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WSO MQF Flashcards

1
Q 
1. An ECU fault \_\_\_ shutdown powered MIUs and missiles. Therefore, consideration should be given to the potential of \_\_\_ overheat conditions.
A. will; missile
B. will not; MIU
C. will; MIU
D. will; missile
A

B. will not; MIU

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2
Q

2(2). The pilot’s bomb bay and missile jettison control switch will only be usedif ___________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 3 Chap: 3 Para: 3.2
A. jettison by the WCP and radar navigator’s jettison switch is not possible
B. jettison by the WCP and CF-E is impossible
C. the flight safety of the aircraft is in jeopardy
D. proper separation clearance can be ensured.

A

B. jettison by the WCP and CF-E is impossible

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3
Q

3(3). The pilot’s bomb bay and missile jettison control switch will only be used ___________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 7.8
A. as the primary jettison control switch.
B. as a backup to jettison by the Radar Navigator.
C. as a backup to the AJCP.
D. when proper separation clearance can be ensured.

A

B. as a backup to jettison by the Radar Navigator.

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4
Q

4(4). Jettison of missiles from the aft inboard pylon stations is inhibited if:
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.1
A. the bomb door control valve lights are illuminated
B. the missile is HUNG
C. bomb doors are not closed and latched
D. the current TAS does not keep the missile(s) within the proper jettison envelope

A

C. bomb doors are not closed and latched

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5
Q

5(5). The CALCM SMO has no interlocks preventing jettison on the ground. With unlock consent, and power applied to the OAS and the WIU, actuation of ___________while on the ground will result in weapon jettison.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.1
A. D-2 Switch
B. weapon prearm switch
C. jettison switches
D. weapon power switch

A

C. jettison switches

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6
Q

6(6). Selectively jettisoning pylon missiles using the Pilots Bomb Bay and MissileJettison switch, while attempting to retain internal CSRL weapons by pulling the Bomb Door Control Valve circuit breakers, __________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 1.10.1
A. is not authorized
B. is authorized only during an emergency fuel situation
C. is authorized so long as the OAS is shut down before pushing these CBs in
D. is authorized as long as weapons are jettisoned in an approved area

A

A. is not authorized

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7
Q

7(7). Do not jettison pylon any time there are missiles loaded:
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 39 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.1
A. unless the flight safety of the aircraft is in jeopardy.
B. in the aft inboard stations.
C. more forward than aft.
D. on one pylon and not the other.

A

A. unless the flight safety of the aircraft is in jeopardy.

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8
Q

8(8). Do not reposition the ____________after the pylons have been jettisoned.Damage to the pylon lock-unlock actuator could occur.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 39 Chap: 1 Para: 1.11.1
A. WCP PYLON LOCK-UNLOCK switches
B. NUCLEAR LOCK-UNLOCK switch
C. PREARM-SAFE switch
D. pylon jettison consent switches

A

D. pylon jettison consent switches

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9
Q

9(9). With an _____ fault present, damage to equipment may occur if MIU power remains on as a result of selecting _______ power override.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 85 Chap: 1 Para: 1.14.2.7
A. BAY MIU; BAY MIU
B. ECU; ECU
C. BAY UNCMD UE; MIU
D. ECU PWR; MIU

A

B. ECU; ECU

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10
Q

10(10). On the FMU-139 A/B fuze, assume the fuze is armed, if __________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 8D Chap: 2 Para: 2.5
A. the gag rod is retracted
B. the gag rod is extended
C. the low drag arm time shows “X”
D. the interlock button on the fuze face panel is flush with the surface

A

B. the gag rod is extended

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11
Q

1(11). If the Warhead Arming Device indicates _________, assume the fuze is
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 8D Chap: 2 Para: 2.5
A. armed (a black “A” on a red background); armed
B. safe (a white “S” on a green background); armed
C. armed (a white “A” on a red background); armed
D. safe (a black “A” on a red background); safe

A

A. armed (a black “A” on a red background); armed

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12
Q

12(12). The bomb bay door actuator struts must be disconnected:
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.5
A. after external power application
B. before entering the bomb bay if power is applied to the aircraft
C. after engine start
D. when a wing root fan is installed during missile SIT/MIT tests

A

B. before entering the bomb bay if power is applied to the aircraft

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13
Q

13(13). Launcher ground operational switch pin must be installed through the switch_________ to prevent inadvertent removal of the pin.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 37 Chap: 2 Para: 2.25
A. sideways
B. from the top side down
C. upside down
D. at all times

A

B. from the top side down

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14
Q

14(14). If a MASTER FAULT indication is present during the missile status check, ______________
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 11 Chap: 2 Para: 2.9
A. ignore the indications since they only apply to nuclear missiles.
B. remove MIU power after waiting 60 seconds to see if the fault would clear.
C. clear the faults by pressing the applicable buttons on the WCP.
D. turn MIU power off. Call qualified personnel. DO NOT REAPPLY MIU POWER.

A

D. turn MIU power off. Call qualified personnel. DO NOT REAPPLY MIU POWER.

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15
Q

15(15). If missile power is removed for any reason, wait ________ before reapplyingpower or a GPS failure could occur.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 14 Chap: 2 Para: 2.12
A. 60 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 3 minutes
D. 15 seconds

A

D. 15 seconds

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16
Q

16(16). Ensure the OAS time and date are set correctly. Incorrect time and date willcause ________________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 15 Chap: 2 Para: 2.12
A. erroneous target data to be programmed into the missiles
B. a change in Class III setting
C. DATA faults during the missile BIT and could degrade missile accuracy
D. all powered missiles safed and powered down simultaneously

A

C. DATA faults during the missile BIT and could degrade missile accuracy

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17
Q

7(17). Do not enter CF 5x9 during or after accomplishment of the mission substitutionchecklist. Entry of CF 5x9:
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 20 Chap: 2 Para: 2.15
A. should be accomplished repeatedly to ensure OAS acceptance.
B. is inhibited if CF 58 is entered prior to CF 82.
C. can result in targeting information being programmed into the wrong missile.
D. can cause missile shutdown.

A

C. can result in targeting information being programmed into the wrong missile.

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18
Q

18(18). The aircraft will maintain straight and level for a period of _______ beforeto ________ after missile launch. This is to prevent the possibility ofaircraft/missile collision.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 1 Chap: 5 Para: 5.1
A. 15 seconds; 15 seconds
B. 5 seconds; 5 seconds
C. 1 minute; 1 minute
D. 30 seconds; 6 minutes

A

B. 5 seconds; 5 seconds

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19
Q

19(19). The mission plan for flight of aircraft after AGM-86C missile launch must befollowed ______________ when the missile becomes armed
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 27 Chap: 2 Para: 2.20
A. to guarantee safe separation between aircraft
B. to ensure safe separation distance of aircraft from missile
C. to ensure safe separation of missile control surfaces from the telemetry package
D. to guarantee missile is on centerline

A

B. to ensure safe separation distance of aircraft from missile

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20
Q

20(20). Jettison of AGM-86C missiles, or pylons with missiles installed,________unless flight safety of the aircraft is in jeopardy.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 1 Chap: 3 Para: 3.2
A. is prohibited
B. is allowed
C. is prohibited below 3500 feet MSL
D. is prohibited below 3500 feet AGL

A

D. is prohibited below 3500 feet AGL

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21
Q

1(21). To ensure GPS data initialization, a ________ must be present next to the applicable missile location on FRMT 7 prior to Manual or Direct Targeting a missile.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-9 Pg: 16 Chap: 2 Para: 2.13
A. G
B. launch point number
C. direct target designator
D. any of the above

A

D. any of the above

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22
Q

22(22). Prior to opening or closing the main entry door, ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 1-19 Chap: 1 Para: 1.3.1
A. one of the pilot’s sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches
B. the No. 1 pin will be installed in both the navigator and radar navigator seats
C. the pressure bulkhead door will be closed and locked
D. ensure the outside operating handle is flush with the skin of the aircraft

A

A. one of the pilot’s sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches

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23
Q

23(23). When using the CRU-73/A type oxygen regulator ___________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 27 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4
A. the test position will not be used when preflighting the oxygen mask
B. do not select NORMAL position when supply shutoff lever is positioned ON
C. 100% oxygen is automatically supplied when smoke and fumes are present
D. do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF

A

D. do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF

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24
Q

24(24). When using the portable fire extinguisher to combat a pressurized compartment fire, crewmembers using an aircraft regulator will go on 100% OXYGEN immediately, with the emergency toggle lever on the oxygen panel set to the _________ position.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.3
A. NORMAL
B. EMERGENCY
C. 30M
D. 25M

