Written Test Flashcards

1
Q

What documents must the pilot carry on board at all times?

A
A - Airworthiness Certificate
R - Registration Certificate
R - Radio Operator License
O - Pilot Operating Handbook
W - Weight and Balance Report
J - Journey Log
L - Licenses Pilot/Medical
I - Insurance proof
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2
Q

When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown…

A

With visual reference to the ground or water.

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3
Q

A private pilot may conduct a flight without visual reference to the ground or water if?

A

Endorsed for instrument flight.

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4
Q

Except for taking off or landing, an aircraft can not be flown over an airport at a height less than?

A

2000ft AGL.

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5
Q

If you suspect a possible collision you should?

A

Alter course to the right.

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6
Q

When on final, right of way is given to?

A

Airplanes at a lower altitude.

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7
Q

All facts relating to maintenance, repairs, etc. must be recorded where?

A

Aircraft Technical Log.

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8
Q

A tear in the skin of a monocoque fuselage will?

A

Maybe affect the stress capabilities of the structure.

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9
Q

A device fitted to a control surface to relieve control pressure is called?

A

A trim tab.

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10
Q

Ratio of the actual load acting on the wings to the gross weight of the airplane is called?

A

Load factor.

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11
Q

Va (maneuvering speed) is used in what conditions?

A

Severe turbulence.

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12
Q

Torsion stress is caused by?

A

Twisting.

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13
Q

Five principal factors affecting the amount of lift and drag on an aircraft?

A
  • AoA
  • Airfoil shape
  • Wing area
  • Airspeed
  • Air density
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14
Q

When an aircraft is flying in straight and level flight what forces balance each other?

A

Lift equals weight and drag equals thrust

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15
Q

The relative wind has an affect on the?

A

AoA.

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16
Q

When AoA increases to the point where the wing stalls, the center of pressure will?

A

Move forward than reward.

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17
Q

What is profile drag?

A

Form drag plus skin friction.

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18
Q

The best lift/drag ratio is achieved when?

A

Gliding for maximum range.

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19
Q

When in ground affect, what is reduced?

A

Induced drag.

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20
Q

When using flaps for certain takeoffs, they change the wing how?

A

Increase the upper camber to produce more lift.

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21
Q

The motion of an aircraft about its normal axis is known as?

A

Yawing.

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22
Q

A mass of streamlined shape fitted in front of the hinge of a control surface is incorporated to?

A

Counteract flutter.

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23
Q

An aircraft that exhibits positive stability on the longitudinal axis and neutral stability on the lateral axis would correct?

A

A pitch displacement but would require positive correction of roll.

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24
Q

Lateral stability is improved by?

A

Dihedral wings.

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25
Q

In climbing an aircraft into wind you should recognize which condition exists in regards to lift performance?

A

The angle of climb is increased.

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26
Q

An aircraft at 40 degrees bank flying 100MPH versus an aircraft at 40 degrees bank flying 150MPH will?

A

Have a greater rate of turn and smaller radius of turn.

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27
Q

If a thin coating of frost or light snow has formed on the wings of an aircraft, it will do what to the wings?

A

Disturb airflow over the wings thereby reducing lift.

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28
Q

An aircraft stalls at 60 indicated knots at sea level, what speed does it stall at at 10000ft?

A

60 indicated knots.

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29
Q

An aircraft flying at 10000ft ASL in the Altimeter Setting Region should have its altimeter set to?

A

The altimeter setting of the nearest aerodrome.

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30
Q

What is the standard temperature lapse rate?

A

1.98 Degrees Celsius.

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31
Q

Can you land at night at an aerodrome with inoperative runway lights?

A

No.

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32
Q

When is a landing light required for night flying?

A

When carrying passengers.

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33
Q

If the pitot tube becomes blocked, inaccurate readings will be caused in what instruments?

A

ASI.

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34
Q

In a reciprocating engine on a four stroke cycle, during the compression stroke the valves will be?

A

Closed.

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35
Q

In a piston engine, the camshaft rotates at what rate against the crankshaft?

A

Half the speed of the crankshaft.

