across both atria.
  • This causes both atria to contract.
  • The atrioventricular septum (a layer of non-conductive tissue) prevents the wave crossing to the ventricles.
  • Between the atria, the wave of excitation enters the atrioventricular node (AVN).
  • After a short delay the AVN conveys a wave of electrical excitation between the ventricles along the bundle of His (made up of Purkyne tissue fibres).
  • At the base of the ventricles the bundle of His branches off into smaller fibres of Purkyne tissue.
  • This releases the wave of excitation, causing contractions of both ventricles quickly from the apex upwards.
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61
Q

What is the resting heart rate of a typical adult human?

A

70 bpm

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62
Q

How are changes to heart rate controlled?

A

By the region of the brain known as the medulla oblongata.

  • Increasing heart rate is done via the sympathetic nervous system linked to the sinoatrial node.
  • decreasing heart rate is done via the parasympathetic nervous system linked to the sinoatrial node.
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63
Q

What type of stimuli may cause a change in heart rate?

A
  • Chemical (e.g. O₂/CO₂ concentration)

- Pressure (e.g. blood pressure)

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64
Q

How do chemoreceptors affect the heart rate, and then how does this return to normal?

(use an increase in CO₂ conc in examples)

A
  • When blood CO₂ conc is higher than normal its pH is lower (as CO₂ forms an acid).
  • Chemoreceptors in the wall of the carotid arteries and aorta detect this and increase the frequency of nervous impulses to the medulla oblongata.
  • The centre of the medulla oblongata that increases heart rate then increases the frequency of impulses via the sympathetic nervous system to the SA node.
  • This increase the rate of production of electrical waves by the sinoatrial node, increasing the heart rate.
  • This increases blood flow causing more CO₂ to be removed by the lungs, returning blood CO₂ to normal.
  • As a result blood pH returns to normal and chemoreceptors reduce the frequency of nerve impulses to the medulla oblongata.
  • The medulla oblongata reduces the frequency of impulse to the SA node, leading to the heart rate returning to normal.
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65
Q

What happens when blood pressure is higher than normal?

A
  • Baroreceptors in the wall of the carotid arteries and aorta detect a change in blood pressure
  • They then transmit more nerve impulses to the centre in the medulla oblongata that decreases heart rate.
  • This centre sends impulses via the parasympathetic nervous system to the SA node.
  • This decreases the rate of production of electrical waves by the SA node, decresing the heart rate.
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66
Q

What are the features of the hormonal system?

A
  • Communication by chemicals called hormones.
  • Transmission by via blood.
  • Slow transmission.
  • Hormones travel to all parts of the body, but only target cells respond.
  • Response is widespread.
  • Slow response
  • Long-lasting response
  • Effect may be permanent and irreversible.
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67
Q

What are the features of the nervous system?

A
  • Communication by nerve impulses.
  • Transmission by neurones.
  • Rapid transmission.
  • Impulses travel to specific parts of the body.
  • Response is localised.
  • Rapid response
  • Short-lived response
  • Effect usually be temporary and reversible.
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68
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A
  • Chemicals secreted in target cells for the nervous system.
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69
Q

What are neurones specialised for?

A
  • Neurones (nerve cells) are specialised cells adapted to rapidly carry electrochemical changes.
  • These are called nerve impulses and act from one part of the body to another.
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70
Q

What are mammalian motor neurones made up of?

A

A cell body:
- contains usual cell organelle, including a nucleus and many RER (for the production of proteins and neurotransmitters).

Dendrons:
- extensions of the cell body that subdivide into smaller branched fibres (dendrites) that carry impulses to the cell body.

An axon:
- a single long fibre that carries nerve impulses away from the cell body.

Schwann cells:

  • surround the axon, protecting it and providing electrical insulation.
  • carry out phagocytosis and play a part in nerve regulation.

A myelin sheath:

  • forms a covering to the axon and is made up of membrane-bound Schwann cells
  • its membrane is rich in lipids known as myelin.
  • neurones with myelin sheaths is called a myelinated neurone.

Nodes of Ranvier:

  • between two adjacent Schwann cells where there is no myelin sheath.
  • 2-3μm long and occur every 1-3mm (in humans).
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71
Q

What are the three types of neuron (and their function/features)?

A

Sensory neurones:

  • transmit impulses from a receptor to an intermediate or motor neuron.
  • have one dendron that is very long that carries impulses towards the cell body
  • have one axon that carries it away from the cell body.

Motor neurones:

  • transmit nervous impulses from an intermediate or relay neuron to an effector.
  • have one long axon
  • have many short dendrites.