A

A. NORMAL

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25
Q

25(25). On decomposition, Halon 1211 has a characteristic ____________ odor.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.3
A. sharp, acrid
B. pungent
C. toxic
D. acidic

A

A. sharp, acrid

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26
Q

26(26). Halon 1211 has a ________________ level of toxicity.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 36 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.3.
A. weak
B. high
C. hazardous
D. low

A

D. low

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27
Q

27(27). Removing an escape hatch without first disconnecting the ___________ will fire the catapult safety pin pull initiator and leave the ejection seat in an armed condition.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 42 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.12.1.
A. arming lanyard
B. hatch release handle
C. rotary latch handle
D. arming Link

A

D. Arming Link

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28
Q

28(28). The crew bunk is not stressed for high G loads and should _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 46 Chap: 1 Para: 1.17.13
A. be stowed during ejection
B. not be occupied during crash landing or ditching
C. not be occupied in combat
D. removed before flight

A

B. not be occupied during crash landing or ditching

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29
Q

29(29). Utilizing a shock absorbing device other than the survival kit and/or seat cushion designated as standard equipment for the ejection seat, doing so ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 52 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.1
A. creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection and/or crash landing.
B. provides comfort to the occupant during all hard landings
C. decreases the possibility of injury during flight in turbulence
D. is permitted on long flights when parachute wear is mandatory

A

A. creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection and/or crash landing.

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30
Q

30(30). After adjusting your ejection seat from the full down to full up position, waiting the appropriate cooling period, and again adjusting the seat to the full down position, how long must you wait before moving the seat again?
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 60 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.1
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A

C. 5 minutes

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31
Q

31(31). To assure complete release of the integrated harness for manual bailout, ______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 61 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.1
A. lock the inertia reel assembly before pulling the survival kit release handle
B. pull the integrated harness release handle prior to actuating the survival kit release
C. lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle
D. maintain a constant pressure on the release handle until all fittings are clear

A

C. lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle

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32
Q

32(32). Should a downward ejection hatch be inadvertently dropped, the ejection seat at that station ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 69 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.2
A. will be armed but cannot be fired
B. will be armed and can be fired
C. will not be armed and cannot be fired
D. is rendered inoperative

A

B. will be armed and can be fired

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33
Q

33(33). Do not apply __________ on the leg guards since the thruster shear pin may be broken , rendering the leg guards unserviceable.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 73 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.2
A. lubricants
B. downward pressure
C. cleaning fluids
D. upward pressure

A

D. upward pressure

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34
Q

34(34). Do not apply _________ to leg guards during ground operations as a loss of dampening fluid could result, causing rapid movement of the leg guards during ejection sequence.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 73 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.2
A. lubrication
B. cleaning fluids
C. pressure

A

C. pressure

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35
Q

35(35). Pulling the survival kit release handle with the kit not installed in the seat will cause the lid to open, leaving the crewmember attached to the survival kit. In an emergency, this could cause a __________ delay in escaping the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 86 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.5.1.2
A. serious
B. prolong
C. critical
D. fatal

A

D. fatal

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36
Q

36(36). Severe injury may be incurred if ejection is performed with __________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 87 Chap: 1 Para: 1.8.7
A. the helmet chin strap fastened too tightly
B. any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected
C. the landing gear extended and airspeed above 250 KIAS
D. the landing gear retracted and airspeed is above 250 KIAS

A

B. any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected

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37
Q

37(37). Do not place the launcher hydraulic control switch to ON PRIMARY unless ______________, as damage may result to the rotary launcher hydraulic pump.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 268 Chap: 1
A. a rotary launcher is installed
B. operating in Full Simulation(CF-52)mode
C. a rotary launcher is installed and will be rotated
D. the PDUC power switch is OFF

A

C. a rotary launcher is installed and will be rotated

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38
Q

38(38). Do not attempt to free a bomb door control (four-way) valve by _________ as this procedure may damage the bomb door system.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 311 Chap: 1
A. opening the bomb doors
B. reducing hydraulic pressure
C. pulling the affected circuit breaker
D. using the Emergency Bomb Release System

A

A. opening the bomb doors

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39
Q

39(39). Ensure ground personnel are clear of _____ before entering the CF59 command.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 314 Chap: 1 Para: 1.31.2
A. bomb doors
B. all antennas
C. aircraft
D. HF antenna

A

A. bomb doors

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40
Q

40(40). When opening the bomb doors, do not attempt to open the bomb doors with the ____________ switch when the bombing system switch is in AUTO and the OAS operating in the bomb mode.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 314 Chap: 1 Para: 1.31.4
A. pilot’s Missile Select
B. Master Bomb Control
C. PWD-RACK Select
D. pilot’s BOMB DOOR

A

D. pilot’s BOMB DOOR

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41
Q

41(41). Do not attempt to open the bomb doors with the pilot’s bomb door switch when the bombing system switch is in AUTO and the OAS is operating in the bomb mode as the bomb doors will ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 314 Chap: 1 Para: 1.31.4
A. remain closed
B. cause severe buffeting
C. open only to an
D. keep cycling

A

D. keep cycling

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42
Q

42(42). Periodically during flight, each crewmember should check ducts, outlets, electrical wiring and electronic equipment in their immediate area to see that they are _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 358 Chap: 1 Para: 1.43.1
A. free of combustible materials
B. operating in the correct manner
C. not producing noises or vibrations
D. correctly installed and stay that way

A

A. free of combustible materials

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43
Q

43(43). For the cabin to be pressurized, the emergency cabin pressure release handle will be set positively to the ___________ position.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 375 Chap: 1 Para: 1.45.1
A. OPEN
B. INTERMEDIATE
C. CLOSED
D. INACTIVATE

A

C. CLOSED

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44
Q

44(44). Oxygen will rapidly accelerate any ignition source, such as a spark, into a flash fire. Dirt, grease, and hand lotion all can act as fuel to the fire. Therefore, when recharging aportable oxygen bottle, crewmembers will wear__________________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 30 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4.3
A. Nomex flight gloves
B. helmet with visor down
C. Nomex flight gloves and the helmet with visor down
D. Nomex flight gloves and helmet

A

C. Nomex flight gloves and the helmet with visor down

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45
Q

45(45). The __________ is considered the primary means for crew warning.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 478 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.2
A. abandon light
B. call light
C. interphone
D. alarm light

A

C. interphone

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46
Q

46(46). Except __________, all crewmembers must be on interphone at all times.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 478 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.2
A. when cleared by an evaluator or an instructor
B. when specifically cleared by the aircraft commander
C. during operations in the local terminal area
D. during normal high altitude cruise conditions

A

B. when specifically cleared by the aircraft commander

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47
Q

47(47). Hazardous RF voltages can exist between the aircraft skin and ground when transmissions are being made with the ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 579 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.42.1.6
A. liaison radio
B. UHF radio
C. SATCOM equipment
D. AN/APX-64 interphone system

A

A. liaison radio

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48
Q

48(48). Ground transmissions of the AN/ARC-190 liaison radio are prohibited on aircraft ____________ of unloaded nuclear weapons or warheads, aircraft with external weapons with nuclear warheads installed, or nuclear weapons loaded in an aircraft (transmitting or adjacent) with its bomb bay doors open.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 579 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.42.1.6
A. within 200 feet
B. within 500 feet
C. unless within 500 feet
D. within visual range

A

A. within 200 feet

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49
Q

49(49). The ____________ is an electrostatic discharge (ESD) sensitive device. To avoid equipment damage, be sure to follow all ESD (i.e., not touching the connector pins, etc.) procedures when handling, installing, or removing the ____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 581 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.43.3
A. DDLC; DDLC
B. AN/CYZ-10; AN/CYZ-10
C. MRT TM; MRT TM
D. TSM; TSM

A

D. TSM; TSM

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50
Q

50(50). To prevent receiver-transmitter lock-up, ___________ prior to SATCOM control turn-on.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 592 Chap: 1
A. position the function selector switch to OFF or SATL
B. turn printer power ON
C. install the Time Standard Module (TSM)
D. ensure printer power is OFF

A

B. turn printer power ON

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51
Q

51(51). Some of the BIT tests cause the receiver/transmitter (RT) to transmit. To prevent hazards, remain at least _____ feet from the SATCOM antenna.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 617 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.45.7.1
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75

A

A. 10

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52
Q

52(52). The MRT will only be operated with aircraft cooling air available to the MRT receiver. Operation of the receiver without cooling air will _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 635 Chap: 1 Para: 1.51.48.1
A. cause degraded system operation
B. cause a BIT fault to occur
C. automatically remove power from the receiver
D. burn up the receiver unit

A

D. burn up the receiver unit

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53
Q

53(53). During operation of the STV on the ground, precautions should be taken to eliminate stationary sources of high intensity illumination (ramp lights, reflections fromobjects, vehicle headlights, etc.) from within the field of view prior to continued operation of _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 691 Chap: 1 Para: 1.56.1
A. the FLIR in the operate mode
B. either sensor in the operate mode
C. the FLIR in the standby mode
D. the STV in the operate mode

A

D. the STV in the operate mode

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54
Q

54(54). Lethal voltage exists on the surface of the FLIR turret window during normal EVS flight operations and this voltage should be inhibited during ground operation. However, as an added precaution, ensure the FLIR Turret Air Switch is in the _____ position prior to performing any maintenance, other than operational checkout on or near the FLIR turret.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 696 Chap: 1 Para: 1.56.8
A. STANDBY
B. OPERATE
C. OFF
D. NEUTRAL

A

C. OFF

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55
Q

55(55). If the EVS monitor overheat light cannot be extinguished by providing increased cooling air within _____, the monitor should be turned off or equipment damage can be expected.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 704 Chap: 1
A. 5 minutes after initial illumination
B. 120 seconds after the second illumination
C. 3 minutes after the initial illumination
D. 120 seconds after the initial illumination

A

A. 5 minutes after initial illumination

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56
Q 
56(56). Use of the \_\_\_\_\_ feature may cause FLIR system damage and should only be used in case of urgent need for uninterrupted FLIR system operations.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 712 Chap: 1
A. SIG PROC
B. OVHT
C. override
D. manual tuning
A

C. override

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57
Q 
57(57). Use of the STV system \_\_\_\_\_ switch disables the camera tube assembly protection circuits and can result in permanent damage to the sensor tube.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 714 Chap: 1
A. OVLD/OVRD
B. IRIS
C. OPR/STBY
D. ALC
A

A. OVLD/OVRD

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58
Q

58(58). The _________ is not stressed for crash landing or ditching. Therefore, it should not be occupied during any takeoff or landing.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 737 Chap: 1 Para: 1.68.24
A. crew bunk
B. ejection seat
C. DI seat
D. 47 section

A

A. crew bunk

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59
Q

59(59). To avoid injury to personnel when using theType B-1 hot cup, do no allow the hot cup to operate without_____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 737 Chap: 1 Para: 1.68.20
A. first informing the pilot
B. being cleaned
C. all generators operating
D. liquid or semi solid food

A

D. liquid or semi solid food

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60
Q

60(60). The upper deck sliding hatch will be open and locked prior to ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 8 Chap: 2 Para: 2.3
A. taxiing
B. all standard turn using a bank angle of 15 degrees or less
C. starting engines
D. cruise

A

C. starting engines

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61
Q 
61(61). Additional protection, such as flight line crew helmets, is required in areas with noise levels greater than \_\_\_\_\_ DBs.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 55 Chap: 2
A. 90
B. 120
C. 140
D. 170
A

C. 140

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62
Q

62(62). A starter turbine disintegration area exists ____________________
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 56 Chap: 2
A. around the cartridge starter exhaust directly below the nacelles of all engines.
B. 35 feet in front of each engine.
C. to the side and aft of the starter turbine area.
D. 200 feet to the side and behind each engine.

A

C. to the side and aft of the starter turbine area.

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63
Q 
63(63). The exhaust blast danger area is \_\_\_\_\_ feet to the rear of all engines without a blast deflector.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 56 Chap: 2
A. 100
B. 150
C. 200
D. 300
A

D. 300

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64
Q

64(64). During cartridge starts, the engine cartridge starter exhaust is 850 degrees F. Therefore, remain clear of _________ the cartridge starter exhaust directly below the nacelles.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 56 Chap: 2
A. the area 25 feet to the front of
B. a 4-foot radius area around
C. an area to the sides of the starter turbines near
D. the area 25 feet to the sides of

A

B. a 4-foot radius area around

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65
Q 
65(65). The engine inlet danger area is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet to the front of the engines.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 56 Chap: 2
A. 35
B. 45
C. 50
D. 75
A

A. 35

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66
Q

66(66). Takeoff will not be aborted __________ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the aircraft definitely unsafe to attain emergency bailout altitude.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 74 Chap: 2 Para: 2.18
A. after S2
B. before S1
C. after S1
D. before the 70 knot check

A

C. after S1

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67
Q

67(67). Except, __________, air refueling operations will not be conducted when radio communications capability is lost between tanker and receiver.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 90 Chap: 2 Para: 2.25.3.1
A. with pre-briefing on the ground
B. for ORI/BUY NONE flights
C. during an emergency fuel situation
D. for annual check requirements

A

C. during an emergency fuel situation

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68
Q

68(68). Receivers required to accelerate and climb on the refueling heading will maneuver either left or right a minimum of ________NM of the tankers/remaining receivers, prior to accelerating and climbing.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 100 Chap: 2 Para: 2.26.3.2
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

A

B. 1

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69
Q

9(69). In the event weather conditions may affect the accomplishment of the rendezvous, a capable _________ will be specifically designated to maintain radar weather watch.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 101 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27.1.3
A. pilot
B. tanker
C. radar navigator
D. receiver

A

D. receiver

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70
Q

70(70). To help ensure safe separation of airplanes during descent when range to the tanker is not known, descent will ______________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 110 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27.9
A. be delayed until radar contact is established
B. not be unnecessarily delayed
C. be delayed until radio contact is established
D. not be started until visual contact is made

A

B. not be unnecessarily delayed

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71
Q

71(71). Any time it becomes apparent that closure overrunning will occur, _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 103 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27.4
A. a breakaway will be called
B. descend to the bottom of the altitude block
C. maintain visual separation
D. start a 1000 fpm descent

A

A. a breakaway will be called

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72
Q

72(72). During air refueling, the best and most positive means to obtain vertical and horizontal separation is to __________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 103 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27.4
A. extend airbrakes 6
B. lower airbrakes
C. lower the receiver landing gear
D. reduce throttles to idle

A

C. lower the receiver landing gear

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73
Q

73(73). If the receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time after overrunning, the receiver shall _________ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 103 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27.4
A. establish a positive rate of climb to the top of the refueling block
B. maneuver either left or right of track and maintain a minimum of 1 NM separation
C. establish a positive rate of descent to 1,000 feet below air refueling altitude
D. terminate air refueling operations and contact ARTCC for further clearance

A

C. establish a positive rate of descent to 1,000 feet below air refueling altitude

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74
Q

74(74). When close interval stream operations are being conducted, _____________ to control timing.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 118 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27.11
A. use orbit delays
B. use airspeed and double drifts
C. use differential airspeed
D. do not use orbit delays

A

D. do not use orbit delays

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75
Q

75(75). Prior to refueling, if the control cabin is not pressurized, ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 121 Chap: 2 Para: 2.28.3
A. all unnecessary electrical equipment should be turned off
B. return to base, do not air refuel
C. delay using FLIR until visual contact with the tanker is made
D. ensure the OAS radar is in the standby mode.

A

. all unnecessary electrical equipment should be turned off

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76
Q

76(76). To eliminate potential fire hazards, the OAS radar should not be operated in RADIATE during air refueling if _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 139 Chap: 2 Para: 2.31
A. a STV malfunction is occurring
B. a doppler malfunction is occurring
C. the antenna tilt is a negative value
D. a radar malfunction is occurring

A

D. a radar malfunction is occurring

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77
Q

77(77). To prevent damage to the air refueling slipway doors, do not exceed _______ KIAS when slipway doors are open.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 139 Chap: 2 Para: 2.31
A. 250
B. 275
C. 280
D. 300

A

D. 300

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78
Q

78(78). During KC-10 refueling operations, do not transmit on the _________when in contact with or when in close proximity to the air refueling boom.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 143 Chap: 2 Para: 2.34.1.3
A. UHF radio
B. secure radio
C. HF radio
D. interphone

A

C. HF radio

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79
Q

79(79). Commence an immediate climb to a safe altitude if any _____ is noted during any phase of low level operation.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 170 Chap: 2 Para: 2.40
A. wind condition
B. distraction
C. icing
D. sleeping

A

B. distraction

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80
Q

80(80). when flying TA with FRL stabilization selected, large altitude errors can occur while maintaining the terrain trace coincident with the HRL if the airspeed or gross weight changes without resetting the FRL angle. If the airspeed increases or the gross weight decreases and the FRL angle is not changed, __________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 173 Chap: 2 Para: 2.40
A. the aircraft will descend to a lower radar altitude.
B. the angle of attack computer will not supply the proper correcting signal to the TA system.
C. the aircraft will climb to a higher radar altitude.
D. the TA system will contain no vertical scaling of obstacle height.