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36
Q

The volume of the cylinder at the bottom of the compression stoke compared to the volume at the top of the stroke is called?

A

The compression ratio.

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37
Q

When adding oil what type should be used?

A

Only the same type of oil.

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38
Q

After oil dilution has occurred (fuel leaking and mixing with the oil in the crankcase) the engine should be?

A

Be run at high temperature for sufficient time to boil off the fuel before departing on next flight.

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39
Q

Use of gasoline with a lower octane rating may cause?

A

Detonation.

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40
Q

Fuel is drawn from the carburetor float chamber into the engine by means of?

A

Venturi effect.

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41
Q

At cruise power above 5000ft, the engine should be learned to “lean best power” to achieve what?

A

Economy of fuel consumption.

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42
Q

Carburetor ice may be detected by?

A

Decrease in manifold pressure (RPM drop).

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43
Q

A device that uses the energy of hot exhaust gases to supply the engine with dense air at high altitude is called a?

A

Turbocharger.

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44
Q

When the magneto switch is in the OFF position, the primary magneto circuit is?

A

Grounded to the airframe.

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45
Q

If one magneto of a dual ignition system failed completely, it would case a?

A

RPM drop of about 50-100RPM.

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46
Q

Coarse (high) pitch is used for?

A

Cruise flight.

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47
Q

In an airplane fitted with a constant speed propeller, any adjustment of the throttle

A

Is registered on the manifold pressure gauge.

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48
Q

Before engaging the starter to warm up the engine, the prop should be?

A

Pulled through several times to loosen congealed oil and to partially prime the engine.

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49
Q

If your airplane has a max AoA at 82knots but the POH suggests climbing at 87kt, the most probably reason for this is?

A

To obtain better cooling of the engine.

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50
Q

What is the most commonly recommended practice for preventing condensation in the fuel tanks?

A

Fill each fuel tank after every flight.

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51
Q

A layer of dark cloud from which continuous rain or snow falls is called?

A

Nimbostratus. Nimbo meaning precipitation, stratus meaning uniform, horizontally stacked, low level base.

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52
Q

When flying through a layer of nimbostratus you encounter sudden sever turbulence. The most probably cause is?

A

Embedded towering cumulus or cumulonimbus. These clouds being formed by atmospheric convection.

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53
Q

The tropopause (area between troposphere and stratosphere) layer is lower where?

A

Over the north pole than over the equator.

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54
Q

The clouds which appear in sequence in advance of an approaching warm front are?

A

Cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus.

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55
Q

A low pressure area is?

A

A region of relatively low pressure with the lowest pressure at the center.

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56
Q

A steep pressure gradient indicates?

A

Strong winds.

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57
Q

An aircraft is flying at 10000ft on a track of 200 degrees. To maintain track the pilot is holding a heading of 185 degrees. An area of low pressure exists where?

A

Ahead of the airplane.

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58
Q

At night as the sides of the hills or mountains cool, the air in contact with them tends to become denser and blows down the slope into the valley. This wind is called a?

A

Katabatic wind.

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59
Q

If you were flying on a westerly heading and encountered a range of mountains lying in a north south-line and if you attempted to fly through a saddle on a west heading with the wind from the west, you would expect?

A

To lose altitude rapidly on the east side of the saddle.

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60
Q

Lenticular clouds (lens-shaped clouds) are usually associated with?

A

A mountain wave.

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61
Q

What is a mountain wave?

A

Oscillating airflow on the downwind side of a mountain or peak due to disturbance in airflow caused by a mountain or peak.

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62
Q

A sudden or violent change in wind speed or direction that can impose sever penalties on an airplanes performance is called?

A

Wind shear.

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63
Q

When saturated air is forced to rise, the expansion of the rising air causes it to cool. This cooling is called?

A

Adiabatic cooling.

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64
Q

What is the dry lapse rate?

A

3 degrees Cecilius per 1000ft.

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65
Q

The amount of water that a given volume of air can contain at a given temperature is governed by?

A

The temperature.

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66
Q

At times, air at higher altitude may be warmer than the air below it, this is called?

A

An inversion.

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67
Q

An air mass may be defined as a large section of the __ with uniform properties of __ and __ in the horizontal, the missing words are?