Intermediate or relay neurones:

  • Transmits impulses between neurones.
  • have numerous short processes.
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72
Q

When the electric potential difference across an axon membrane is reversed, what has happened?

A

It has gone from its resting potential to an action potential.

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73
Q

How is the movement of ions across the axon membrane controlled at its resting potential?

A
  • The phospholipid bilayer prevents ions from diffusing across it.
  • Channel proteins span the bilayer, these have ion channels that pass through them, and some have gates which can be opened or closed to regulate the facilitated diffusion of ions.
  • Pumps (sodium-potassium pump) that actively transport ions into and out of the axon.
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74
Q

What is the charge of an axon relative to its outside at resting potential?

A

Negative.

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75
Q

In humans what is the resting potential?

A

-65mV

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76
Q

How is the axon made polarised at its resting potential?

A
  • Sodium-potassium pumps actively transport sodium ions out.
  • Sodium-potassium pumps actively transport potassium ions in.
  • Active transport of Na⁺ out > the active transport of K⁺ in. (3:2)
  • Higher conc of Na⁺ in tissue fluid around axon than in the cytoplasm.
  • Higher conc of K⁺ in the cytoplasm than tissue fluid.
  • So there is an electrochemical gradient.
  • Thus K⁺ move back out via facilitated diffusion through open K⁺ channel proteins.
  • But most Na⁺ channel proteins are closed, so less diffuse back in.
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77
Q

If a stimulus is great enough and provides enough energy what happens to the potential difference across the axon membrane?

A

It becomes depolarised.

From -65mV to +40mV.

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78
Q

Why does depolarisation have an effect?

A

It changes the shape of channel proteins in the axon membrane, opening or closing them.

This is why they are called voltage-gated channels.

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79
Q

Can depolarisation occur across the whole axon membrane?

A

No, only a particular point on the axon membrane.

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80
Q

Describe what happens during an action potential.

A
  • At resting potential, some K⁺ voltage-gated channels are open (the ones that are permanently open), but the Na⁺ voltage-gated channels are closed.
  • A stimulus provides energy that causes some Na⁺ voltage0gated channels to change shape and open.
  • Na⁺ can now diffuse into the axon along its electrochemical gradient.
  • As Na⁺ are positive this causes the p.d across the membrane to reverse.
  • As Na⁺ ions diffuse into the axon, more Na⁺ channels open, causing an even greater influx.
  • Once at +40mV the voltage-gated Na⁺ channels close and the remaining closed K⁺ voltage-gated channels begin to open.
  • The electrical gradient that previously prevented the outflow of K⁺ is reversed.
  • Thus more K⁺ diffuse out.
  • This starts repolarisation.
  • This causes a temporary overshoot of the electrical gradient, with the axon’s inside being more negative (hyperpolarisation).
  • This causes the closable K⁺ gates to close and the activities of the Na⁺-K⁺ pumps once again cause Na⁺ to be pumped out and K⁺ in.
  • This re-establishes the resting potential of -65mV and the axon is now repolarised.
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81
Q

What is a travelling wave of depolarisation?

A

An action potential.

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82
Q

How does an action potential a travelling wave of depolarisation?

A

As one region of the axon produces an action potential and becomes depolarised, it acts as a stimulus for the depolarisation of the next region of the axon.

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83
Q

Why do action potentials pass along myelinated neurones faster than along unmyelinated ones?

A
  • Myelinated axons have a fatty sheath of myelin around them.
  • This acts as an electrical insulator as it prevents action potentials from forming along it’s 1-3mm interval.
  • The localised circuit can only arise between adjacent nodes of Ranvier, so the action potentials jump from node to node.
  • This is known as saltatory conduction.
    (‘saltare’ means to jump in Latin)
84
Q

What factors affect the speed of an action potential?

A
  • The myelon sheath.
  • The diameter of the axon.
  • Temperature.
85
Q

How does the diameter of an axon affect the speed at which it transmits an action potential?

A
  • Greater diameter = faster speed of conductance.
  • As less leakage of ions from large axons.

(the leaks would make the membrane potential harder to maintain)

86
Q

How does the temperature of an axon affect the speed at which it transmits an action potential?

A
  • Higher temp = faster speed of conductance.
  • As higher temp = increased rate of diffusion.
  • But the energy needed for active transport comes from respiration. This is controlled by enzymes.
  • Enzymes function more rapidly at higher temps but only to a certain point.
  • Above this temp and enzymes and the plasma membrane proteins will denature and impulses will fail to conduct.
  • Enzymes also control the sodium-potassium pump.
87
Q

What is the all-or-nothing principle?

A
  • There is a certain threshold value which triggers an action potential.
  • Below this, no action potential (and thus no impulse) is generated (Nothing).
  • At/Above this and the action potential generated is more or less the same size (All).
88
Q

If the all-or-nothing principle is true, how can organisms perceive the size of a stimulus?

A
  • by the number of impulses passing in a given time.
    (larger stimulus, more impulses per unit time)
  • by having different neurones with different threshold values.
    (brain interprets the number and type of neurones that pass impulses as a result of a given stimulus)
89
Q

What happens after an action potential?

A

The refractory period.

90
Q

What is the refractory period?

A
  • When the inward movement of sodium ions are prevented because the Na⁺ voltage-gated channels are closed.
  • During this time it is impossible for a further action potential to be generated.
91
Q

What are the advantage (purposes) of the refractory period?

A
  • It ensures action potentials are propagated in one direction only.
  • It produces discrete impulses.
  • It limits the number of action potentials
92
Q

What is a synapse?

A

Where one neurone communicates with another or with an effectors

93
Q

How is information transmitted across a synapse?

A

Via chemicals known as neurotransmitters.

94
Q

What gaps separate neurones?

A

The synaptic cleft.

95
Q

What is the presynaptic neurone?

A

The neuron that releases the neurotransmitter.

96
Q

What is the synaptic knob?

A

The axon of the presynaptic neurone

97
Q

What cell structure is found in numbers at the synaptic knob and why?

A

Mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum.

  • Are used in the manufacturing of neurotransmitters that takes place in the axon.
98
Q

What is the role of the synaptic vesicle?

A

Stores neurotransmitters.

99
Q

What are features of synapses?

A
  • Unidireactionality.
  • Summation.
  • Inhibition.
100
Q

What is spatial summation?

A
  • When a number of different presynaptic neurones release enough neurotransmitter to exceed the threshold value of the postsynaptic neurones to trigger an action potential.
101
Q

What is temporal summation?

A
  • When a single presynaptic neurone releases neurotransmitter many times over a very short period.
  • If its concentration exceeds the threshold value of the postsynaptic neurone, an action potential is triggered.
102
Q

How do inhibitory synapses work?

A
  • A neurotransmitter is released that binds to chloride ion protein channels on the postsynaptic neurone.
  • This causes the channel to open.
  • Cl⁻ moves into the postsynaptic neurone by facilitated diffusion.
  • Nearby potassium protein channels are also opened.
  • K⁺ move out of the postsynaptic neurone into the synapse.
  • Due to the movement of these ions the inside of the postsynaptic neurone becomes more negative, and the outside more positive.
  • This decreases the membranes potential to -80mV.
  • The hyperpolarisation makes it less likely that a new action potential will be created because a larger influx of sodium ions are needed to produce one.
103
Q

What are the advantages of the synapse when transmitting information from one neurone to another?

A
  • It allows a single stimulus to create a number of responses.
  • It allows nerve impulses from receptors reacting to different stimuli to contribute to a singe response.
104
Q

How are neurotransmitters released?

A

When an action potential reaches the synaptic knob the membrane of the vesicle that stores neurotransmitter fuses with the presynaptic membrane to releases the neurotransmitter.

105
Q

Why do synapses only work in one direction?

A
  • Neurotransmitters are only made in the presynaptic neurone.
  • The specific receptor proteins for neurotransmitters are only on the postsynaptic neurone.
106
Q

What is a cholinergic synapse?

A

A synapse in which the neurotransmitter is acetylcholine.

107
Q

Where are cholinergic synapses more commonly found?

A

Inside vertebrates between neuromuscular junctions.

108
Q

Describe the process of transmission across a cholinergic synapse.

A
  • A new action potential at the presynaptic neurone causes calcium ion protein channels to open.
  • Ca⁺ enters the synaptic knob via facilitated diffusion.
  • The influx of Ca⁺ causes synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
  • This releases acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
  • Due to the short diffusion pathway, acetylcholine moves across the clef very quick.
  • It then binds to receptors sites on sodium-ion protein channels on the postsynaptic neurone.
  • This causes them to open, allowing Na⁺ to diffuse into the postsynaptic neurone.
  • This generates a new action potential.
  • Acetycholineesterases then hydrolyse the acetylcholine into choline and ethanoic acid, which then diffuses back across the cleft into the presynaptic neurone.
  • Sodium-ion protein channels close in the absence of acetylcholine in the receptor site.
  • ATP from mitochondria then recombine acetylcholine and stores it in the synaptic vesicles for further use.
109
Q

What are the advantages of acetylcholine being hydrolysed after use?