A

C. the aircraft will climb to a higher radar altitude.

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81
Q

81(81). All altitudes referred to concerning airborne radar approaches except _____ altitudes are absolute altitudes above the terrain.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 200 Chap: 2 Para: 2.49
A. minimum descent
B. missed approach
C. penetration
D. high key

A

C. penetration

82
Q

82(82). If _________________ were carried the flight crew must visually check the bomb bay prior to opening bomb doors.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 227 Chap: 2 Para: 2.62
A. internal weapons
B. external weapons
C. live weapons
D. inert weapons

A

A. internal weapons

83
Q

83(83). In case of an engine fire on the ground, CO2 should not be directed into the _____ unless the fire is restricted to those area and is of serious proportions.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 14 Chap: 3 Para: 3.4
A. engine air inlet or tailpipe
B. starter turbine area
C. air bleed manifold
D. EGT sensor areas

A

A. engine air inlet or tailpipe

84
Q

84(84). During an emergency egress crewmembers will be aware of protruding objects on the sides of the aircraft fuselage, and attempt to avoid these objects by _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 21 Chap: 3 Para: 3.13
A. breaking them off with a crash ax
B. pushing away from the fuselage with your feet
C. using them as handholds
D. jumping out and past the objects

A

B. pushing away from the fuselage with your feet

85
Q

85(85). For crash landing or ditching immediately after takeoff; if unable to sustain controlled flight, _____ is imperative and offers the best chance for survival.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 21 Chap: 3 Para: 3.13
A. secure equipment and locking the shoulder harness
B. lowering the landing gear (up for ditching)
C. immediate bailout of all possible crewmembers
D. jettisoning an upward escape hatch

A

C. immediate bailout of all possible crewmembers

86
Q

86(86). Under takeoff thrust conditions and with low temperature selection, fog or vapor resembling smoke can occur. Reporting this vapor as smoke or fire _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 25 Chap: 3 Para: 3.16
A. at a critical point of the takeoff could create a hazard
B. at a critical point of takeoff will not create a hazard
C. is required in order to safely abort the takeoff
D. will result in an uncontrolled egress after takeoff

A

A. at a critical point of the takeoff could create a hazard

87
Q

87(87). During smoke and fumes elimination, do not depressurize the aircraft until all crewmembers are on oxygen and _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 26 Chap: 3 Para: 3.17
A. all required electrical equipment is off
B. the controlling ARTCC center is notified
C. the cabin altitude is 42,000 feet or below
D. the aircraft altitude is 42,000 feet or below

A

D. the aircraft altitude is 42,000 feet or below

88
Q

88(88). While flying at FL250, you discover smoke emerging from the ‘wine cellar.’ Suspecting an electrical short, you connect to a portable oxygen bottle and proceed to investigate. Given consideration to the aircraft altitude, the oxygen bottle regulator should be set to___________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 27 Chap: 3 Para: 3.19
A. 30M
B. 25M
C. EMERG
D. NORMAL

A

A. 30M

89
Q

89(89). The supply in the portable oxygen bottle will last a minimum of 4 minutes depending on ______________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 27 Chap: 3 Para: 3.19
A. diluter lever setting, cabin altitude, and physical activity
B. regulator setting, cabin altitude, and physical activity
C. diluter lever setting, aircraft altitude, and physical activity
D. regulator setting and aircraft oxygen supply pressure

A

B. regulator setting, cabin altitude, and physical activity

90
Q

90(90). When fighting a fire with the Halon 1211 fire extinguisher, the supply of extinguisher agent is depleted in approximately _________ seconds of continuous use.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 27 Chap: 3 Para: 3.19
A. 12-15
B. 2-3
C. 22
D. 4

A

A. 12-15

91
Q

91(91). In the event of fire in the forward wheel well area, the jettisoning of an escape hatch will ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 28 Chap: 3 Para: 3.19
A. result in rapid dissipation of smoke in the crew compartment
B. prevent flames from spreading into the crew compartment
C. cause smoke and flames to be drawn into the crew compartment
D. be delayed in an attempt to control the fire

A

C. cause smoke and flames to be drawn into the crew compartment

92
Q

92(92). In the event of a fire in the crew compartment, _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 28 Chap: 3 Para: 3.19
A. the revised order of bailout would be N, RN, EXTRA CREWMEMBERS, G, EW, CP, and P
B. the air conditioning master switch must be placed to EMEERG RH INBD
C. the revised order of bailout would be N, EXTRA CREWMEMBERS, RN, G, EW, CP, AND P
D. the jettisoning of an escape hatch will dissipate smoke and flames

A

C. the revised order of bailout would be N, EXTRA CREWMEMBERS, RN, G, EW, CP, AND P

93
Q

93(93). In-flight loss of the nose radome will cause complete loss of airspeed and Machindications during all flight conditions, as well as an increase in noise level accompanied with ___________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 41 Chap: 3 Para: 3.27
A. primary structural failure
B. loss of all pitot static instruments
C. a severe pitch up
D. possible buffeting

A

D. possible buffeting

94
Q

94(94). In-flight loss of the nose radome will cause _____ during all flight conditions.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 41 Chap: 3 Para: 3.27
A. airspeed indications to fluctuate 2 or 3 knots
B. a complete loss of airspeed and Mach indications
C. a complete loss of both STV and FLIR displays
D. primary structural failure

A

B. a complete loss of airspeed and Mach indications

95
Q

95(95). After experiencing a known bird strike, static discharge, or a lightning strike, airspeed should be reduced so as not to exceed ____________ whichever is lower for the remainder of the flight.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 47 Chap: 3 Para: 3.30.2
A. 250 KIAS or Mach .77
B. 270 KIAS or Mach .75
C. 270 KIAS or Mach .70
D. 390 KIAS or mach .84

A

A. 250 KIAS or Mach .77

96
Q

96(96). Known bird strikes, static discharges, and lightning strikes should be considered to have caused _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 47 Chap: 3 Para: 3.30.2
A. some damage
B. at least secondary structural damage
C. at least primary structural damage
D. little or no damage

A

B. at least secondary structural damage

97
Q

97(97). If an explosive decompression occurs above 42,000 feet, descend immediately to _____ feet or below.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 51 Chap: 3 Para: 3.32
A. 10,000
B. 25,000
C. 38,000
D. 42,000

A

D. 42,000

98
Q

98(98). Immediately following a bailout alarm, crewmembers not occupying ejection seats should _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 54 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41
A. ensure safety belt is fastened and emergency equipment is in readiness
B. prior to depressurization, proceed to the lower deck in the order briefed
C. ascertain that emergency equipment is immediately available
D. check their equipment and proceed to the lower deck after depressurization

A

D. check their equipment and proceed to the lower deck after depressurization

99
Q

99(99). When the aircraft is below _____ feet above the terrain or if aircraft control is lost above 15000 feet AGL, crewmembers occupying ejection seats should eject immediately upon receiving the bailout command by either interphone or abandon signal.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 54 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41
A. 2,000
B. 3,000
C. 10,000
D. 14,000

A

A. 2,000

100
Q

100(100). During flight, the pilot claims difficulty in maintaining control of the aircraft and alerts the crew over interphone to prepare to abandon the aircraft. Immediately following this alarm, you should ______________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 54 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41
A. ascertain your safety belt is fastened, ejection seat flight safety pins are removed, and emergency equipment is ready
B. fasten your helmet and parachute, and immediately eject from the aircraft
C. delay your ejection until the copilot confirms the difficulty in maintaining control
D. tighten your parachute straps, check seat pins are removed, and emergency equipment is ready.

