Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BUFF knowledge > WSO MQF 2018 > Flashcards

WSO MQF 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

1 (QDB #22). Prior to opening or closing the main entry door, _________. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-19, Para 1.3.1

A. one of the pilot’s sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches

B. the No. 1 pin will beinstalled in both the navigator and radar navigator seats

C. the pressure bulkhead door will be closed and locked

D. ensure the outside operating handle is flush with the skin of the aircraft

A

A. one of the pilot’s sliding windows will be opened approximately two inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 (QDB #23). When using the CRU-73/A type oxygen regulator __________. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-27, Para 1.4

A. the test position will not be used when preflighting the oxygen mask

B. do not select NORMAL position when supply shutoff lever is positioned ON

C. 100% oxygen is automatically supplied when smoke and fumes are present

D. do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF

A

D. do not force regulator diluter lever to NORMAL when the supply shutoff lever is positioned OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 (QDB #24). When using the portable fire extinguisher to combat a pressurized compartment fire, crewmembers using an aircraft regulator will go on 100% OXYGEN immediately, with the emergency toggle lever on the oxygen panel set to the _________ position. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-36 para 1.7.3

A. NORMAL

B. EMERGENCY

C. 30M

D. 25M

A

A. NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 (QDB #27). Removing an escape hatch without first disconnecting the _____ will fire the catapult safety pin pull iniciator and leave the ejection seat in an armed condition. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-42A para. 1.7.12.1

A. arming lanyard

B. hatch release handle

C. rotary latch handle

D. arming link

A

D. arming link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 (QDB #29). Utilizing a shock absorbing device other than the survival kit and/or seat cushin designated as standard equipment for the ejection seat, doing so _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-52 para 1.8.1

A. creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection and/or crash landing.

B. provides comfort to the occupant during all hard landings

C. decrease the possibility of injury during flight in turbulence

D. is permitted on long flights when parachute wear is mandatory

A

A. creates a definite possibility of serious injury during ejection and/or crash landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6 (QDB #30). After adjusting your seat from the full down to full up position, waiting the appropriate cooling period, and again adjusting to the full down position, how long must you wait before moving the seat again? Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-60, para 1.8.1

A. 30 seconds

B. 1 minute

C. 5 minutes

D. 10 minutes

A

C. 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7 (QDB #31). To assure complete release of the integrated harness for manual bailout, ______. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1, pg 1-61, para 1.8.1

A. lock the inertia reel assembly before pulling the survival kit release handle

B. pull the integrated harness release handle prior to actuationf the survival kit release

C. lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle

D. maintain a constant pressure on the release handle until all fittings are clear

A

C. lock the inertia reel before actuating the integrated harness release handle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8 (QDB #32). Should a downward ejectiopn hatch be inadvertently dropped, the ejection seat at that station ________. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1, pg 1-69, para 1.8.2

A. will be armed but cannot be fired

B. will be armed and can be fired

C. will not be armed and cannot be fired

D. is rendered inoperative

A

B. will be armed and can be fired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9(QDB #36). Severe injury may be incurred if ejection is perfromed with _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1, pg 1-87, para 1.8.7

A. the helmet chin strap fastened too tightly

B. any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected

C. the landing gear extended and airspeed above 250 KIAS

D. the landing gear retracted and airspeed is above 250 KIAS

A

B. any integrated harness attachment fitting disconnected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10 (QDB #37). Do not place the launcher hydraulic control switch to ON PRIMARY unless _____, as damage may result to the rotary launcher hydraulic pump. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1, pg 1-268

A. a rotary launcher is installed

B. operating in Full Simulation (CF-52) mode

C. a rotary launcher is installed and will be rotated

D. the PDUC power switch is OFF

A

C. a rotary launcher is installed and will be rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11 (QDB #38). Do not attempt to free a bomb door control (four-way) valve by _____ as this procedure may damage the bomb door system. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1, pg 1-311

A. opening the bomb doors

B. reducing hydraulic pressure

C. pulling the affected circuit breaker

D. using the Emergency Bomb Release System

A

A. opening the bomb doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12 (QDB #39). Ensure ground personnel are clear of ______ before entering the CF-59 command. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1, pg 1-314, para 1.31.2

A. bomb doors

B. all antennas

C. aircraft

D. HF antenna

A

A. bomb doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13 (QDB #41). Do not attempt to open the bomb doors with the pilot’s bomb door switch when the bombing system switch is in AUTO and the OAS is operating in the bomb mode as the bomb doors will _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-314, para 1.31.4