A
  • Prevents the continuous generation of a new action potential in the postsynaptic neurone (so leads to discrete transfer of info across a synapse).
  • Allows for more acetylcholine to be made in the presynaptic neurone (it recycles it).
110
Q

What are the three types of muscles in the body?

A
  • Cardiac muscle.
  • Smooth muscle (found in walls of blood vessels and gut).
  • Skeletal muscles.
111
Q

How is skeletal muscle different from other muscle?

A
  • Makes up the bulk of body muscle (invertebrates).

- Is attached to bones and acts under voluntary, conscious control.

112
Q

List the structures of muscle?

A
  • Whole muscle
  • Bundle of muscle fibres (made up of nerves, blood capillary, and…)
  • Single muscle fibres (fused cells that share a nucleus and cytoplasm, called sarcoplasm)
113
Q

What makes up muscle fibers?

A

Myofibrils: made up from actin and myosin.

114
Q

What is a sarcomere?

A

The distance between two adjacent Z-lines.

115
Q

Whys do myofibrils appear striped?

A

Due to their alternating I bands (light) and A-bands (dark).

116
Q

What is the light coloured region at the centre of the A band called?

A

H-zone.

117
Q

Other than myofibrils what other proteins in found in muscles?

A

Tropomyosin.

118
Q

What are the two types of muscle fibre?

A
  • Slow-twitch.

- Fast-twitch.

119
Q

What are features of slow-twitch muscle fibres?

A
  • Contract slower but over a longer period.
  • Adapted for endurance.
  • Adapted for aerobic respiration.
  • Large store of myoglobin
  • Rich supply to blood vessels.
  • Numerous mitochondria
120
Q

What are features of fast-twitch muscle fibres?

A
  • Contract fast but over a short period.
  • Adapted for explosiveness/intense exercise.
  • Thicker and more numerous myosin filaments
  • High concentration of glycogen
  • High concentration of enzymes involved in anaerobic respiration to provide ATP rapidly.
  • Stores phosphocreatine, that can rapidly generate ATP from ADP in anaerobic conditions.
121
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

The point where a motor neuron meets a skeletal muscle fibre.

122
Q

What would happen if there was only one neuromuscular junction on a muscle

A
  • it would take time for a wave of contraction to travel across.
  • not all fibres would contract simultaneously and the movement would be slow.
123
Q

What is a motor unit?

A
  • when all muscle fibres supplied by a singe motor neuron act together as a single functional unit.
  • more force needed = more motor unit are stimulated.
124
Q

What happens when a nerve impulse is received?

A
  • The synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and release their acetylcholine.
  • Acetylcholine diffuses to the postsynaptic membrane of the muscle fibre.
  • It alters its permeability to Na⁺, which enters rapidly, depolarising the membrane.
125
Q

What happens to acetylcholine after use?

A
  • It is broken down by acetylcholinesterase to ensure the muscles aer not over-stimulated.
  • The cholinen and ethanoic acid diffuses back into the neuron.
  • Here they recombine using energy provided by the mitochondria.
126
Q

What are the similarities between the neuromuscular junction and a synapse?

A
  • both have neurotransmitters that are transported by diffusion.
  • both have receptors, that on binding with the neurotransmitter, cause an influx of sodium ions.
  • both use a sodium-potassium pump to depolarize the axon.
  • Use enzymes to breakdown the neurotransmitter.
127
Q

What are the differences between the neuromuscular junction and a synapse?

A
  • Neuromuscular junction (NJ) can only be excitatory, whilst a synapse (S) can also be inhibitory.
  • NJ only links neurons to muscles, whilst a S links neurons to neurons, or neurons to other effector organs.
  • Only motor neurons are involved in NJ, whist motor, sensory and intermediate can be involved in S.
  • The action potential ends at a NJ, whilst a new action potential may be produced along another neuron (postsynaptic).
  • At NJ acetylcholine binds to receptors on membrane of muscle fibres, whilst acetylcholine binds to receptors on membrane of postsynaptic neuron in S.
128
Q

What does the contraction of a skeletal muscle do?

A

Moves the skeleton.

129
Q

Why do muscles act antagonistically to each other?

A
  • Muscles can only pull, so having two acting antagonistically allows motion in both directions.
130
Q

When muscles contract, what happens to the sarcomere?

A
  • I-band becomes narrower.
  • Z-line moves closer together (the sarcomere shortens).
  • H-zone becomes narrower.
  • A-band remains the same width.
131
Q

What proof discounts the claim that muscle contractions are due to the filaments themselves shortening?

A
  • A-band remains the same width (which is determined by the myosin filaments)
  • Thus myosin filaments do not become shorter.
132
Q

What is proof for the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • Myofibrils appear darker in colour when the actin and myosin filaments overlap.
  • Therefore we should see more overlap of actin and myosin when a muscle is contracted.
133
Q

Describe the three main proteins involved in the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • Myosin, is made up of two types of protein:
    • fibrous protein arranged into a filament made up of several hundred molecules (the tail).
    • globular protein formed into two bulbous structures at one end (the head).
  • Actin is a globular protein that is arranged into long chains that are twisted around one another to form a helical strand.
  • Tropomyosin forms long thin threads that are wound around actin filaments.
134
Q

What are the three stages of the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • Muscle stimulation.
  • Muscle contraction.
  • Muscle relaxation.
135
Q

What happens during the muscle stimulation stage of the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • An action potential reaches many neuromuscular junctions simultaneously,
  • causing calcium ion protein channels to open and calcium ions to diffuse into the synaptic knob.
  • The calcium ions cause the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
  • This releases their acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
  • Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds with receptors on the muscle cell-surface membrane.
  • This causes depolarisation.
136
Q

What happens during the muscle contraction stage of the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • An action potential travels through T-tubules, and branch throughout the sarcoplasm.
  • The action potential reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum, opening up Ca⁺ protein channels.
  • Ca⁺ diffuse into the sarcoplasm causing tropomyosin to pull away from the actin filament binding site.
  • ADP attaches to myosin heads, changing their angle, pulling the actin filament along with.
  • It releases ADP.
  • ATP attaches to myosin head, detaching it from the actin filament.
  • Ca⁺ activates ATPase to hydrolyse ATP to ADP.
  • The energy from this returns the myosin head to its original position.
  • Myosin attaches to ADP and then reattaches further along the actin filament.
  • As long as the conc of Ca⁺ in the myofibrils is high this will continue.
  • more on page 375
137
Q

What happens during the muscle relaxation stage of the sliding filament mechanism?

A
  • After nervous nervous stimulation, Ca⁺ are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum using the energy from the hydrolysis of ATP.
  • This allows tropomyosin to block actin filaments again.
  • Myosin heads are unable to bind to actin filaments and contraction ceases.
  • The muscle relaxes
  • At this point the force from an antagonistic muscle can pull actin filaments out from between myosin to a point.
138
Q

What is energy from ATP needed from during muscle contraction?

A
  • to move the myosin head.

- to reabsorb calcium ions into the endoplasmic reticulum via active transport.

139
Q

Why is there a need to anaerobically generate ATP in contracting muscles?

A
  • Energy is often needed in large quantities.
  • (e.g. escaping a predator)
  • The body cannot inhale enough oxygen to meet this demand sometimes.
  • Therefore ATP must be made anaerobically.
140
Q

How is the anaerobic ATP demand helped to be met?

A
  • By phosphocreatine.

- By more glycolysis.

141
Q

What is the function of phosphocreatine?

A
  • Stored in the muscles, it acts reserve supply of phosphate.
  • It is immediately available to combine with ADP to reform ATP.
142
Q

How is phosphocreatine replenished?

A
  • Using phosphate from ATP when the muscle is relaxed.
143
Q

Define homeostastis?

A

The maintenance of a constant internal environment.

144
Q

Whys is homeostasis essential for the proper functioning of organisms?

A
  • Enzymes that control biochemical reactions are sensitive to change.
  • Changes to the water potential of blood and tissue fluids may cause cells to shrink or burst.
  • A constant blood glucose conc ensures a reliable source of glucose for respiration by cells.
  • Organism that are more able to maintain a constant internal environment are more independent to changes in the external environment.
145
Q

What are the stages involved in any sefl-regulating system?

A
  • Optimum points.
  • Receptors.
  • Coordinator.
  • Effector.
  • Feedback mechanisms.
146
Q

What is meant by positive feedback?

A
  • When a deviation from an optimum causes changes that result in an even greater deviation from the normal.
147
Q

What is meant by positive feedback?

A

When a stimulus returns the system to its original (optimum) level, and prevent any overshoots.

148
Q

Why are there separate negative feedback mechanisms that control departures from the normal in either direction?

A

To give a greater degree of homeostatic control.

149
Q

What characteristics do hormones have in common?

A
  • Produced in glands, which secrete them into the blood (endocrine glands).
  • Carried in blood plasma to the target cell.
  • Have specific receptors on their cell-surface membrane that are complimentary to the cell in which they act.
  • Are effective in very low concentrations but often widespread and long-lasting.
150
Q

Describe the second messenger model (with blood glucose conc as an example).