A

Troposphere, temperature, moisture.

68
Q

A front is?

A

A narrow transition zone between two air masses.

69
Q

The cloud and precipitation that often develop at a cold front are caused by?

A

Warm air expanding as it is lifted by the advancing cold air from the cold front.

70
Q

In order for clouds to form in the atmosphere, relative humidity must be __, there must be __ of the air and __ must be present, the missing words are?

A

High, cooling, condensation nuclei.

71
Q

Fog that forms on clear nights with light winds is known as?

A

Radiation fog.

72
Q

The dissipation of fog is assumed to result from?

A

Terrestrial radiation.

73
Q

Hoar frost (grayish-white crystalline deposit of frozen water vapor) forms on an aircraft as a result of?

A

Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft.

74
Q

As a thunderstorm matures, strong downdrafts develop and cold air rushing down out of the cloud spreads along the surface well in advance of the storm itself, this is called?

A

The gust front.

75
Q

Mechanical turbulence is the result of?

A

Friction between air and ground.

76
Q

In METARs, cloud heights are reported?

A

Ft AGL.

77
Q

A curved line on the surface of the Earth that cuts all meridians at the same angle is called a?

A

Rhumb line.

78
Q

Magnetic variation is defined as?

A

The angle between true north and magnetic north at any given point on the earth.

79
Q

In the northern hemisphere, if your airplane is on a northerly heading and a turn is made towards the east or the west, the compass reading?

A

Will lag or indicate a turn in the opposite direction (turning southerly).

80
Q

What are isogonic lines?

A

A line on a chart joining points of equal variation.

81
Q

What are isobar lines?

A

A line connecting points of equal pressure on a constant altitude chart.

82
Q

What are agonic lines?

A

A line on a chart joining points of zero variation.

83
Q

What are isotherms?

A

A line on a chart joining places or points having equal temperatures.

84
Q

In the vicinity of the magnetic poles what happens to the compass?

A

It becomes unreliable.

85
Q

The VNC charts use a Lambert Conformal Conic Projection, what three characteristics of this method?

A
  • Meridians (lines of longitude) are converging lines, intersecting the parallels at right angles
  • A straight line represents a great circle
  • Scale errors are small, hence the scale may be considered constant over a single sheet.
86
Q

What does a map scale of 1:1000000 mean?

A

1 inch on the map is equal to 1000000 inches on the ground.

87
Q

The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered?

A

Runway 09.

88
Q

The runway is lighted at night by two parallel lines of __ lights, taxiways by two parallel lines of __ lights. The missing colours are?

A

White, blue.

89
Q

Where taxiway holding positions aren’t established, an aircraft waiting to enter an active runway should hold where?

A

At least 200 feet from the edge of the runway.

90
Q

You are on final and the runway is clear of traffic, landing permission has not been given and you are unable to contact tower. You should?

A

Overshoot and make another circuit.

91
Q

NOTAM indicates circuits of 1500ft ASL for an aerodrome at 400ft ASL. Cloud base is at 1000ft with a visibility of 3SM, your circuit altitude should be what?

A

500 ft below the cloud, cloud base is reported AGL so cloud base is 1400ft ASL leaving 900ft ASL for the circuit which gives you 500ft separation from the ground.

92
Q

In left hand circuits, a right turn may be performed to?

A

Enter the circuit from upwind, crosswind or downwind.

93
Q

You have been authorized to taxi to the active runway, this involves crossing one inactive runway and two taxiways, your authorization allows you to?

A

Taxi to hold short of the runway in use, but get clearance to cross the inactive runway and taxiways.

94
Q

Accepting clearance for an immediate take off allows the pilot to?

A

Taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.

95
Q

A departing VFR aircraft will normally clear tower frequency when?

A

The flight is clear of the control zone.

96
Q

The specified area associated with a mandatory frequency and within which a pilot is required to contact the ground station and report intentions normally is?

A

Class D airspace, 5NM radius, 3000ftft AGL.

97
Q

When using an uncontrolled aerodrome where no MF exists, what frequency should be used?