A

A. ascertain your safety belt is fastened, ejection seat flight safety pins are removed, and emergency equipment is ready
B. fasten your helmet and

101
Q

101(101). Ejection of other crewmembers will not be delayed while pilots ____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 55 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41
A. call command post
B. prepare for ejection
C. remove night vision goggles
D. confirm ejection procedures

A

C. remove night vision goggles

102
Q

102(102). Do not delay ejection to below ________ feet above the terrain in futile attempts to start engines or for any other reason that may commit you to an unsafe ejection or adangerous landing. Accident statistics emphatically show a progressive decrease insuccessful ejections as altitude decreases below ______feet above the terrain.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 57 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41.1.1
A. 250
B. 800
C. 1,000
D. 2,000

A

D. 2,000

103
Q

103(103). Manually pull the ripcord T-handle to open automatic parachute _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 57 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41.1.1
A. as soon as stable in the chute to lessen impact shock
B. immediately following seat separation
C. for all ejection seats not equipped with a man-seat separator
D. for all ejections below 14,000 feet

A

D. for all ejections below 14,000 feet

104
Q

104(104). If the parachute automatic opening device has obviously failed, pull the ______ to open the parachute.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 57 Chap: 3 Para: 3.41.1.1
A. survival kit release handle
B. parachute arming lanyard
C. ripcord T-handle manually
D. integrated harness release handle

A

C. ripcord T-handle manually

105
Q

105(105). To ensure survival during extremely low altitude ejections, _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 59 Chap: 3
A. disconnect the zero delay lanyard and use the T-handle in order to bypass the parachute time delay
B. pull the parachute arming knob prior to ejection
C. the automatic features of the equipment must be depended on
D. eject at the lowest practical airspeed below 120 KIAS

A

C. the automatic features of the equipment must be depended on

106
Q

106(106). With the landing gear retracted (UP), maximum airspeed for manual bailout from the navigator’s open escape hatch is _____ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 60 Chap: 3 Para: 3.42
A. 250
B. 275
C. 285
D. 300

A

B. 275

107
Q

7(107). Do not attempt downward ejection _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 60 Chap: 3 Para: 3.42
A. with the safety belt unfastened under any circumstances
B. at airspeeds in excess of 325 KIAS
C. at airspeeds in excess of 275 KIAS
D. with the inertia reel locked under any circumstances

A

A. with the safety belt unfastened under any circumstances

108
Q

108(108). With the landing gear extended (down), maximum airspeed for manual bailout from the navigator’s open escape hatch is _____ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 60 Chap: 3 Para: 3.42
A. 285
B. 275
C. 250
D. 230

A

C. 250

109
Q

109(109). You have ejected, have stabilized in the parachute, and the survival kit does not automatically deploy. Your next action should be to _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 69 Chap: 3 Para: 3.44
A. pull the survival kit arming knob
B. release the left side of the survival kit
C. pull the survival kit release handle
D. manually detach the survival kit after impact

A

C. pull the survival kit release handle

110
Q

110(110). When pulling the trigger ring, the trigger ring will be held tightly during ejection to prevent _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 70 Chap: 3 Para: 3.45
A. flailing of the arms
B. flailing of the legs
C. possible back injuries
D. possible leg injuries

A

A. flailing of the arms

111
Q

111(111). If the trigger ring does not fire the catapult and the escape hatch has departed the aircraft, your next action is to pull upward on the _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 70 Chap: 3 Para: 3.45
A. manual catapult pin-pull handle
B. trigger ring again
C. integrated release handle
D. manual hatch release handle

A

A. manual catapult pin-pull handle

112
Q

112(112). During ejection bailout, if the hatch does not jettison, _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 70 Chap: 3 Para: 3.45
A. pull the catapult initiator pin-pull release handle
B. attempt to manually release the hatch
C. stow and again rotate the arming levers
D. proceed with non-ejection (manual) bailout

A

D. proceed with non-ejection (manual) bailout

113
Q

113(113). When pulling the trigger ring, the elbows will be kept _____ to prevent injury.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 70 Chap: 3 Para: 3.45
A. in against the body
B. away from the body
C. bent with fists extended upward
D. straight with clenched fists

A

A. in against the body

114
Q

114(114). After ejection, if the integrated harness fails to release, pull the integrated harness release handle, then _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 70 Chap: 3 Para: 3.45
A. kick free of the seat with positive action
B. immediately deploy the survival kit
C. rely on automatic feature of the parachute
D. pull the bailout bottle release knob

A

A. kick free of the seat with positive action

115
Q

115(115). If the ejection seat fails to depart the aircraft, proceed with non-ejection manual bailout as follows:
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 70 Chap: 3 Para: 3.45
A. Safe the seat, release the survival kit, and open the safety belt after unlocking the inertia reel
B. Pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertia reel, then open the seatbelt
C. Disconnect the arming lanyard, lock the inertia reel, and pull the integrated harness release handle
D. Pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertia reel, then pull the integrated harness release handle

A

D. Pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertia reel, then pull the integrated harness release handle

116
Q

116(116). Do not pull the survival kit release handle while in the aircraft ________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 71 Chap: 3 Para: 3.46.1.1
A. before pulling the integrated harness release handle
B. when the kit not installed in the seat
C. with the inertia reel unlocked
D. with the kit installed in the seat

A

B. when the kit not installed in the seat

117
Q

117(117). For a manual bailout, detachment of the survival kit is necessary because the bulk of the kit would hamper or prevent egress. In this situation, be sure to pull the kit release handle ______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 71 Chap: 3 Para: 3.46.1.1
A. on the left side of the seat
B. while sitting on the kit
C. with the kit suspended
D. after rolling forward and downward

A

B. while sitting on the kit

118
Q

118(118). During hatch jettison, unrestrained crewmembers _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 75 Chap: 3 Para: 3.47
A. will preposition themselves aft of the navigator’s seat prior to depressurization to expedite bailout
B. will remain in position until all lower deck ejection seats have fired
C. should experience no difficulty if in bailout position prior to depressurization
D. are subject to injury by air currents caused by depressurization

A

D. are subject to injury by air currents caused by depressurization

119
Q 
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 75 Chap: 3 Para: 3.47
A. head first
B. from the side of the hatch
C. by rolling forward and downward
D. with arms and legs close to your body
A

B. from the side of the hatch

120
Q

120(120). Manual bailout from the downward escape hatches with the body in an extended position _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 75 Chap: 3 Para: 3.47
A. greatly reduces parachute opening shock
B. is the recommended alternate bailout procedure
C. would result in bodily injuries even at moderate airspeeds
D. is the recommended procedure when bailing out with the survival kit attached

A

C. would result in bodily injuries even at moderate airspeeds

121
Q

121(121). If overrunning does occur, under no conditions should a___________ until positive separation has been attained.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 76 Chap: 3 Para: 3.48.1
A. climb be made
B. turn be made
C. descent be made
D. radio call be made

A

B. turn be made

122
Q

122(122). Due to the hazards involved, installation of the downlocks in flight is _______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 88 Chap: 3 Para: 3.50
A. recommended
B. not recommended
C. prohibited
D. not necessary

A

B. not recommended

123
Q

123(123). If a ground emergency arises necessitating immediate abandonment of the aircraft under unplanned circumstances, all crewmembers will ______________ in the quickest possible manner to evacuate the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 129 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68
A. free themselves of parachute and survival kit
B. don emergency equipment
C. remove helmet and gloves
D. free themselves of parachute and safety belt

A

D. free themselves of parachute and safety belt

124
Q

124(124). If, after the alert signal has been given to warn the crew to stand by for ditching or crash landing, the abandon (steady light) signal is given, the crew should _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 129 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68
A. acknowledge over interphone
B. assume a crash landing position
C. bail out immediately
D. remain in position

A

C. bail out immediately

125
Q

125(125). To prevent personal injury while using the escape ropes, _____ before using them.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 131 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68
A. carefully grasp the knotted end
B. carefully wrap it around your arm
C. attach the loose end to the hatch frame
D. ascertain that they are fully extended

A

D. ascertain that they are fully extended

126
Q

126(126). The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertia reel is locked. Therefore, _____ not readily accessible should be properly positioned prior to locking the shoulder harness.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 131 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68
A. all equipment
B. all switches
C. personal belongings
D. emergency equipment

A

B. all switches

127
Q

127(127). In a ditching situation, it is recommended that _________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 132 Chap: 3 Para: 3.68
A. all crewmembers bailout
B. all crewmembers remain with the aircraft
C. the aircraft be ditched in a slightly nosedown attitude
D. only extra crewmembers bailout

A

A. all crewmembers bailout

128
Q

128(128). When the bomb bay doors are operated with hydraulic power to only the forward bomb door actuator, aircraft speed should not exceed ________KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 172 Chap: 3 Para: 3.80.4
A. 250
B. 275
C. 300
D. 325

A

D. 325

129
Q

129(129). Unlatching the bomb doors using the aft bomb door latch release cable ______ with power on the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 172 Chap: 3 Para: 3.80.5
A. can be accomplished on alert aircraft
B. is impossible
C. will not be attempted
D. should be accomplished after parking

A

C. will not be attempted

130
Q

130(130). If the popped circuit breaker is associated with the fuel system flow indicators, fuel pumps, or fuel valves, do not reset the circuit breaker(s) unless_________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 180 Chap: 3 Para: 3.84.1.2
A. a fuel imbalance of 1000 lbs or less exists
B. necessary for safe recovery of the aircraft
C. volts and amps read correctly
D. the corresponding fuel tank will be used in flight