A
  • Adrenaline binds to transmembrane protein receptors within cell-surface membrane of liver cells.
  • Causing the protein to change shape on the inside membrane.
  • Leading to the activation of adenyl cyclase that converts ATP to cAMP.
  • cAMP acts as a second messenger that binds to protein kinase enzyme, changing its shape and activating it.
  • This catalyses the conversion of glycogen to glucose that moves out of the liver cell by facilitated diffusion, into the blood via channel proteins.
151
Q

What cells make up the panceurs?

A
  • Mostly cells that produce digestive enzymes.

- hormone producing, islets of Langerhans.

152
Q

Describe the cells of the islets of Langerhans?

A
  • α cells: Larger and produce glucagon.

- β cells: Smaller and produce insulin.

153
Q

What are hepatocytes?

A

Cells that make up the liver.

154
Q

What processes associated with regulating blood sugar take place in the liver?

A
  • Glycogenesis.
  • Glycogenolysis.
  • Gluconeogenesis.
155
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A
  • The conversion of glucose into glycogen.

- When blood glucose is high the liver can store glycogen.

156
Q

What is glycogenolysis

A
  • The breakdown of glycogen to glucose.

- When blood glucose is low the liver can restore it back to normal.

157
Q

Gluconeogenesis?

A
  • The production of glucose from sources other than carbohydrates.
  • When glycogen stores are exhausted, the liver can produce glucose from molecules such as glycerol and amino-acids.
158
Q

What is the main consequence of low blood glucose?

A
  • Cells deprived of energy, leading to death.
159
Q

What is the main consequence of high blood glucose??

A
  • Lowers water potential of the blood, causing dehydration.
160
Q

What factors affect blood glucose?

A
  • Diet: as glucose hydrolysed from carbohydrates (like starch, maltose, lactose and sucrose.)
  • Glycogenolysis
  • Gluconeogenesis.
161
Q

What hormones help maintain blood glucose?

A
  • Insulin.
  • Glucagon.
  • Adrenaline.
162
Q

What type of protein is insulin?

A

Globular

made from 51 amino acids.

163
Q

What do almost all body cells have (with insulin in mind)?

A

Glycoprotein receptors on their cell-surface membrane that is complimentary to insulin.

164
Q

What happens once insulin binds to glycoprotein receptors?

A
  • Changes the tertiary structure of glucose transport carrier proteins, causing them to change shape and open. So, more glucose makes into the cell by facilitated diffusion.
  • Vesicles with the carrier proteins fuse with the cell-surface membrane, so increases the number of glucose transport channels.
  • Enzymes are activated that convert glucose to glycogen and fat.
165
Q

What are the ways in which blood glucose concentrations are lowered?

A
  • Increasing the rate of absorption of glucose into the cell (especially in muscles).
  • Increasing the respiratory rate of cells, using up more glucose, increasing the uptake of glucose from the blood.
  • Increasing the rate of conversion of glycogenesis in the cells of the liver and muscle.
  • Increasing the rate of conversion of glucose to fat.
166
Q

What does the lowering of blood glucose concentration lead to?

(still above optimum)

A

β-cells to reduce their secretion of insulin.

negative feedback

167
Q

Other than glucagon, what hormone helps increase blood glucose concentrations?

A

Adrenalin.

168
Q

How does adrenalin increase blood glucose concentration?

A
  • by attaching to protein receptors on the cell-surface membrane of targeted cells.
  • by activating enzymes that cause the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver
169
Q

As the concentration of insulin in the blood increases, the secretion of insulin…

A

reduces.

170
Q

What is the relation between insulin and glucagon?

A

They act antagonistically.

171
Q

Summarise what happens to return the blood glucose to optimal levels?

A
  • Rise in BGconc detected by β-cells of the pancreas.
  • They produce/secrete insulin into blood.
  • This increases cellular respiration, converts glucose to glycogen, converts glucose to fat, and absorbs glucose into cells.
  • BGconc falls.
  • Fall in BGconc detected by α-cells of the pancreas.
  • They produce/secrete glucagon into blood.
  • This coverts glycogen to glucose and amino acids to glucose.
  • An uncontrolled quantity of glucose may also enter from the intestines (after digestion).
  • BGconc rises

(cycle repeats to maintain optimal conc)

172
Q

What are the alternative names for diabetes types I and II?

A

Type I: insulin-dependent

Type II: insulin-independent

173
Q

Describe features of Type I diabetes?