A

123.2 MHz.

98
Q

A series of red flashes directed to an airplane in flight means?

A

Airport unsafe, do not land.

99
Q

A flashing white light from the control tower to an airplane taxiing or about to take off means?

A

Return to ramp or hanger.

100
Q

When in VFR flight in the Northern Domestic Airspace, the altimeter should be set to?

A

29.92.

101
Q

To transit VFR through any part of Class C airspace, pilots must?

A

Advice ATC and obtain clearance.

102
Q

To conduct VFR flight in Class B airspace, a pilot must?

A

Advice ATC and obtain clearance.

103
Q

The primary function of Class C airspace to VFR flights is to?

A

More efficiently integrate VFR and IFR flights within airspace.

104
Q

CYA(S) denotes?

A

Advisory area with Soaring activity.

105
Q

Which of the following extends upwards from the surface of the earth?

A

Control zone.

106
Q

An area in which air traffic control extends upwards from a specified height above the surface is called?

A

A control area.

107
Q

A flight plan must be filed for all VFR flights?

A

To or from a military aerodrome.

108
Q

When a flight plan as been filed, the pilot shall report their arrival within?

A

1 hour after arrival.

109
Q

A VFR flight plan must be closed by the pilot?

A

By advising ATC or via a communications base.

110
Q

An air traffic control instruction?

A

Must be complied with when received by the pilot unless instruction is deemed unsafe.

111
Q

A pilot accepts a clearance and subsequently finds that all or part of the clearance cannot be complied with, the pilot should?

A

Comply as best as possible and advice ATC as soon as possible.

112
Q

You are flying in Class G airspace between 3000ft and 18000ft ASL on a magnetic track of 155 degrees, your altitude should be?

A

Odd thousands plus 500.

113
Q

What is the minimum height AGL above which aircraft shall comply with the cruising altitude order?

A

3000ft.

114
Q

In Canada flights conducted VFR over the top if?

A

The departure and arrival points are forecast to have VFR weather.

115
Q

Minimum VFR visibility above 1000ft AGL in uncontrolled airspace is?

A

1SM.

116
Q

Minimum VFR visibility in controlled airspace is?

A

3SM.

117
Q

What are SVFR visibility requirements?

A

1SM.

118
Q

For any VFR flight what must be kept in site at all times?

A

The ground.

119
Q

A pilot flying SVFR clearance has been cleared to the circuit, ahead and below is an overcast layer of stratus cloud, the responsibility of remaining clear of the cloud is?

A

The pilots.

120
Q

ADIZ (Air Defense Identification Zone) rules apply when?

A

To all aircraft.

121
Q

In radio transmission, ground waves follow the surface of the earth. As they come in contact with the surface the ground waves slow down, this slowing down is called?

A

Surface attenuation.

122
Q

The long range capabilities of HF radio are attributed to the behavior of?

A

Sky waves, radio waves reflecting of the Earths ionosphere.

123
Q

What is the minimum altitude a pilot may fly over built-up areas of any city?

A

1000ft above the highest obstacle and 2000ft horizontally from the highest obstacle.

124
Q

When must passengers in an aircraft have their seat belts/harnesses fastened?

A

During takeoff and landing and when directed by flight crew.

125
Q

What is the minimum time between consuming alcohol and flying?

A

8 hours.

126
Q

Do aircraft on the right or left have the right of way?

A

Right.

127
Q

What is the significance of firing a red signal flare?

A

Airport unsafe, do not land.

128
Q

On a cross country flight, a pilot plans to cruise at 12000ft ASL for 2 hours and 45 minutes in an un-pressurized aircraft, when must oxygen be used?

A

2 hours and 15 minutes.

129
Q

During cruise flight in the standard pressure region, what barometric pressure shall be set on the altimeter?

A

29.92.

130
Q

What is standard equipment (S) for flight plan filing purposes?

A

VHF, RTF, VOR and ILS.

131
Q

When going from an area of high barometric pressure to an area of low barometric pressure, if the altimeter is not adjusted the altimeter will read?

A

Higher than the aircraft actually is.

132
Q

An aircraft on a magnetic heading of 180 turns left, what will the compass indicate?

A

The turn in the proper direction but will lead the actual heading throughout the turn (as it’s a northerly turn).

133
Q

When the aircraft accelerates, what error is found in the attitude indicator?

A

There is an indication of a climb.

134
Q

With approach and passage of a frontal system in the northern hemisphere what pressure and wind direction change take place?

A

The pressure falls as the front approaches and the wind shifts clockwise after the frontal passage.

135
Q

How is a cold front formed?

A

A mass of advancing cold air overtakes a mass of warm air and forces its way under, replacing the warmer air mass.

136
Q

A fast moving cold front has severe weather distributed how?

A

Severest weather is normally on a long but narrow band.

137
Q

How is frost formed?

A

Water vapor sublimates directly to a solid state.

138
Q

When the winds are backing this means?

A

The winds are blowing counter-clock wise.

139
Q

When are METARs valid?

A

Only during their immediate observation.

140
Q

Winds are not shown on the GFA below what speed?

A

20kt.

141
Q

Can reflectors be used instead of lighting for runway lighting at night?

A

Yes.

142
Q

A transponder transmitting on Mode C reports what?

A

Altitude to RADAR operator.

143
Q

For VFR flight below 10000ft ASL, the proper transponder code is?

A

1200.

144
Q

If an aircraft is loaded with the aft CofG limit exceeded it will have what performance characteristics?

A

Be easy to spin and stall and exhibit poor stall and spin recovery characteristics.

145
Q

Daylight in Canada is defined as the period of time when?

A

Commencing one half hour before sunrise and ending on half hour after sunset.

146
Q

An airplane flying at night must display what colour light on its starboard wing?

A

Green.

147
Q

The pilot of a light aircraft is following a large aircraft for landing, the approach and touchdown should be?

A

Above the approach path of the large aircraft and touchdown should be done beyond it’s touchdown point.

148
Q

A helicopter in forward flight produces what kind of hazard?

A

Trailing vortices similar to wingtip vortices.

149
Q

Wingtip vortices are most severe when?

A

At high AoA, such as during takeoff rotation (lift-off).

150
Q

What does the needle of the ADF normally indicate?

A

The relative bearing of the station.

151
Q

What does NORDO stand for?

A

No Radio.

152
Q

What light signal directed to an aircraft in flight signifies ‘give way to other aircraft and continue circling’?

A

Steady red.

153
Q

No person shall fly an aircraft in whole or in part within a sparsely settled area unless the aircraft is equipped with?

A

Survival equipment adequate for the survival of all, taking into account season variation.

154
Q

Aircraft departing the circuit at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall?

A

Climb straight ahead on runway heading until clear of the traffic zone or at circuit height before commencing a turn.

155
Q

A VFR flight itinerary can be filed with who?

A

A ‘responsible’ person.

156
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions for a NORDO aircraft to operate in a control zone with SVFR clearance?

A

A NORDO aircraft cannot operate SVFR.

157
Q

To fly in Class B airspace a private pilot must have what?

A

Have logged at least 100 hours as PIC.

158
Q

Within airspace below 18000ft a Terminal Control area may be which of the following classes of airspace?

A

Class B, C or D.

159
Q

Once established in slow flight, increasing the AoA will result in?

A

Less lift and more drag.

160
Q

Indicated stall sped does what with an increase in altitude?

A

Stays the same.

161
Q

The use of red octane fuel in an engine designed for green octane usage will cause what to occur in the engine?

A

Detonation.

162
Q

Carb ice is most likely to form when the temperature and dew point are between what temperatures?

A

-5 and +18 degrees Celsius.

163
Q

The codes: BR, DZ, FG stand for what?

A

Mist, Drizzle, Fog.

164
Q

The passage of a warm front is normally preceded by what succession of clouds?

A

Cirrus, altostratus and nimbostratus (high to low cloud layers).

165
Q

What type of cloud is usually associated with smooth flying conditions?

A

Stratus.

166
Q

When descending from 2000ft AGL to the surface, the winds should be expected to?

A

Decrease and veer.

167
Q

The air over a low pressure area tends to be?

A

Ascending.