A

B. necessary for safe recovery of the aircraft

131
Q

131(131). Changing fuses located in the power distribution boxes, load boxes, and panels (excluding neon light indicating fuses on panels at crew stations) in-flight __________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 180 Chap: 3 Para: 3.84.1.1
A. can be done safely, provided the crewmember wears flight gloves
B. is at the discretion of the crew member, provided a proper amperage fuse is available
C. should be done one at a time only, to ensure the correct fuse is replaced
D. is extremely dangerous and should not be attempted unless a serious emergency exists

A

D. is extremely dangerous and should not be attempted unless a serious emergency exists

132
Q

132(132). Hazardous conditions exist at _____ when combustible materials are stored on hot air ducts or close to hot air duct outlets.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 265 Chap: 3 Para: 3.108
A. low altitude
B. high altitude
C. all altitudes
D. TA altitude

A

C. all altitudes

133
Q

133(133). All crewmembers should avoid possible harmful effects of breathing the powder when failure of the air conditioning filter occurs by __________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 269 Chap: 3 Para: 3.115
A. going on NORMAL OXYGEN and EMERGENCY
B. closing all air conditioning outlets
C. going on 100% OXYGEN and EMERGENCY
D. going on 100% OXYGEN

A

D. going on 100% OXYGEN

134
Q

134(134). Failure of the cabin temperature control system which results in a full cold situation is cause ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 269 Chap: 3 Para: 3.114
A. to abort flight at altitude
B. for an immediate landing
C. to abort the mission and land as soon as practical
D. for continuous monitoring of OAS operating temperature

A

A. to abort flight at altitude

135
Q

135(135). Failure of the cabin temperature modulating valve in the full hot position will _____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 269 Chap: 3 Para: 3.114
A. eventually necessitate evacuation of the navigator compartment
B. result in overheating of the navigators’ compartment
C. if flight must be continued, it is recommended that a descent be made to 10,000 feet or below with the pack turned OFF to maintain partial pressurization before switching to RAM
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

136
Q

136(136). When the cooling airflow is stopped by turning the air conditioning system master switch to OFF, ____________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 270 Chap: 3 Para: 3.117
A. crewmembers must fully extend outflows knobs
B. all crewmembers must go on 100% oxygen
C. the OAS radar must be turned OFF
D. the OAS equipment will be turned OFF

A

D. the OAS equipment will be turned OFF

137
Q

137(137). When moving around an ejection seat, care will be taken ______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2
A. not to actuate the ankle trip restraints
B. to install the flight safety pin(s)
C. not to actuate the seat ejection mechanism
D. not to actuate the seat positioning motors

A

C. not to actuate the seat ejection mechanism

138
Q

138(138). Whenever a change of crew position is necessary, _____ before the change is made.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2
A. do a taxi-back landing and stow the seat pin(s)
B. abort the low level route and climb to a safe altitude
C. a complete oxygen/station check must be accomplished
D. climb to a safe altitude and area

A

D. climb to a safe altitude and area

139
Q

139(139). To prevent accidental firing of a downward ejection seat, stow the ejection control trigger ring prior to leaving the seat during flight. Upon returning to the seat _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2
A. report to the pilot that the trigger ring is clear
B. unstow the trigger ring and fasten the safety belt
C. fasten safety belt and parachute then re-insert the #1 pin
D. fasten parachute and safety belt, then unstow the ejection control trigger ring

A

D. fasten parachute and safety belt, then unstow the ejection control trigger ring

140
Q

140(140). Extreme care will be exercised by any crewmember when moving about or conductingactivity in the area of the upper deck sliding hatch. To prevent injury to personnel, the upper deck sliding hatch may be ______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2
A. closed only
B. closed and locked
C. open and locked
D. open only

A

B. closed and locked

141
Q

141(141). To ensure an escape route for crewmembers and to provide access to the lower crew compartment for rescue personnel, the upper deck sliding hatch will be open and locked prior to _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 4 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2
A. takeoff, landing, cruise, low level activity, planned unusual maneuvers, penetration, and turbulence
B. starting engines, takeoff, air refueling, low level activity, planned unusual maneuvers, penetration, and landing
C. planned unusual maneuvers, low level activity, ground taxi operations, transition, and turbulence
D. takeoff, air refueling, celestial navigation, low level activity, and landing

A

B. starting engines, takeoff, air refueling, low level activity, planned unusual maneuvers, penetration, and landing

142
Q

142(142). Prior to stowing/unstowing the ejection control trigger ring, make a positive check that the trigger ring is properly seated in the detent and that the area is clear of straps and other equipment. If the trigger ring is found to be out of detent, carefully secure all equipment and accomplish the following sequential tasks before leaving the seat:_______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 3 Chap: 4 Para: 4.2.2
A. lock the inertial reel, pull the integrated harness release handle, and pull the survival kit release handle
B. pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertial reel to ensure release of integrated harness, then pull the integrated harness release handle
C. pull the integrated release handle, lock the inertial reel, and pull the survival kit release handle
D. lock the inertial reel and pull the survival kit release handle while sitting on the kit

A

B. pull the survival kit release handle, lock the inertial reel to ensure release of integrated harness, then pull the integrated harness release handle

143
Q

143(143). Without protective guideplates installed in the bomb bay, nonnuclear munitions capacity is reduced to a maximum of _____ stores.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 20 Chap: 5 Para: 5.6.8.1
A. 24
B. 21
C. 27
D. 18

A

B. 21

144
Q

144(144). The maximum altitude for use of the oxygen regulator and oxygen mask combination is _______________ altitude.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 22 Chap: 5 Para: 5.9
A. 42,000 feet (cabin altitude)
B. 42,000 feet (aircraft altitude)
C. 45,000 feet (cabin altitude)
D. 45,000 feet (aircraft altitude)

A

A. 42,000 feet (cabin altitude)

145
Q

145(145). Maximum speed with the bomb doors open is _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 31 Chap: 5 Para: 5.11.5
A. 325 KIAS
B. .93 Mach
C. 390 KTAS
D. 390 KIAS

A

D. 390 KIAS

146
Q

146(146). Noticeable bomb door fatigue damage (loose rivets, cracked skin and ribs, etc) can be expected after the doors have been open for five minutes at _______ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 31 Chap: 5 Para: 5.11.5
A. 390
B. 375
C. 350
D. 325

A

A. 390

147
Q

147(147). Jettison of weapons with the aft landing gear in the down position ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 31 Chap: 5 Para: 5.11.4.1
A. may result in damage to the bomb doors
B. may result in landing gear damage
C. is not authorized as a planned release in this configuration
D. answers b and c

A

D. answers b and c

148
Q

148(148). When asked ‘cleared to radiate’, the pilot announces the aircraft on the next parking stub has opened bomb doors with MMS performing weapon checks with various pieces of equipment. At this point, you remember ground operations of your radar are prohibited when within ________ of weapons to which continuity testers are connected.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 31 Chap: 5 Para: 5.12.1
A. 200 feet
B. 300 feet
C. 150 yards

A

A. 200 feet

149
Q

149(149). The turbulent air penetration speed is _____ KIAS or .77 Mach, whichever is less.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 14 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.2
A. 270
B. 250
C. 230
D. 150

A

A. 270

150
Q

150(150). Never climb above _____ to clear turbulence.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 15 Chap: 7 Para: 7.3.2
A. the best endurance altitude
B. 35,000 feet
C. 50,000 feet
D. maximum range cruise altitude

A

D. maximum range cruise altitude

151
Q

151(151). Failure to remove snow from the fuselage before applying interior heat will result in ice refreezing on the sides of the fuselage, causing drag and possible _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 19 Chap: 7 Para: 7.4.1.1
A. OAS temperatures above maximum allowable
B. erratic airspeed indications
C. failure of the high speed radar antenna drive motor
D. frequent recycling of the pressurization system pump

A

B. erratic airspeed indications

152
Q 
152(152). The \_\_\_\_\_ switch on the Radar Control Test Panel must be OFF prior to turning the radar power switch ON or damage to the radar receiver/transmitter can occur.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 265 Chap: 1
A. AJ2 HI ALT
B. RATE
C. BNS HEATER
D. BNS POWER
A

B. RATE

153
Q 
153(153). The OAS Radar Emergency Time Delay Bypass button should be used only after the radar power on light has been illuminated for a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_ minutes.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 268 Chap: 1
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
A