A
  • Body is unable to produce insulin.
  • Normally begins in childhood.
  • May be caused by the body’s immune system attacking β-cells of the islets of Langerhans.
  • develops quickly over a few weeks.
174
Q

What the signs and symptoms of Type I diabetes?

A

Signs:

  • High BGconc.
  • Glucose in urine.
  • Need to urinate excessively.
  • Genital itching/ regular episodes of thrush.
  • Weight loss.
  • Blurred vision.

Symptoms:

  • Tiredness
  • Increased thirst and hunger
175
Q

Describe features of Type II diabetes?

A
  • Due to glycoprotein receptors on body cells being lost or losing their responsiveness to insulin.
  • May also be due to an inadequate supply of insulin from the pancreas.
  • Usually develops in over 40s, however, poor diet and obesity may lead to it.
  • develops slowly with less severe/unnoticed symptoms.
176
Q

How is type I diabetes treated?

A
  • Injecting insulin, two or four times a day.

- With the does matched to the glucose intake.

177
Q

How are insulin injections matched to glucose intake?

A

Using biosensors.

178
Q

Why is insulin not taken by mouth?

A

It would be digested in the alimentary canal (digestive system).

179
Q

How is type II diabetes treated?

A
  • by regulating the intake of carbohydrate in the diet, and matching this to the amount of exercise done.
  • In some cases supplemented by injections or drugs that stimulate insulin production or slows down the rate of glucose absorption.
180
Q

Whta is osmoregulation?

A

The homeostatic control of water potential of the blood.

181
Q

what organ carries out osmoregulation?

A

Kidney.

182
Q

What is a nephron?

A

The functional unit of the kidney.

183
Q

What structures make up the mammalian kidney?

A
  • Fibrous capsule: Outer membrane.
  • Cortex: lighter coloured outer region made up of renal (Bowman’s) capsules.
  • Medulla: darker coloured inner region made up of loops of Henle, collecting ducts and blood vessels.
  • Renal pelvis: funnel-shaped cavity that collects urine into ureter.
  • Ureter: tube that carries urine to bladder.
  • Renal artery: supplies kidney with blood from heart via aorta.
  • Renal vein: returns blood to heart via vena cava.
184
Q

List the structures of the nephron.

A
  • Renal (Bowman’s capsule.
  • Proximal convoluted tubule.
  • Loop of Henle.
  • Distal convoluted tubule.
  • Collecting duct.
185
Q

Describe the renal (Bowman’s) capsule.

A
  • closed end at start of nephron.
  • Cup-shaped.
  • surrounded by blood capillaries (glomerulus).
  • Inner layer made up of podocytes.
186
Q

Describe the proximal convoluted tubule.

A

A series of loops surrounded by blood capillaries.

  • Walls are made of epithelial cells that have microvilli.
187
Q

Describe the loop of Henle.

A
  • Long, hairpin loop that extend from cortex into medulla and back again.
  • Surrounded by capillaries.
188
Q

Describe the distal convoluted tubule.

A
  • Series of loops surrounded by blood capillaries.
  • Walls made of epithelial cells.
  • Fewer capillaries than the PCT.
189
Q

Describe the collecting duct.

A
  • Tube into which a number of DCTs from a number of nephrons empty.
  • Lined with epithelial cells and become increasingly wide as it empties into the pelvis of the kidney.
190
Q

List the blood vessels that are associated with the nephron

A
  • Afferent arteriole.
  • Glomerulus.
  • Efferent arteriole.
  • Blood capillaries.
191
Q

Describe the afferent arterioles?

A
  • Tiny vessels that arise from the renal artery.

- Supplies nephron with blood.

192
Q

Describe the glemerulus?

A
  • Many branched knot of capillaries that fluid is forced out of the blood.
  • capillaries recombine to form efferent arteriole.
193
Q

Describe the efferent arterioles?

A
  • Tiny vessels that leave the renal capsule.
  • Smaller diameter than afferent arteriole.
  • Carries blood away from renal capsule and branches to form blood capillaries.
194
Q

Describe the blood capillaries?

A
  • Concentrated network of capillaries that surround PCT, loop of Henle and DCT.
  • reabsorb mineral salts, glucose, and water.
  • Merge together into venules that merge to form renal veins
195
Q

What are the stages that the nephron carries out during osmoregulation?

A
  • the formation of glomerular filtrate by ultrafiltration.
  • reabsorption of glucose and water by the proximal convoluted tubule.
  • Maintenance of a gradient of sodium ions in the medulla by the loop of Henle.
  • Reabsorption of water by the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts.
196
Q

Describe the process of the formation of glomerular filtrate by ultrafiltration.