A. remain closed

B. cause severe buffeting

C. open only to an intermediate position

D. keep cycling

A

D. keep cycling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14 (QDB #42). Periodically during flight, each crewmember should check ducts, outlets, electrical wiring and electronic equipment in their immediate area to see that they are _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg 1-359, para 1.43.1

A. free of combustible materials

B. operating in the correct manner

C. not producing moises or vibrations

D. correctly installed and stay that way

A

A. free of combustible materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15 (QDB #44). Oxygen will rapidly accelerate any ingition source, such as a spark, into a flash fire. Dirt, grease, and hand lotion all can act as fuel to the fire. Therefore, when recharging a portable oxygen bottle, crewmembers will wear _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg. 1-30, para. 1.4.3

A. Nomex flight gloves

B. helmet with visor down

C. Nomex flight gloves and the helmet with visor down

D. Nomex flight gloves and helmet

A

C. Nomex flight gloves and the helmet with visor down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16 (QDB #45). The _____ is considered the primary means for crew warning. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 pg. 1-42A, para. 1.7.11

A. abandon light

B. call light

C. interphone

D. alarm light

A

C. interphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17 (QDB #46). Except _____, all crewmembers must be on interphone at all times. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-2, pg. 2-5, para. 2.1

A. when cleared by an evaluator or an instructor

B. when specifically cleared by an aircraft commander

C. during operations in the local terminal area

D. during normal high altitude cruise conditions

A

B. when specifically cleared by an aircraft commander

18
Q

18 (QDB #47). Hazardous RF voltages can exist between the aircraft skin and ground when transmissions are being made with the _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-2 pg. 2-119, para. 2.33

A. liaison radio

B. UHF radio

C. SATCOM equipment

D. AN/APX-64 interphone system

A

A. liaison radio

19
Q

19 (QDB #48). Ground transmissions of the AN/ARC-190 liaison radio are prohibited on aircraft _____ of unloaded nuclear weapons or warheads, aircraft with external weapons with nuclear warheads installed, or nuclear weapons loaded in an aircraft (transmitting or adjacent) with its bomb doors open. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-2 pg. 2-119, para. 2.33

A. within 200 ft

B. within 500 ft

C. unless within 500 ft

D. within visual range

A

A. within 200 ft

20
Q

20 (QDB #49). The _____ is an electrostatic discharge (ESD) sensitive device. To avoid equipment damage, be sure to follow all ESD (i.e., not touching the connector pins, etc.) procedures when handling, installing, or removing the _____. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-2 pg. 1-12, para. 1.3.3

A. DDLC; DDLC

B. AN/CYZ-10; AN/CYZ-10

C. MRT TM; MRT TM

D. TSM; TSM

A

D. TSM; TSM

21
Q

21 (QDB #51). Some of the BIT tests cause the receiver/transmitter (RT) to transmit. To prevent hazards, remain at least ___ feet from the SATCOM antenna. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1-2 Pg: 2-101 Chap: 2 Para: 2.20

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

A

A. 10

22
Q

22 (QDB #54). Lethal voltage exists on the surface of the FLIR turret window during normal EVS flight operations and this voltage should be inhibited during ground operation. However, as an added precaution, ensure the FLIR Turret Air Switch is in the ___ position prior to performing any maintenance, other than operational checkout on or near the FLIR turret. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 1-696 Para: 1.56.8

A. STANDBY

B. OPERATE

C. OFF

D. NEUTRAL

A

C. OFF

23
Q

23 (QDB #55). If the EVS monitor overheat light cannot be extinguished by providing increased cooling air within ___, the monitor should be turned off or equipment damage can be expected. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 1-706

A. 5 minutes after initial illumination

B. 120 seconds after the second illumination

C. 3 minutes after the initial illumination

D. 120 seconds after the initial illumination

A

A. 5 minutes after initial illumination

24
Q

24 (QDB #56). Use of the ___ feature may cause FLIR system damamge and should only be used in case of urgent need for uninterrupted FLIR system operations. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 1-714

A. SIG PROC

B. OVHT

C. override

D. manual tuning

A

C. override

25
Q

25 (QDB #62). A starter turbine disintegration area exists ___. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-56

A. around the cartridge starter exhaust directly below the nacelles of all the engines

B. 35 feet in front of each engine

C. to the side and aft of the starter turbine area

D. 200 feet to the side and behind each engine

A

C. to the side and aft of the starter turbine area

26
Q

26 (QDB #63). The exhaust blast danger area is ___ feet to the rear of all engines without blast deflector. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-56

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 300

A

D. 300

27
Q

27 (QDB #64). During cartridge starts, the engine cartridge starter exhaust is 850 degrees F. Therefore, remain claer of ___ the cartridge starter exhaust directly below the nacelles. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-56