B. 3

154
Q

154(154). The radar emergency time delay bypass button should only be used _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 268 Chap: 1
A. as an emergency means of bypassing the OAS radar warm-up timer
B. to reset a malfunctioning radar for emergency TA system operation
C. when the OAS is operating in the ‘NO OAS DATA ‘ mode
D. after at least two occurrences of radiate dropout

A

A. as an emergency means of bypassing the OAS radar warm-up timer

155
Q

155(155). Pressing the radar emergency time delay bypass button before the radar has warmed up sufficiently will _______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 268 Chap: 1
A. burn out the radar set
B. result in a weak video display
C. lock the tilt to the fuselage reference line
D. prohibit any antenna pitch or roll stabilization

A

A. burn out the radar set

156
Q

156(156). If a bomb run is aborted and the bomb doors are open, they must be closed manually after selecting bomb inhibit or after _________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 306 Chap: 1 Para: 1.42.3
A. the OAS has released its weapon
B. selecting station keeping
C. the OAS has sequenced to the next destination
D. the OAS has sequenced thru a SAIR location

A

C. the OAS has sequenced to the next destination

157
Q

157(157). If the bomb run is aborted, ________ and ensure the bombing system switch is in MANUAL.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 306 Chap: 1 Para: 1.42.3
A. select BOMB INHIBIT
B. disconnect the RCD
C. select MANUAL on the missile launch mode switch
D. enter a FLY-TO-XX to get target ranging

A

A. select BOMB INHIBIT

158
Q

158(158). SNIPER XR/SE TARGETING POD: Due to the electromagnetic radiation hazard from the Datalink antenna, all personnel must stay a minimum of _______________ away from the antenna, located on the aft end of the SNIPER XR/SE pod, when TGP power has been applied.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 340 Chap: 1 Para: 1.57
A. 12 inches
B. 24 inches
C. 3 feet
D. 6 feet

A

B. 24 inches

159
Q

159(159). TGP TARGET PAGE.: Extreme caution must be taken when operating the Combat Laser. Inadvertent directing of laser radiation at ground personnel could cause _________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 435 Chap: 1 Para: 1.59.27
A. Mild eye damage
B. moderate eye damage
C. severe eye damage
D. moderate skin damage

A

C. severe eye damage

160
Q

60(160). The _____ is ultimately responsible to ensure any subsequent ESS runs, camera attacks, and landings are completed without any munitions, submunitions, or release assemblies departing the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 4 Chap: 2 Para: 2.2.4.5
A. aircraft commander
B. radar navigator
C. aircrew
D. wing commander

A

C. aircrew

161
Q

161(161). Due to a possible buildup of static electricity when wearing the chemical defense ensemble (to include plastic boots and overcape), aircrews will _____ entering the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.3
A. remove the ensemble before
B. don the ensemble after
C. ground themselves on the aircraft grounding cable prior to
D. not touch any grounding device after

A

C. ground themselves on the aircraft grounding cable prior to

162
Q

162(162). Due to the possibility of lethal voltages on the FLIR turret window and the electrical cable routed to the STV turret, care must be taken to ensure _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.3
A. the Bias and Contrast knobs are full counter clockwise
B. the EVS Environmental Power Switches are OFF when power is applied
C. stationary sources of high intensity illumination are eliminated from the field of view
D. the camera assembly is protected from this type of damage by going to STBY mode

A

B. the EVS Environmental Power Switches are OFF when power is applied

163
Q

163(163). While accomplishing the Before Exterior Inspection checklist, you discover the ejection trigger ring is not properly seated in the detent. In this situation your next action would be to _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.3
A. re-install the ejections trigger ring and continue your before exterior inspection
B. call maintenance and ascertain the status of the arming initiator before continuing seat inspection
C. re-install the #6 pin and call maintenance to ascertain the status of the seat
D. call maintenance and ascertain the status of the catapult initiator and pin-pull initiator

A

B. call maintenance and ascertain the status of the arming initiator before continuing seat inspection

164
Q

164(164). During ground operations with power applied to the aircraft, _____ prior to entering the bomb bay.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.4
A. ensure the bomb door actuator struts are connected
B. ensure the bomb door actuator struts are disconnected
C. remove the flare door streamer
D. ensure the downlocks are not installed

A

B. ensure the bomb door actuator struts are disconnected

165
Q

165(165). Ensure that no equipment is stowed on or near __________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 11 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. the lower deck heating ducts and outlets
B. electrical wiring
C. electronic equipment
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

166
Q

166(166). When transporting ___________, use the container provided. To avoid equipment damage, do not touch the connector pins on the rear of the module when handling, installing, or removing __________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 11 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7.
A. DTUCs
B. the MRT TM
C. the DDLC
D. the TSM

A

D. the TSM

167
Q

167(167). The TSM is an electromagnetic discharge sensitive (ESD) device. To avoid equipment damage, be sure to follow all ESD procedures when _______________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 11 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. handling, installing, or removing the TSM
B. removing the TSM during cold start or power-up BIT
C. removing the TSM while in the MILSTAR or AFSATII mode
D. removing the TSM during time transfer mode, BIT mode or when the blinking mode indication has stopped blinking for a 2-3 second interval

A

A. handling, installing, or removing the TSM

168
Q

168(168). To avoid equipment damage when transporting or handling the TSM, ______________________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 12 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. do not touch the connector pins on the rear of the module when handling, installing, or removing the TSM
B. use the ring on the front of the module when installing and/or removing the TSM
C. use the container provided
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

169
Q

169(169). Regarding the AERP system, ____________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 17 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. failure to properly configure the system, may result in injury or death to the aircrew member while operating in a contaminated environment
B. aircrew member failure to hold breath during changeover from blower air to the aircraft oxygen system may result in inhaling of toxic chemicals
C. if signs of hypoxia occur at high altitude, ensure the oxygen system quick disconnect(QD) fittings are properly connected
D. all the above

A

D. all the above

170
Q

170(170). While preflighting your ejection seat, you discover a maintenance safety pin has been inadvertently left installed. In this situation, you should _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 13 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. ascertain the status of the seat prior to removal of the pin
B. immediately remove the pin and report it in the AFTO Form 781
C. not proceed further with your preflight
D. not move the seat until the pin is removed

A

A. ascertain the status of the seat prior to removal of the pin

171
Q

171(171). When inspecting the ejection seat during preflight, carefully check to see that no streamer _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 13 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. is missing from the storage box after counting the required number of pins
B. has been torn from a maintenance safety pin, thus inadvertently leaving the pin installed
C. is left in the maintenance EGRESS vehicle
D. is no longer than 2 feet but less than 4 feet long

A

B. has been torn from a maintenance safety pin, thus inadvertently leaving the pin installed

172
Q

172(172). Failure to attach the parachute arming lanyard anchor to the seat will _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 14 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. not affect the automatic operation of the parachute
B. cause the parachute to open above the preset altitude
C. result in failure to separate from the seat
D. necessitate manual operation of the parachute after ejection

A

D. necessitate manual operation of the parachute after ejection

173
Q

173(173). When preflighting the survival kit, care must be taken to ensure that the survival kit attachment straps are _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 15 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. as loose as possible
B. disconnected and loose
C. properly threaded through the safety belt
D. properly attached to the seat

A

C. properly threaded through the safety belt

174
Q

174(174). When setting the altimeter, special attention should be given to the altimeter to insure the ______ is reading correctly.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 18 Chap: 2 Para: 2.7
A. barometric setting
B. 10,000 foot pointer
C. 1000 foot pointer
D. Kollsman window

A

B. 10,000 foot pointer

175
Q

175(175). Radar Turn-On: The antenna speed switch will remain OFF for _____ minute(s) after application of radar power to allow the antenna position programmer to search and electronically establish its position with the antenna.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 31 Chap: 2 Para: 2.8
A. 1
B. 1 1/2
C. 2
D. 5

A

A. 1

176
Q

176(176). The EVS environmental control systems are to be operated ______ to prevent condensation within the turrets, even though the sensor itself may not be turned on.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 31 Chap: 2 Para: 2.8
A. after level-off only
B. during low level operations due to increased temperatures
C. when icing conditions are suspected
D. at all times during flight

A

D. at all times during flight

177
Q

77(177). The area in line with the radiation of a non-rotating radar antenna is hazardous to personnel. For this reason, do not stop the antenna while the radar is _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 52 Chap: 2 Para: 2.8
A. ON
B. in standby operation
C. OFF
D. in radiate operation

A

D. in radiate operation

178
Q

178(178). The radar should not be in radiate when the aircraft radar antenna is within _____ feet of any ground refueling operations or open fuel tank.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 53 Chap: 2 Para: 2.8
A. 500
B. 400
C. 300
D. 200

A

D. 200

179
Q

179(179). When donning the parachute, ensure the parachute arming lanyard is _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 56A Chap: 2 Para: 2.10
A. attached to the zero delay connector
B. fastened to the ripcord T-handle
C. not entangled in the parachute harness
D. properly threaded through the safety belt

A

C. not entangled in the parachute harness

180
Q

80(180). To prevent the safety belt from inflicting facial injuries during ejection or bailout _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 56A Chap: 2 Para: 2.10
A. make certain that the helmet visor is down and locked prior to bailout
B. ensure the survival kit attachment straps are not routed through the loops on the safety belt
C. tighten the parachute survival kit attachment straps as tightly as possible
D. disconnect the survival kit attachment straps by pulling up on the kit release handle

A

C. tighten the parachute survival kit attachment straps as tightly as possible

181
Q

181(181). Failure to close the thermal curtains _____ may result in flash blindness from nuclear detonations.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 57 Chap: 2 Para: 2.12
A. as soon as practicable after takeoff
B. at high altitudes and during bomb runs
C. after level-off
D. during low level operations

A

2.12

A. as soon as practicable after takeoff

182
Q

182(182). If a radar shadow _____, a dangerous condition is indicated and the radar navigator/navigator must advise the pilot.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 76 Chap: 2 Para: 2.21
A. shortens with increasing range
B. has spurious returns at all ranges
C. is unchanging with decreasing range
D. cannot be extinguished with decreasing range

A

C. is unchanging with decreasing range

183
Q

183(183). When high terrain exists between the low level descent point and the level off area/feature, the navigator/radar navigator will announce _____ to the pilot.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 76 Chap: 2 Para: 2.21
A. ETE to the DESCENT point
B. high terrain elevation
C. computed IFR altitude
D. cross-checked altimeter readings

A

B. high terrain elevation

184
Q

184(184). After Landing: Monitor the low airflow warning lights. Turn equipment_____ if necessary.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 87 Chap: 2 Para: 2.27
A. to standby
B. off
C. to operate
D. to the alternate cooling system

A

B. off

185
Q

185(185). Descent and Before Landing: Monitor the low airflow warning lights. If necessary, request that _____ to keep the cabin low airflow lights out.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 85 Chap: 2 Para: 2.26
A. a climb to a higher altitude, weather permitting
B. power be advance to MRT on all engines
C. power be advanced on at least one engine (usually #4)
D. the gunner and EW turn off all unnecessary equipment

A

C. power be advanced on at least one engine (usually #4)

186
Q

186(186). Do not turn OAS Master Power Switch OFF nor turn aircraft AC power OFF prior to receipt of _____ message, since equipment damage may occur.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 91 Chap: 2 Para: 2.28
A. NO OAS DATA
B. IME-X SHUTDOWN
C. CLASSIFEID DATA ERASE COMPLETE
D. LOG OFF COMPLETE

A

A. NO OAS DATA

187
Q

187(187). The OAS, radar, and all EVS subsystems should be OFF to prevent power surge damage when _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 91 Chap: 2 Para: 2.28
A. switching from an external power source to aircraft power
B. flying in areas of static discharge or St. Elmo’s Fire
C. switching from aircraft power to external power
D. flying through unavoidable thunderstorms

A

C. switching from aircraft power to external power

188
Q

188(188). After Parking: When monitoring External Power Application, ensure that _____will not be applied until shackle locking pins and MAU-12 rack lock pins have been installed.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 95 Chap: 2 Para: 2.28
A. aircraft power
B. ground cooling air
C. external power
D. OAS Master Power

A

C. external power

189
Q

189(189). If the OAS high pressure radar pressure low light illuminates during ground or flight operations, ________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-12 Pg: 108 Chap: 3 Para: 3.26
A. the OAS radar will be turned off and radar pressure pump control switch will be turned off
B. the OAS radar will be placed in STANDBY and radar pressure pump control switch will be turned off
C. the OAS radar may operate in RADIATE if the intermittent-duty pressure pump does not exceed 15 minutes per hour
D. the OAS radar must not be operated in a high altitude environment due to a malfunctioning radar pressurization system

A

B. the OAS radar will be placed in STANDBY and radar pressure pump control switch will be turned off

190
Q

190(190). Non-nuclear: Removal of a shackle locking pin from a loaded shackle with the ______________ and or the B-11 shackle release lever in the release position, will result in an immediate release of the weapon.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 189 Chap: 1 Para: 1.25.1.1.2
A. A-6 release uncocked
B. shackle’s stirrup rods attached
C. arming wire engaged
D. suspension lug unfastened

A

A. A-6 release uncocked

191
Q

191(191). Non-nuclear: Weapons will not release from a shackle with the locking Pin installed. However, the A-6 release mechanism may fire, indicating to the release system that a weapon has been released. Under these conditions, it is possible to release ______.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 189 Chap: 1 Para: 1.25.1.1.2
A. all weapons safe with the EAR system
B. all weapons armed with the EMBR system
C. an upper weapon on a hung lower weapon
D. armed center rack weapons with short-time fuzing

A

C. an upper weapon on a hung lower weapon

192
Q

192(192). Moveable tail fins on the ____________ are spring-loaded. Accidental release of the fin release band allows the fins to snap out and could cause injury to personnel.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 14/15 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4.1.3/4
A. CBU-87/B and CBU-89/B
B. GBU-10 and GBU-12
C. MK 52 and MK 55
D. MK 63 QS and MK 65 QS

A

A. CBU-87/B and CBU-89/B

193
Q

193(193). (CBU-89/B) To protect the aircraft and aircrew from anti-tank mine detonation caused by ground activity, a minimum altitude of _______ feet AGL over an active minefield should be observed. An overflying aircraft will not cause mines in the minefield to detonate.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 15 Chap: 1 Para: 1.4.1.4
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000

A

A. 500

194
Q

194(194). When carrying MK-65 Mod 1 mines externally, it is necessary to prevent the aircraft OAT gage reading from falling below _____ degrees by increasing aircraft speed or decreasing altitude.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 31 Chap: 1 Para: 1.7.1.4
A. -30
B. -40
C. -50
D. -60

A

B. -40

195
Q

195(195). The MK-339 Fuze is _____ if the red arm indicator pin has penetrated the green foil into the Safe/Arm Indicator Bubble.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 42 Para: 1.9.9
A. tampered with
B. inoperative
C. safe
D. armed

A

D. armed

196
Q

196(196). On an FMU-139 A/B fuze, assume the fuze is armed, if _____.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 50 Chap: 1 Para: 1.9.14
A. the gag rod is extended
B. the gag rod is retracted
C. the low drag arm shows “X”
D. the interlock button on the fuze face panel is down

A

A. the gag rod is extended

197
Q

197(197). When a high drag configured bomb is released with the FMU-139A/B installed in the tail well, both the high and low drag arm times are functional. If deceleration is not sensed due to fin or retarder failure, the fuze will function on impact after expiration of the low drag arm time. Low drag times of less than ____ seconds will not be set when carrying high drag weapons.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 50 Chap: 1 Para: 1.9.14
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

A

C. 20

198
Q

198(198). If undue resistance is encountered when removing any shackle locking pin, the aircrew will ____________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.4
A. cease further action and call MMS personnel
B. use what ever force is necessary to remove the pin
C. use pliers to remove the pin
D. continue to run the checklist and call MMS personnel when complete

A

A. cease further action and call MMS personnel

199
Q

199(199). Non-nuclear: If the window in the fuze body shows red, the fuze is unsafe and _____. Call MMS personnel.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 4 Chap: 2 Para: 2.3
A. must be isolated using the proper BRIC
B. should not be touched
C. should be isolated with the RCD
D. must be safed with the shackle locking pin

A

B. should not be touched

200
Q

200(200). Prior to removing any shackle locking pin, ensure that the A-6 release is cockedand the B-11 shackle release lever is mated with the release arm of the A-6release. Both arms on the A-6 must point _____________, if either or botharms point towards the _________, call MMS personnel immediately.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.4
A. inward; outside
B. outward; inward
C. outward; center
D. inward; center

A

C. outward; center

201
Q

201(201). Release of the shackle locking pin from a loaded shackle with the A-6 releaseuncocked and/or the B-11 shackle release lever in the release position willresult in ___________________.
Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-34-2-1 Pg: 5 Chap: 2 Para: 2.4
A. a possible hung weapon after takeoff
B. immediate release of the weapon
C. an immediate release of the weapon after bomb doors are fully open on the bomb run.
D. a normal release, as this is the normal rack configuration.

A

B. immediate release of the weapon

BUFF knowledge (11 decks)

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