A
  • A build-up of hydrostatic pressure takes place in the glomerulus,
  • as a result of the diameter of the afferent arteriole being greater than that of the efferent arteriole.
  • As a result, water glucose and mineral ions are squeezed out of the capillary.
  • This forms the glomerular filtrate.
  • Blood cells and large proteins are unable to pass across the renal capsule as they are too large.
197
Q

What resists the movement of the glomerular filtration out of the glomerulus?

A
  • Capillary endothelial cells.
  • Connective tissue and endothelial cells of the blood capillary.
  • Epithelial cells of the renal capsule.
  • The hydrostatic pressure of the fluid in the renal capsule space.
  • The low water potential of the blood in the glomerulus.
198
Q

What reduces the resistance to the movement of the glomerular filtration out of the glomerulus?

A
  • Podocytes allow filtrate to pass beneath them and through gaps between their branches. So filtrate passes between them rather than through them.
  • The endothelium of the glomerular capillaries has spaces between cells, so fluid can pass between rather than through.
199
Q

How is the proximal convoluted tubule adapted to reabsorb substances into the blood?

A

By having epithelial cells that…

  • have microvilli to provide a large SA:V to reabsorb substances from the filtrate.
  • have infolds at their base to give a large SA:V to transfer reabsorbed substances into blood capillaries.
  • has a high density of mitochondria to provide ATP for active transport.
200
Q

How does proximal convoluted tubule reabsorb substances into the blood?

A
  • Na ions are actively transported out of the cell lining the PCT.
  • Na conc in the cells lowered.
  • Na ions diffuse from the lumen of PCT into epithelial clinging cells through specific carrier proteins by facilitated diffusion.
  • As this happens another molecule (glucose, amino acids, chloride ions etc), are co-transported along with it.
  • These molecules can then diffuse into the blood.
201
Q

Describe the two regions of the loop of Henle?

A
  • Descending limb: narrow, with thin walls that are highly permeable to water.
  • Ascending limb: wider, with thick walls that are impermeable to water.
202
Q

How does the loop of Henle work?

A
  • Na ions are actively transported out of the ascending limb using ATP provided by the many mitochondria in the cell of its wall.
  • This lowers the water potential in the region of the medulla between the two limbs.
  • Water passes out of the descending limb into the interstitial space, by osmosis.
  • This decreases its water potential, reaching a minimum at the tip o the loop.
  • Na ions diffuse out of the filtrate as it moves up the ascending limb, and are actively transported higher up.
  • As a result, the water potential gets progressively higher.
  • This means in the interstitial space between the ascending limb and the collection duct, there is a gradient of increasing ion concentration from the cortex to the medulla.
  • As a result, water in the filtrate moving down the collection duct passes out by osmosis through aquaporins, and this osmotic gradient is maintained.
  • The gradient is also maintained as water moves into blood capillaries which transported it away.

(Counter-current multiplier)

203
Q

What is the role of the distal convoluted tubule?

A
  • To make final adjustments to the water and salts that are reabsorbed.
  • To control the pH of the blood by selectively reabsorbing ions.
204
Q

What may cause a lowered water potential?

A
  • Too little water being consumed.
  • Sweating occurring.
  • Large amounts of ions, e.g sodium ions, being taken in.
205
Q

Describe how the body regulates water potential in response to a fall in the water potential.

A
  • Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect the fall in water potential.
    (as they shrink when the water potential of blood is too low)
  • This causes them to produce ADH and secrete them into capillaries at the posterior pituitary gland.
  • ADH binds to specific protein receptors on the cell-surface membrane of the DCT and collecting duct.
  • This activates phosphorylase within the cell, causing vesicles to fuse with the cell-surface membrane.
  • These vesicles carry plasma membrane that has numerous aquaporins, as a result the permeability to water of the cell-surface membrane increases.
  • The permeability to urea also increases, which moves into the interstitial space further lowering the water potential of fluid around the duct.
  • Both combined lead to more water leaving by osmosis and re-entering the blood.
  • This prevents the water potential of the blood from decreasing any further (will not increase it though)
  • Osmoreseptors also send ner impulse to thrust sensor in the brain in order to seek out more water and increase the water potential.
  • Osmoreseptors detect a rise and send fewer impulse to the pituitary gland.
  • Thus less ADH is released; the permeability of the collecting duct decreases and urea reverts to its former state.
206
Q

What may cause an increased water potential?

A
  • Large volume water being consumed.

- Salts used in metabolism or excreted not being replaced in the diet.