A. the area 25 feet to the front of

B. a 4-foot radius area around

C. an area to the sides of the starter turbines near

D. the area 25 feet to the sides of

A

B. a 4-foot radius area around

28
Q

28 (QDB #65). The engine inlet danger area is ___ feet to the front of the engines. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-56

A. 35

B. 45

C. 50

D. 75

A

A. 35

29
Q

29 (QDB #66). Takeoff will not be aborted ___ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the aircraft definitely unsafe to attain emergency bailout altitude. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-74 Para: 2.18

A. after S2

B. before S1

C. after S1

D. before the 70 knot check

A

C. after S1

30
Q

30 (QDB #67). Except, ___, air refueling operations will not be conducted when radio communications capability is lost between tanker and receiver. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-90 Para: 2.25.3.1

A. with pre-briefing on the ground

B. for ORI/BUY NONE flgihts

C. during an emergency fuel situation

D. for annual check requirements

A

C. during an emergency fuel situation

31
Q

31 (QDB #68). Receivers required to accelerate and climb on the refueling heading will maneuver either left or right a minimum of ___NM of the tankers/remaining receivers, prior top accelerating and climbing. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-100 Para 2.26.3.2

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

A

B. 1

32
Q

32 (QDB #69). In the event weather conditions may affect the accomplishment of the rendezvous, a capable ___ will be specifically designated to maintain radar weather watch. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-101 Para: 2.27.1.3

A. pilot

B. tanker

C. radar navigator

D. receiver

A

D. receiver

33
Q

33(QDB #70). To help ensure safe separation of airplanes during descent when range to the tanker is not known, descent will ___. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-110, Para: 2.27.9

A. be delayed until radar contact is established

B. not be unnecessarily delayed

C. be delayed until radio contact is established

D. not be started until visual contact is made

A

B. not be unnecessarily delayed

34
Q

34(QDB #71). Any time it becomes apparent that closure overrunning will occur, ___. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-1-3. Para. 2.27.4

A. a breakaway will be called

B. descend to the bottom of the block

C. maintain visual separation

D. start a 1000 fpm descent

A

A. a breakaway will be called

35
Q

35(QDB #72). During air refueling, the best and most positive means to obtain vertical and horizontal separation is to ___. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-103 Para. 2.27.4

A. extend airbrakes 6

B. lower airbrakes

C. lower the receiver landing gear

D. reduce throttles to idle

A

C. lower the receiver landing gear

36
Q

36(QDB #73). If the receiver loses sight of the tanker at any time after overrunning, the receiver shall ___ until the receiver is definitely positioned aft of the tanker and has the tanker in visual contact. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-103 Para. 2.27.4

A. establish a positive rate of climb to the top of the refueling block

B. maneuver either left or right of track and maintain a minimum of 1 NM separation

C. establish a positive rate of descent to 1,000 feet below air refueling altitude

D. terminate air refueling operations and contact ARTCC for further clearance

A

C. establish a positive rate of descent to 1,000 feet below air refueling altitude

37
Q

37(QDB #74). When close interval stream operations are being conducted, ___ to control timing. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-118 Para. 2.27.11

A. use orbit delays

B. use airspeed and double drifts

C. use differential airspeeds

D. do not use orbit delays

A

D. do not use orbit delays

38
Q

38(QDB #76). To eliminate potential fire hazards, the OAS radar should not be operated in RADIATE during air refueling if ___. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-139 Para. 2.31

A. a STV malfunction is occuring

B. a doppler malfunction is occuring

C. the antenna tilt is a negative value

D. a radar malfunciton is occuring

A

D. a radar malfunciton is occuring

39
Q

39 (QDB #78). During KC-10 refueling operatrions, do not transmit on the ___ when in contact with or when in close proximity to the air refueling boom. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-143 Para. 2.34.1.3

A. UHF radio

B. secure radio

C. HF radio

D. interphone

A

C. HF radio

40
Q

40(QDB #79). Commence an immediate climb to a safe altitude if any ___ is noted during any phase of low level operation. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg: 2-170 Para. 2.40

A. wind condition

B. distraction

C. icing

D. sleeping

A

B. distraction

41
Q

41(QDB #81). All altitudes referred to concerning airborne radar approaches except ___ altitudes are absolute altitudes above the terrain. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-200 Para. 2.49

A. minimum descent

B. missed approach

C. penetration

D. high key

A

C. penetration

42
Q

42(QDB #82). If ___ were carried the flight crew must visually check the bomb bay prior to opening bomb doors. Ref: T.O. 1B-52H-1 Pg. 2-227 Para. 2.62

A. internal weapons

B. external weapons

C. live weapons

D. inert weapons

A

A. internal weapons

BUFF knowledge (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions