Women's Health Flashcards

(319 cards)

1
Q

When should you take folic acid during pregnancy and why?

A

Before pregnancy ideally - up until 12 weeks pregnant

You cannot get enough of it through diet during pregnancy

Helps prevent risk of neural tube defects - e.g spina bifida, cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the normal dose of folic acid mothers should take when pregnant?

A

400micrograms daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When would you take a higher dose of 5mg folic acid?

A

If you have a previous baby with neural tube defect
If you or your partner have a neural tube defect
If you are taking an antiepileptic medications
If you have diabetes, obesity or Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is the booking appointment and what is done there?

A

8-10 weeks pregnant

Full history taken and risk is assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is the dating scan and what is done there?

A

12 weeks

Scan is able to date the pregnancy (give a due date)
Measurements are taken from the nuchal fold for downs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does anomaly screening happen and what is involved?

A

12 weeks
Test for Down’s syndrome

Triple test: nuchal translucency measurement (from sca) PAPP-A and beta HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If the screening for Down’s syndrome is deemed high risk then how can it be diagnosed?

A

Amniocentesis - 2% risk of miscarriage
Chorionic villus sampling - 1% risk of miscarriage
NIPT (non invasive prenatal blood test) - this is not on NHS currently but carries less risk of miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does the anomaly scan happen?

A

18-20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When would a mother be offered the OGTT at 26 weeks?

A
If she is at risk for developing GDM:
BMI >30
Ethnic origins - black African, Indian
Family history of diabetes 
PCOS
Previous macrosomia 
Previous GDM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a normal OGTT?

A

<5.1 fasting

<7.8 2 hour after glucose drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is anti D given?

A

To all Rhesus negative mothers

At 28 weeks (prophylactic dose)
At 34 weeks
48 hours after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of oestrogen during pregnancy?

A

It increases the amount of oxytocin receptors within the uterus to prepare the body for delivery

It helps develop the breast tissue for feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the role of progesterone during pregnancy?

A

Acts as a smooth muscle relaxant
Maintains the uterus lining
Causes enlargement of the breast lobules - for milk to be secreted into

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When does beta HCG peak during pregnancy?

A

At 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What blood tests are offered prior to pregnancy?

A

FBC - check for anaemia
G&S - check blood group (looking for rhesus anti D)
Virus screen - Hep B, syphilis, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is the quadruple test used and what is it?

A

Testing for Down’s syndrome
If you are too late for the combined test (between 14-20 weeks)

Blood test - AFP, inhibin A, Oestriol, Beta HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal changes to BP during pregnancy?

A

BP normally drops

This is due to a drop in vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the haematological changes during pregnancy?

A

Increase in plasma volume by 40%
Increase in RBC volume by 25%

This can lead to anaemia as there is a greater increase in plasma volume compared to the increase in RBC volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why do you get peripheral odema in pregnancy?

A

Due to an increase in plasma volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is pregnancy known as a hypercoagubility state?

A

Due to an increase in clotting factors during pregnancy

This happens to prevent losing too much blood during labour and birth

However it increases the risk of blood clots during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which factors would make a women high risk during pregnancy?

A
Advanced maternal age >40
Low maternal age <20
Certain medical conditions 
Previous surgery 
IVF treatment 
Previous Caesarean section 
Previous problems in pregnancy - hypertension, grown restriction, GDM, fetal abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is the symphysis fundal height measured?

Why is it measured?

A

Get women to empty bladder first - this can add 2-3cm to measurement

Measure from highest point of fundus to symphysis pubis
Plot on growth chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is good pre-pregnancy counselling?

A
Reduce BMI <30
Optimise any health conditions 
Take folic acid and vitamin D
Exercise as normal
Check for MMR Vaccine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the pre-pregnancy planning for women with diabetes?

A

Take 5mg folic acid OD
Switched to metformin or insulin (safe in pregnancy)
Aim for HbA1c <48
Screening for retinopathy and nephropathy (if not had in 6 months)
Check U&Es

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When would a diabetic women be advised against pregnancy?
If HbA1c >86
26
What are the glucose targets for diabetic mothers during pregnancy?
Fasting <5.3 | 1 hour post meal <7.8
27
What extra care should be given to patients with diabetes during pregnancy?
Aspirin 75mg OD - started before 12 weeks (this reduces risk of pre-eclampsia) Regular monitoring of glucose levels Regular contact with midwife (Every 2 weeks) Retinal and renal assessment at 1st appointment Serial Scans every 4 weeks from 28 weeks (in uncomplicated diabetes)
28
What are the risks of diabetes on pregnancy?
``` Miscarriage PET Renal dysfunction Infection Congenital malformations Still Birth ```
29
Why does GDM occur during pregnancy?
Hormone production in pregnancy stimualtes the production of glucose (to ensure energy levels are high in pregnancy) Hormones in pregnancy can also instigate insulin resistance - so glucose is unable to be taken up by cells (to ensure glucose is readily available for the baby) However if this happens to excess then there is too much circulating glucose (GDM)
30
What is fetal macrosomia? Why is it more common in diabetes or GDM?
Enlargement of the fetus >4.5kg High glucose levels in fetus drives production of insulin. Insulin stimulates fat storage and organ growth
31
What is polyhydramnios and when is it more common?
Excess liquor around baby - occurs more in macrosomic babies
32
What is shoulder dystocia?
Where shoulders get stuck after head is delivered More common in macrosomia babies
33
How is the timing of delivery planned for diabetic or GDM patients?
Offer women delivery between 37-40 weeks by LSCS or IOL Offer women on insulin delivery by 38 weeks Women with GDM delivery should be no later than 40+6 Women with macrosomia (>4.5kg) should have elective LSCS due to concerns regarding shoulder dystocia
34
Why should diabetic mothers breastfeed within 30 mins of labour? When should fetal blood glucose be checked after birth?
Risk of fetal hypoglycaemia Check fetal blood glucose every 2-4 hours after birth
35
When will women with GDM return to normal?
Straight away | All glucose reducing agents should be stopped immediately after delivery
36
Are women who have GDM more at risk of developing type II diabetes?
Yes They should have a fasting glucose test 6-12 weeks after birth
37
How is diabetes controlled during pregnancy?
1st line - diet 2nd line - metformin 3rd line - insulin
38
What is the optimal timing of LSCS delivery in non diabetic patients and why?
>39 weeks Before this the fetus lungs are not fully developed They are more at risk of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS)
39
Why are steroids given to mothers who have early induction of labour?
For fetal lung maturity
40
What might be the affect of giving steroids to diabetic mothers? How is this monitored
Can lead to hyperglycaemia - occurs 24-48 hours from administration Slide and scale monitor for this period of time
41
What is the difference between pregnancy induced hypertension and PET?
Pregnancy induced hypertension - hypertension after 20 weeks without proteinuria PET - hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria
42
How is PET diagnosed?
BP >140/90 on 2 occasions 4 hours apart Proteinuria >300mg/24 hours or >30mg/mmol on PCR
43
What are the symptoms of PET?
Severe headache (due to oedema on brain) Visual changes (Blurred vision / spots before eyes) Oedema (Swelling in hands and face) Epigastric pain Vomiting Hyperreflexia - this is more a specific sign
44
What is the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia ?
It is a placental disease An abnormal placenta leads to poor placental perfusion This causes the placenta to release factors These factors activate the vascular endothelium and cause dysfunction This leads to hypertension
45
What is HELLP?
A severe form of pre-eclampsia whose features include: Haemolysis Elevated Liver enzymes Low Platelets
46
How is pre-eclampsia managed?
Asprin 75mg - given from 12 weeks to anyone at risk BP medications - labetalol, nifedipine and methyl dopa Fluid restriction - to reduce pulmonary odema Magnesium sulphate - seizure prevention
47
What are the risk factors for PET?
``` Nullparity (or first birth from different dad) Age >40 Pregnancy interval >10 years Family or personal history of PET Multiple pregnancies BMI >35 Vascular or kidney disease Smoking ```
48
When is labetalol contraindicated in pregnancy?
If the patient has asthma
49
When is FBC checked during pregnancy routinely? Why?
``` Booking appt (8 weeks) 28 weeks ``` Look for anaemia
50
What is gestational thrombocytopenia?
Low platelet count in pregnancy Up to pregnant women get this There is no increase in bleeding risk unless platelets fall below 100
51
What is small for gestational age (SGA)? Difference between SGA and FGR
When the fetus is born with a birth weight below the 10th centile. These babies will have a small growth curve throughout the pregnancy Not all babies with SGA have FGR - 50-70% of babies are constitutionally small
52
What is FGR?
Fetal growth restriction Failure of fetus to reach pre determined growth These babies will start off with a normal growth curve and then plateau off
53
What is the difference between symmetrical FGR and asymmetrical FGR?
Symmetrical - where head and abdomen are equally small (due to insult early in pregnancy - cogenital abnormalites, intrauterine infections, substance abuse) Asymmetrical - where blood is directed to head/brain and heart, and abdominal fat stores are reduced (due to late insult in pregnancy - maternal smoking, hypertension)
54
What are the major risk factors for FGR?
``` Smoking (>11 a day) Maternal age >40 Diseases - renal, hypertension, diabetes Heavy PV bleeding Low PAPP-A Cocaine use Paternal or maternal SGA Antiphospholipid syndrome ```
55
What are the minor risk factors for FGR?
``` IVF pregnancy Nulloiparity BMI <20 or >25 Smoking (1-10 a day) Previous PET ```
56
Which patients are unsuitable for fundal growth height monitoring? How do you assess these patients?
Patients with fibroids BMI >35 Serial scans from 28 weeks to check for FGR
57
What would you do if you suspected FGR from the growth chart?
Arrange an USS scan Get an estimated fetal weight (EFW) Check liquor volume - if below expected this may indicate FGR Umbilical artery Doppler - check blood flow to the placenta
58
How is FGR managed?
If in early pregnancy - check for cogenital abnormlaites, give steroids and monitor If in late pregnancy - give steroids and consider delivery
59
What is the APGAR scoring?
``` This is a test performed on the baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth: A - appearance (are they blue or pink) P - pulse (pulse should be over 100) G - grimace (are they crying) A - activity (are they moving) R - respiration (is the baby breathing) ```
60
What is a normal APGAR score?
Over 7
61
When is aspirin given in pregnancy?
If diabetic | If at risk of developing PET
62
What are the thresholds for anaemia in pregnancy?
<110 in 1st trimester <105 in 2nd trimester <100 in 3rd trimester
63
How is iron deficiency anaemia managed in pregnancy?
Dietary information given | Ferrous sulphate iron replacement is given
64
What pharmacological agents can be used in the management of post-partum haemorrhage?
``` Syntocinon Syntometrine Ergometrine Misoprostol Carboprost Transexamic acid ```
65
What is the definition of PPH?
Loss of 500mL or more within 24 hours of birth Minor - 500-1000 Major >1000 Severe >2000
66
What is the management of PPH?
Bloods - G&S, FBC, Coagulation screen Obs - pulse, resp rate, BP every 15 mins Fluids - warmed crystalloid infusion Blood transfusion - for major PPH
67
What are the different causes for heavy menstrual bleeding?
Normal - some women can just have heavy bleeding Fibroids Endometrial polyps Endometriosis PCOS Endometrial cancer (especially if >45 years old)
68
What non gynaolocigcal causes do you have to rule out in a patient with heavy menstrual bleeding?
Haemophilia Von villebrands disease New medication: anticoagulants
69
What are the management options for heavy menstrual periods? (Where there is no underlying pathology)
Contraception - mirena coil, or POP (progesterone supresses mensturation) NSAIDS - reduce prostaglandin (which is linked to heavy periods) Mefanamic acid (NSAID) Endometrial ablation Hysterectomy Tranexamic acid - to prevent excessive blood loss
70
What are Fibroids? What is the pathophysiology?
Non cancerous growths that develop in the uterus They are thought to grow in the presence of oestrogen - will tend to shrink after menopause
71
How are fibroids managed?
Can be left alone if not causing symptoms Myomectomy - surgery to remove Uterine artery embolisation - shrinks fibroids Hysterectomy
72
What are the symptoms you might get with fibroids?
``` Heavy periods Sensation of pelvic mass - described as pressure in pelvis Abdominal pain Lower back pain Urinary frequency Constipation Pain during sex ```
73
What is the most common type of fibroid?
Intramural Develops inside of the muscle wall in the womb
74
What are GNRHs and how do they work?
Gonadotropin releasing hormone analogues given to help treat symptoms caused by fibroids Given by injection - act on the pituitary gland to stop production of oestrogen Can stop menstrual cycle - but are not a form of contraception
75
When would GNRHs be used for fibroids?
If a women is just before menopause and is still getting symptoms from the fibroids Given before surgery to shrink fibroids
76
What are the side effects of taking GNRHs
They stop oestrogen production - so can bring on menopause like symptoms Also cause risk of osteoporosis (due to lack of oestrogen)
77
What are the different types of medication given to shrink fibroids?
GnRHas | Ulipristal acetate
78
What are the red flag symptoms in regard to PV bleeding?
``` Age >45 Intermenstural bleeding Postcoital bleeding Post menopausal bleeding Abnormal examination findings e.g, pelvic mass or cervix lesion Treatment failure after 3 months ```
79
What are the main risks of a mirena coil?
``` Ovarian cysts Acne Mood changes Breast soreness Weight gain (not proven) Risk of expulsion of coil into the myometrium Risk of perforation Risk of infection ```
80
What is the difference between an early and late miscarriage?
Early - before 12 weeks gestation | Late - between 12-24 weeks gestation
81
Why might a women have a miscarriage?
They are common - 15% of recognised pregnancies result in miscarriage Chromosomal abnormalities (50%) - problems with early replication Fetal malformations Placental abnormalities
82
What are the risk factors for having a miscarriage?
``` Multiple pregnancies Advanced maternal/paternal age Lifestyle: Smoking, alcohol, high BMI, stress Previous TOP Previous miscarriage IVF Chronic illnesses - thyroid, diabetes, PCOS Uterine malformations - fibroids, polyps Medications - e.g, teratogens ```
83
What are the 2 separate things seen on USS that indicate a miscarriage?
Embryo >7mm with NO fetal heart action Gestational sac diameter >25mm wth no yolk sac or embryo
84
If an embryo is less than 7mm on USS and with no fetal heart heart beat what does this mean?
Could mean that the baby is still too small to hear heart beat Could mean a miscarriage - have to watch and wait
85
What is a threatened miscarriage?
Anyone who is less than 24 weeks pregnant that presents with vaginal bleeding
86
What is an inevitable miscarriage?
Where the cervix is open on examination - therefore the miscarriage is about to be imminently passed in the next few hours
87
What is a complete miscarriage?
Where all the pregnancy tissue is passed from the uterus
88
What is an incomplete miscarriage?
Where some of the pregnancy tissue remains in the uterus
89
What is a delayed miscarriage?
Where the pregnancy has stopped growing, or the fetus has died but there has been no signs of bleeding So when a miscarriage has happened without anyone noticing
90
How would you manage someone that had come in with a suspected miscarriage?
Vital signs - check for hypovolamia Exam - abdominal exam to rule out ectopic Bloods - FBC, G&S, serum HCG USS - to look for signs of miscarriage Swab - if there are signs of infections, must rule out a septic miscarriage
91
What are the 3 main management options if someone has a miscarriage?
Expectant management - wait for products to bleed out Medical management - give misoprostol to stimulate miscarriage Surgical management - surgically remove pregnancy from womb
92
Why might you advise against expectant management of miscarriage?
Can vary from days to weeks before miscarriage happens - degree of uncertainty Can have severe bleeding - risk of anaemia Seeing the pregnancy pass at home alone may be distressing
93
What is misoprostol?
Prostaglandin used to start uterine contraction and the passing of pregnancy tissue
94
What are the risks with surgical management of miscarriage?
Infection Uterine perforation GA risk
95
How can an ectopic pregnancy present?
Abdominal pain Shoulder tip pain - due to peritoneal diaphragmatic irritation from blood Rectal pain or diarrhoea - due to blood irritation Vaginal bleeding - may or may not have this
96
What are the differentials to consider for ectopic pregnancy?
Miscarriage Corpus luteum cyst Appendicitis
97
What is the management of suspected ectopic pregnancy?
Obvs - looking for hypovolemic shock Examination - abdo may be tender, cervical excitation Large bore cannula Bloods - FBC, G&S, betaHCG USS - may show ectopic pregnancy (if not then this does not exclude it)
98
How does betaHCG levels differ in normal pregnancy, failing pregnancy and ectopic pregnancy?
Normal - increases by >63% every 48 hours Failing - will fall sometimes Ectopic - unpredictable (can behave normally or like falling, or do something different)
99
At what level of betaHCG would you expect to see an intrauterine pregnancy on USS?
Once betaHCG reaches 1000
100
What are the 3 types of management for ectopic pregnancies?
Surgical Medical Conservative (expectant)
101
When would you perform surgical management of ectopic pregnancy?
When patient is haemodynamically unstable When betaHCG is >5000 When USS mass is >3.5cm
102
What happens during surgical management of ectopic pregnancy?
Laparoscopic salphingectomy The Fallopian tube with ectopic in is removed
103
What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy?
Fallopian tube
104
What is the medical management of ectopic pregnancy? How does it work?
Intramuscular (IM) Methotrexate Works by preventing proliferation of pregnancy tissue
105
When would you give medical management for ectopic pregnancy?
If patient is pain free | If beta HCG <5000 (<3000 more ideal)
106
What do you need to counsel to a patient before giving methotrexate for treating ectopic pregnancy?
May not work - may need a 2nd dose if betaHCG isn't falling Can be painful Can effect liver - so LFTs must be monitored Must avoid getting pregnant for 3 months after - due to teratogenic properties of methotrexate Must avoid alcohol and NSAIDs for 3 months after - due to effect on liver
107
When would conservative management for ectopic pregnancy be offered?
If the patient has no symptoms If betaHCG <1500 If mass on USS is <3.5cm
108
If a women has one ectopic pregnancy what does she need to be counselled about regarding future pregnancies?
10% risk of recurrence - this is because it is normally due to damage to Fallopian tube which will either still be there, or have similar damage in other tube She will be offered an USS at 7 weeks to confirm pregnancy is intrauterine
109
What are the risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy?
``` Anything that causes damage to the Fallopian tubes: PID Smoking - effects mucus clearance Tubal surgery IVF IUD POP - as this reduces cilia movements ```
110
What is a molar pregnancy?
A pregnancy which develops as a result of imbalance in the amount of genetic material when the embryo first develops
111
What is molar pregnancy a risk factor for?
Cancer | It is a precancerous form - can progress to gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTD)
112
What are the two types of molar pregnancies?
Complete mole | Partial molar
113
What is a complete molar pregnancy?
Where a single sperm goes into empty ovum and then sperm divides in two OR Where two sperm go into an empty ovum
114
What is a partial molar pregnancy?
Where 2 sperm enter a normal ovum - you get 69 chromosomes
115
What % of molar pregnancies need chemotherapy?
Complete molar - 15% need chemo | Partial molar - 0.5% need chemo
116
What is the management of a molar pregnancy?
``` USS - to confirm Bloods - FBC, G&S, LFTs (may need methotrexate), beta HCG IV fluids - stabalise Medical management - methotrexate Surgical evacuation if needed ```
117
How would you counsel someone who has had a molar pregnancy?
Not to get pregnant for 6 months after | Will need follow up in specialist centre
118
What is the pathophysiology of hyperemesis gravidarum?
Production of betaHCG during pregnancy | BetaHCG causes nausea and vomiting
119
Why can you get hyperthyroidism during the first trimester of pregnancy? Why is it self limiting?
BetaHCG acts like TSH Binds to receptors causing production of T4 This leads to hyperthyroidism Beta HCG peaks at 12 weeks so hyperthyroidism should level off when beta HCG decreases
120
What are the risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Multiple pregnancies | Molar pregnancies
121
What investigations should be done and why when someone presents with vomiting during pregnancy?
``` FBC - look for infection G&S - sepsis? U&Es - look for electrolyte imbalances TFTs - hyperthyroidism assocaited with hyperemesis Beta HCG - diagnostic for hyperemesis Calcium phosphate Amylase - rule out pancreatitis as cause LFTs - exclude gallstones, hepatitis Urine dip - look for ketones ```
122
How the severity of hyperemesis gravidarum assessed?
PUQE score | Pregnancy unique quantification of emesis
123
How is hyperemesis gravidarum managed?
If mild, If ketones <2 or PUQE score <13: Oral antiemetics, ginger If ketones >2 Admit for rehydration - cannula IV fluids and antiemetics (cyclizine) IV potassium - to correct electrolyte imbalances Thiamine supplementation - should be given to all women admitted with prolonged vomiting to prevent wernickes encephalopathy VTE prophylaxis - LMWH Steroid replacement - if other treatment has failed Paranatel nutrition - if all else fails
124
What are the differentials for abnormal discharge?
Bacterial vaginosis Candida (thrush) STIs - chlamydia, gonorrhoea, trichomonas, herpes Cervical ca
125
When are the routine smear tests for women carried out?
Aged 25-49 every 3 years | Aged 50-64 every 5 years
126
What happens at a smear test?
Use a fine brush that goes into the cervix and is rotated several times to 'scrape' the cells off the cervix
127
What does dyskaryosis mean?
This means abnormal nucleus | It is based on how abnormal the cells on the cervix look during a smear
128
Dependant on the degree of dyskaryosis present at a smear test, what happens?
Borderline or mild dyskaryosis - HPV tested (if HPV positive then referred to colposcopy) Moderate or severe dyskaryosis - refer to colposcopy
129
What are the different stains used in colposcopy and why?
Acetic acid (white) - used to stain cells with higher ribosomal activity white. Cancer cells will turn white Iodine stain (brown) - stains cytoplasm brown. Cancer cells lack cytoplasm so won't turn brown
130
What is CIN?
Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia This is areas on the cervix which have dysplasia (abnormal growth). CIN Refers to precancerous areas on the cervix Acetic acid stains these areas white during colposcopy These areas are diagnosed through biopsy and histology
131
What are the different stages of CIN?
CIN1 - 1/3rd of cervix is affected CIN2 - 2/3rds of cervix is affected CIN3 - 3/3rds of cervix is affected
132
At what levels of CIN will the cervix be treated?
CIN2 and CIN3 have a higher risk of developing into cancer These are treated CIN1 cells usually spontaneous return to normal by themselves - this is due to the natural immune response
133
How are abnormal cervical cells managed?
LLETZ (large loop excision of transformation zone) Removal of the transformation zone under local anaesthetic
134
After LLETZ, what is the follow up?
Histology for HPV positive - smear in 6 months | Histology for HPV negative - smear in 3 years as normal
135
What are the other management options for abnormal cervical cells apart from LLETZ?
Cryotherapy - freezing affected area of cervic Laser treatment - to destroy abnormal cells Cold coag - using heat to destroy and remove cells
136
Is colposcopy safe in pregnancy?
Yes it is safe to exclude disease However biopsy should be avoided unless malignancy is suspected
137
What counsel should you give to a patient after colposcopy?
Wear a sanitary pad - for bleeding Dark fluid may be seen on pad - this is the stain used Might get some spotting and discharge for 3 days Avoid sex, tampons and swimming for 2 days Risk of infection If treatment carried out - then blood stained discharge present for 2-4 weeks
138
How does candida present?
Itching and soreness around entrance to vagina Vaginal discharge - odourless, thick and white Painful intercourse Stinging sensation when peeing
139
What is the most common cause for altered vaginal discharge?
Bacterial vaginosis
140
How does bacterial vaginosis present?
``` Greyish/white discharge Thin watery discharge Strong malodour (fishy smell) ```
141
How is bacterial vaginosis treated?
Antibiotics | Usually metronidazole and clidamycin
142
What are the causes for bacterial vaginosis?
Caused by a change of natural balance of bacteria in vagina Being sexually active - it is not an STI but can be triggered by sex Change of sexual partner If you have an intrauterine device
143
How is thrush managed
``` Oral antifungals (imidazole and triazole) Topical antifungals - clotrimazole (this is found in canesten as the pessary) ``` Steroid cream - to reduce itching
144
What are the 4 STIs you want to rule out in someone presenting with altered vaginal discharge?
Chlamydia Gonorrhoea Trichomonas Herpes simplex
145
What investigations should be done for someone presenting with abnormal discharge?
Endocervical swab - looking for chlamydia and gonorrhoea Vaginal pH - >4.5 suggests BV or trichomonas Bloods - for HIV and syphilis Consider High vaginal swab - helps aid diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis, candidas, trichomonas
146
Who should you carry out a HIV test on?
Any new patient in high risk area Anyone at risk - patients with other STIs, MSM, sex workers, from country of high prevalence, IVDUs, any sexual partner at risk Anyone with clinical indicator infection - e.g, pneumonia, TB, lymphoma, meningitis Anyone who asks for it
147
How would you counsel a patient prior to having a HIV test?
The test - blood test Explain it is a routine blood test Explain benefits of testing - earlier diagnosis better prognosis, effective treatments are now available Explain window period (4 weeks 95%, 3 months 99% antibody production) Insurance issues - if negative, then insurers don't need to know they had test. If positive - must declare (like all medical conditions) How would they like results - check contact details
148
What are the causes for abnormal vaginal discharge?
Infective - BV and candida Non infective - cervical ectopy, polyps, foreign bodes STIs - chlamydia, gonorrhoea, trichomonas
149
What is the normal pH of the vagina?
3.5-4.5
150
In which infections would the vaginal PH be altered?
Bacterial vaginosis Trichomonas Ph >4.5
151
What would blood in vaginal discharge make you think of?
Possible malignancy (cervical)
152
What laboratory tests are performed on a high vaginal swab?
Microscopy, sensitivity and culture
153
What proportion of CIN1 progress to invasive cervical cancer?
1%
154
What proportion of CIN3 progress to invasive cervical cancer?
12%
155
What are the stepwise hormone changes during Parturition?
ACTH release - from fetus anterior pituitary (due to stress) Cortisol release - from fetal adrenal glands Hormone alteration in placenta - cortisol causes a decrease in oestrogen and progesterone from placenta, and in turn increases prostaglandin production Prostaglandin action - causes uterine contraction and cervical stretching Cervix stimulation - stretching of cervix stimulates sensory nerves Oxytocin production - sensory nerves stimulate oxytocin production from mothers hypothalamus Oxytocin release - from posterior pituitary gland Oxytocin action - causes further uterine contraction and and further prostaglandin stimulation
156
When is a full term baby delivered?
Between 37-42 weeks
157
What are the 3 stages of labour?
Effacement (cervical dilation) Fetal expulsion Placental delivery
158
What are the two stages of the first stage of labour?
Latent - up until cervix is 4cm dilated | Established - 4cm-10cm dilated
159
What 3 things must be present to diagnose labour?
Effacement of the cervix (thinning) Dilation of cervix >4cm Regular painful contractions
160
What are the 4 different places a women can give birth?
Home Free standing midwifery led unit (birth centre) Alongside standing midwifery led unit (birth centre in hospital) Obstetric unit (consultant led delivery suite)
161
Which patients can have a home birth?
Low risk patients
162
What should you counsel a mother on regarding home birth?
If first baby - 50% rate of transfer to hospital (usually due to pain relief) If 2nd or 3rd baby - transfer rate is 1 in 12 Pain relief - usually entanox (NO) (epidural not available) Need a phone line and mobile signal (? If live rurally) If you go over by 12 days then will need induction in hospital Contact on call midwife when go into labour (not always your midwife, it is part of a team) Midwifes are able to do stitches if you need them to
163
What do you need to counsel a women on if she is wanting to have birth in midwifery led centre (birth centre)?
1st baby transfer rates to hospital - 40% 2nd baby transfer rates to hospital - 10% If unit is separate from hospital, then might not be able to have epidural CTG not always available - normally just use fetal Doppler
164
How many cm an hour would you be expected to dilate in labour?
Primigravid - 0.5cm an hour | Multipgravid - 1cm an hour
165
What is meconium
Green fluid from the babies bowls If light green then not concerning If it is thick and then this can suggest fetal distress
166
When would you do a fetal blood sample and how?
If the baby seems in distress from a CTG Any delivery is not imminent Put in speculum and nick the top of babies scalp to get blood sample Blood sample will tell you gas composition and pH
167
At what pH levels would you be concerned on a fetal blood sample?
Normal pH >7.25 Between 7.2-7.25 - check again in 30 mins If pH <7.2 - immediate delivery is needed, either from Caesarean section or instrumental delivery
168
Once a women is fully dilated, what do you do?
Allow 1 hour for passive descent After 1 hour commence pushing After 2 hours if no baby then help is needed
169
What are the two options for the 3rd stage of labour?
Physiological - wait for placenta to pass naturally (this can take up to an hour) Active - use drugs to pass placenta (Takes 5 minutes)
170
What happens in the active 3rd stage of labour?
Hormones given IM to mother - usually synometrin (combination of syntocinon and ergometrine) Cord lengthens out - it is then clamped and cut Midwife then pulls on the cord, to pull the placenta through the vagina
171
What hormones are given in the active 3rd stage of labour and why?
Syntometrin (syntocinon and ergometrine) Ergomentrine - fast acting causes uterine contractions Syntocinon (artificial oxytocin) - maintains uterine contractions
172
Why can't you give ergometrine to a women with raised BP?
As this can make it even higher
173
When would you offer induction of labour?
If it is a high risk baby and you want to get it out If uncomplicated baby but between 41 and 42 weeks and not gone into spontaneous labour If a women has had rupture of membranes at term
174
What drug is usually given for induction of labour
Vaginal prostin (prostaglandin)
175
When is a membrane sweep offered? What is it?
At 41 weeks A vaginal examination which stimulates the neck of the womb to trigger labour. It may take 24-48 hours to get into labour
176
What are the signs of labour
Start with irregular contractions, they will become more often, lasting longer and stronger (can take up to 24 hours for this to happen) Backache Spontaneous rupture o membranes - leak of amniotic fluid
177
What are the 3Ps that can slow the process of labour down?
Powers - how strong and effective the contractions are Passages - shape and size of pelvis (also placenta praevia) Passenger - size of baby and which way it is lying
178
What different options are available for pain relief in labour (non pharmaceutical and pharmaceutical)?
``` Warm bath TENS machine - transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation Breathing exercises Massage Entanox (gas and air) Epidurals ```
179
What would you counsel a women who wants a VBAC (vaginal birth after Caesarean section)
75% of women have successful VBAC 1 in 4 women will still need emergency c section during labour You are encouraged to give birth in hospital because of this When to advice against it - more than 2 previous c sections, complicated uterine scars, high BMI, older mother Absolute contraindications - classical c section scar, or uterine rupture
180
Explain the process of labour
Explain anatomy of pelvis Explain anatomy of fetal skull Explain station (+ once below ischial spines) Definition of labour (3 things) Stages of labour Mechanism of labour (engagement, flexion, rotation etc) 3rd stage of labour
181
What is the mechanism of labour?
Engagement, descent and flexion Internal rotation - so baby is facing occipitoanterior Extension - of head out of the pelvis External rotation and resitution - baby roatates back to transverse and lines up the shoulders Delivery of shoulders - anterior (downward traction) followed by posterior
182
What are the causes of Intrapartum Haemorrhage?
Uterine rupture | Vasa previa
183
What is vasa previa?
Condition where the fetal blood vessels cross or run near the opening of the uterus These vessels are at risk of rupture when the membranes rupture
184
What do ketones in urine mean during pregnancy?
Ketones mean that fat is being broken down instead of carbohydrates Ketones suggest that mother and baby are not getting enough fuel (can be due to diet, or severe nausea and vomiting) May suggest fetal distress May be linked to gestational diabetes if BMs increased
185
What is shoulder dystocia?
Where the baby's head has been born but one of the shoulders becomes stuck behind the mothers pubic bone If this happens usually additional movements are need to release the baby's shoulder
186
What is primary and secondary and PPH?
Primary - >500mL blood loss within 24 hours of delivery Secondary - any significant blood loss between 24 hours and 12 weeks of delivery
187
What is the difference between minor and major PPH?
Minor: 500-1000mL Major: >1000mL
188
What are the 4 Ts of PPH?
Tone Trauma Tissue Thrombin
189
What is the most common cause of PPH?
Uterine Atony Where the uterine fails to contract after birth, so the placental arteries don't clamp, and excessive bleeding occurs
190
How is PPH caused by uterine atony treated?
Fundal massage - causes smooth muscle in uterine wall to contract and harden Uterine contracting meds given -Ergometrine, syntocinon infusion, misoprostol, carboprost Tranexamic acid - to stop the bleeding Breast feeding - this stimulates secretion of oxytocin Catheter - empty bladder (which might be compressing on uterus)
191
What can causes of Trauma leading to PPH?
Incision fro c section Tearing of perineum Damage to perinium from medical instruments
192
What are the Tissue Causes of PPH?
Retained placenta Placenta accreta - placenta invades myometrium so doesn't easily separate Placenta previa
193
What is the general management of PPH?
``` A-E assessment General Obs - BP, HR, RR, Cap refill 2 large bore canulas - one in each arm Bloods - FBC, G&S, clotting, U&Es, LFTs (clotting Factors) Fluids - give warm cystalloid fluids Transfusion - O- blood given ```
194
What are the different degrees of perineal tears?
1st degree - injury to perineal skin and vaginal epithelium 2nd degree - injury to fascia and muscles (not anal sphincter muscles) 3rd degree - injury to anal sphincter complex (3A <50% external) (3B >50% external) (3C external and internal) 4th degree - involves perineal fascia, muscles, both anal sphincters and epithelium
195
What are the risk factors for PPH?
``` Physiological 3rd stage of labour Pre-eclampsia High BMI Prolonged labour Multiple pregnancies Placenta previa ```
196
What is the main cause of Thrombin in PPH?
Coagulopathy E.g, due to pre-eclampsia
197
What are the time periods for the 4 common STIs before they are picked up on testing?
Chlamydia - 2 weeks Gonorrhoea - 2 weeks HIV - 1 month Shyphilis - 3 months
198
What is placenta previa?
Where the placenta is low lying and covers either partially or fully the cervical os
199
How is placenta previa diagnosed?
Transvaginal USS
200
How far must the placenta be from the cervical os for the mother to have a vaginal delivery?
2cm
201
For women who have placenta previa on USS at their anomaly scan, what counsel would you give?
Reach with vaginal USS at 32 weeks 11% of women will still have placenta previa at this time (so majority of the time the placenta moves up) If placenta previa is present at 32 weeks - 90% of women will still have low for delivery C section is advised
202
What are the differentials for abdominal pain in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?
``` Pre-term labour Placental abruption Uterine rupture Appendicitis Ovarian torsion UTI ```
203
What is the fetal fibronectin test?
A test to check protein levels of fetal fibronectin - this is a protein which can suggest pre term labour (positive predictive value of 46-80%) After 35 weeks it begins to break down So if detected between 22-35 weeks it is an indicator of preterm birth risk
204
When would you do a fetal fibronectin test?
If a women is 30-35 weeks pregnant and you want to know if she is in preterm labour (e.g, presents with abdo pain) And transvaginal USS is not available or acceptable If >50 this suggests pre term labour
205
What is placental abruption?
Separation of placenta from the uterine wall
206
What are the symptoms for placenta abruption?
``` Abdominal pain PV bleeding (not always present as can be inside) Uterine tenderness (woody hardiness) ```
207
What is the management for placenta abruption ?
Expectant management Induction of delivery - if there is any sign of maternal or fetal compromise
208
What is the main risk factor for uterine rupture?
Previous Caesarean section When trying vaginal birth after C section risk of uterine rupture is 7 in 1000
209
What are the signs of uterine rupture?
Abdominal pain Hypovolemic shock Uterine contractions may stop
210
Where does the pain location differ for appendicitis in the different trimesters of pregnancy?
This is because the appendix moves during pregnancy 1st trimester - lower right quadrant 2nd trimester - umbilical level 3rd trimester - diffuse pain or upper right quadrant
211
How would you interpret a CTG?
DR - define risk C - contractions (how many in 10 mins) Bra - baseline HR of fetus (normal is 110-160) V - variability (is it >5bpm) A - accelerations (increase in HR of >15bpm for >15 seconds) D - decelerations (decrease in HR of >15bpm for >15 seconds) O - overall impression (reassuring or non reassuring)
212
What are the different types of decelerations?
Early decelerations - in time with uterine contractions (suggests pull on the cord) Variable decelerations - rapid fall in HR with variable recovery (caused by umbilical cord compression during labour) Late decelerations - begin at peak of uterine contractions and recover after contractions end (suggests insufficient blood flow to placenta) Prolonged decelerations - >3 minutes. This is non reassuring
213
What might a sinosoidal pattern suggest on an CTG?
Severe fetal hypoxia | Fetal thumb sucking
214
What are the differentials for PV bleeding in the 3rd trimester?
Cervical ectropians - more common during pregnancy Candidas infection Cervical dilation - bleeding can occur at the start of normal labour Placental abruption Placenta praevia Vas praevia
215
How would you manage a women who presents with 3rd trimester bleeding?
``` A+E assessment Check obs BP, HR, cap refill, make sure they are haemodynamically stable Abdominal exam PV exam - bimanual and speculum Bloods - FBC, G&S, clotting screen CTG - check on baby USS - check on baby growth ```
216
What treatment would you give to a pregnant women who had a VTE risk?
LMWH - this does not cross the placenta so cannot harm baby
217
Why would you stop LMWH treatment before labour?
Risk of bleeding | Need to stop at least 24 hours before epidural
218
How would you assess VTE risk in a pregnant women admitted to hospital
Check level of mobility - all patients with reduced mobility should be considered for further risk assessment Check thrombis risk - using risk factors e.g, wells score Check bleeding risk Balance thrombosis risk against bleeding risk
219
What is the kleihauer test and when would you do it?
Used to measure the amount of fetal haemoglobin transferred from a fetus to a mothers blood stream If there is a risk of bleeding during pregnancy and the women is rhesus - If this klihauer test is positive then you need to give anti-D
220
What are tocolytics?
Medications used to supress premature labour
221
When would nifidepine be given as a tocolytic?
If the women is between 24 - 37 weeks and who is in suspected preterm labour but with intact membranes
222
What is P-PROM?
Preterm Premature rupture of membranes
223
How would you manage P-PROM?
Offer oral erythromycin until women is in established labour Blood tests to check for intrauterine infection
224
When would operative vaginal delivery be offered?
If there is fetal compromise If there is failure to progress If the head is no more than 1/5th palpable abdominally (do not attempt if the baby's head is more than 2/5ths palpable in abdomen)
225
What is the timeframe for inadequate process to progress in labour?
Lack of progress for <2 hours - nulliparous women | Lack of progress for <1 hours - multiparous women
226
What are the two main operational vaginal deliveries?
``` Forceps Vacuum extraction (Venthouse delivery) ```
227
What are the different types of forceps?
``` Outlet forceps (wridleys) - used when skull is visible without separating labia Low/mid cavity forceps (Neville Barnes/simpsons) - used when fetal head is 1/5th palpable and 2+ station Rotational forceps (kiellands) - use to rotate back to normal position ```
228
When would you abandon operative vaginal delivery?
When there is no evidence of progressive decent with moderate traction during each contraction Where delivery is not imminent following 3 contractions of a correctly applied instrument by an experienced operator
229
How do you work out which position the baby is in from feeling the head PV?
Use finger to find sagittal suture - run finger around in circle If you can feel 3 sutures - this is posterior fontanelle If you can feed 4 sutures - this is the anterior fontanelle
230
What would significant moulding suggest?
Cephalopelvic disproportion Consider Caesarean section
231
What should the duration be for the 2nd stage of labour?
In nulliparous women - no more than 2 hours (or 3 hours with epidural) In multiparous women - no more than 1 hours (or 2 hours with epidural)
232
When would you suspect delay in the 2nd stage of labour? What would you do?
Nulliparous women - suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour (offer amniotomy if membranes in tact). Diagnose delay if not happened in 2 hours and undertake operative vaginal delivery Multiparous women - suspect delay if progress inadequate after 30 mins (offer aminotomy if membranes in tact). Diagnose delay if not happened in 1 hour and undertake operative vaginal delivery
233
In which women is operative vaginal delivery more common?
Primiparous women Women in supine and lithotomy positions Women who have epidural anaesthesia
234
When should vacuum extraction not be performed?
If the baby is less than 36 weeks | If there is significant caput or moulding
235
How is Ovulation controlled?
GnRH - released by hypothalamus GnRH acts on anterior pituitary gland to release FSH and LH FSH acts on the ovaries causing follicle development LH stimulates androgen production, androgens are then aromatised to make oestrogen Oestrogen normally inhibits LH/FSH release, however a peak of oestrogen production causes release of LH/FSH (negative to positive feedback) Surge of LH is responsible for Ovulation
236
How can you tell if a women is ovulating?
Regular cycles usually suggest ovulation Mid luteal progesterone measurement - this can confirm whether women is ovulating FSH/LH - these can be measured to see if women is ovulating
237
What are the stages of the menstrual cycle?
Menses stage - where lining breaks down Proliferative stage - oestrogen repairs endotherlium Ovulation - egg is released Luteal stage - progesterone is high in preparation for fertilisation, the uterine wall grows
238
What is AMH?
Anti mullerian hormone Produced by ovary - indicator of ovarian reserve
239
What would the hormone levels be in a women if she had a hypothalamus or pituitary problem resulting in Ovulation dysfunction?
Low FSH Low LH Low oestrogen
240
What would the hormone levels be in a women if she had PCOS?
FSH normal LH raised Oestrogen normal
241
What is the main ovarian cause for Ovulation dysfunction?
Polycystic ovarian disease (PCOS)
242
What would the hormone levels be if a women had premature ovarian failure?
FSH high LH high Oestrogen low
243
What are the fertility rates in the UK?
80% of couples will get pregnant in 1 year if: - the women is <40 - they have regular unprotected sexual intercourse
244
What are the risk factors for infertility?
Increased female age Uterine abnormalities - firboids, polyps Lifestyle factors - obesity, alcohol, smoking, drugs Men who wear tight body wear - due to increased scrotal temp Men who use body building drugs
245
What investigations would you carry out on a women with infertility?
Ovarian reserve testing - AMH Progesterone testing in luteal phase - especially in irregular cycles FSH and LH - offered to women with irregular cycles Rubella testing - offered to all women with infertility problems STI screening - especially chlamydia
246
In a women presenting with oligomenorhoea or amenorrhea what other tests would you want to do?
Thyroid function tests
247
What additional imaging tests can be done to assess infertility in a women?
Hysterosalpingography - X ray to look at Fallopian tubes, dye is inserted which travels up the tubes Hysterocontrastsonosalpingogram (HyCoSy) - USS to look at Fallopian tubes, uterus and endometrium
248
What are the normal ranges for semen analysis?
``` Semen volume >1.5mL PH >7.2 Sperm concentration >15 million per mL Sperm number >39 million per ejaculate Total motility >40% motile, or >32% with progressive motility Vitality >58% Morphology >4% ```
249
What would you do if a semen analysis is abnormal?
Repeat analysis in 3 months (this allows sperm cycle formation to be completed) If there is gross spermatozoa deficiency then repeat test done asap
250
What are the main causes for infertility?
Male factor Ovulation problems Tubal problems
251
What are the risk factors for tubal damage?
``` STIs - chlamydia and gonorrhoea Pelvic inflammatory disease Endometriosis Previous abdominal surgery Caesarean sections ```
252
How is tubal patency assessed?
No risk factors - Hysterosalpingography (HSG) X ray and dye | Risk factors - laparoscopy
253
What is the best chance for conception if a women has a tubal factor?
IVF
254
What is endometriosis?
Where the lining of the womb grows in other places such as the Fallopian tubes or ovaries
255
What are the theories of pathophysiology of endometriosis?
Retrograde flow - lining travels up during menstruation Vascular and lymphatic dissemination - endometrial cells travel through vascular and lymph Coelomic metaplasia - stem cells in peritoneal cavity develop into endometrial tissue
256
What are the symptoms of endometriosis?
``` Pelvic pain (worse on period) Dysmenorrhea (period pain) - stops from doing normal activity Dyspareunia (painful intercourse) Pain urinating or passing stools Infertility Heavy periods ```
257
How is endometriosis managed?
Analgesia Contraception - causes atrophy of endometrial tissue, can also control heavy periods Surgery - ablation of visible endometrial tissue OR hysterectomy bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy
258
What are the symptoms of PCOS?
``` Irregular periods (or no periods (amenorrhea) Hirtisum - increase facial or body hair Obesity Oily skin/acne Reduced fertility ```
259
Why do people with PCOS get the symptoms they do?
Related to hormone levels Excess testosterone - related to excess hair and acne Insulin resistance - which can lead to weight gain, heavy periods, fertility problems and high testosterone
260
How do you diagnose PCOS?
Need to have 2 of the following: - Irregular or no periods - Androgen excess sign e.g, increase hair or acne - USS showing Polycystic ovaries (>10mm in size)
261
What is the LH/FSH ratio in PCOS?
LH is higher LH/FSH ratio can be as high as 3:1
262
What is the management of PCOS?
Oral contraceptive pill - given to control periods and supress androgen production Weight loss advice
263
What treatments can be given to help fertility in patients who have PCOS?
Metformin Clomiphene - helps to induce ovulation Ovarian drilling - this helps encourage ovulation
264
What are the different types of ovulation disorders?
Group I - problem with hypothalamus or anterior pituitary gland release of hormones Group II - PCOS Group III - ovarian failure
265
How are group I ovulation disorders treated?
Lifestyle adjustments- increase BMI to >20, decrease exercise GnRH - offer women positive administration if hypothalamus not working
266
What are the different assisted conception methods available?
Intrauterine Insemination In vitro fertilisation (IVF) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection - used alongside IVF
267
What is intrauterine insemination
Sperm are surgically extracted from testis Better quality sperm are filtered out These sperm are then injected into the womb - so they don't have far to swim
268
What happens in IVF?
Ovarian stimulation and egg collection surgically Sperm collection surgically Mixing of eggs and sperm in vitro Embryo development 2-6 days in vitro Several good quality embryos are selected and cyropreserved Strongest embryo is implanted
269
How long does IVF take?
4-6 weeks
270
What is the criteria for women undergoing IVF on the NHS?
Must be under 40 Must have 2 years regular unprotected intercourse Must be between 40-42 Must have 2 years regular unprotected intercourse Must have never tried IVF before Must have no evidence of low ovarian reserve Additional criteria: - No children from either parent - healthy weight - non smoking
271
How many cycles of IVF are women offered on the NHS?
Under 40: 3 cycles 40-42: 1 cycle
272
What are the risks involved in IVF?
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) - reaction to fertility drugs Multiple pregnancies Ectopic pregnancy Possible birth defects
273
What is intracytoplasmic sperm injection
This is used alongside IVF It is where a single sperm is injected into an egg - this maximises the change of fertilisation as it bypasses any potential problems the sperm will have getting in the egg
274
Who is recommended to have intracytoplasmic sperm injection
If the male has a very low sperm count If the male has low quality sperm If the couple had previous IVF which didn't work
275
What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?
``` Age >0 Family history of breast or ovarian cancer Obesity Nullparity Subfertility HRT Endometriosis ```
276
What are the red flag symptoms for ovarian cancer?
``` Feeling bloated (abdominal distention) Swollen tummy Pelvic discomfort Early satiety (feeling full early) Loss of appetite Increased urgency/frequency ```
277
What should you do if a women >50 presents with IBS like symptoms?
Investigate for ovarian cancer
278
What are the primary investigations for ovarian cancer that are carried out in primary care?
CA125 - if >35 then suspicious | USS of abdomen and pelvis
279
What are the 2ww referral guidelines for ovarian cancer?
Ascites and/or pelvic mass felt on examination (that is obviously not fibroids) If USS is concerning for ovarian malignancy If RMI >250
280
What points would score abnormal for ovarian cancer on USS?
``` Multinodular cysts Solid areas Metastases Ascites Bilateral lesions ```
281
What is the RMI?
Risk of malignancy index (U x M x CA125) U - USS score (1 for 1 point, 3 for 2-5 points) M - menopausal (1 for pre menopausal, 3 for post menopausal) CA125 score
282
What is the management for ovarian cancer?
Surgery Can have chemo before (neoadjuvant) to shrink Can have chemo after(adjuvan)
283
What is the staging of ovarian cancer?
Stage 1 - in ovary or ovaries Stage 2 - in one or both ovaries and elsewhere in pelvis Stage 3 - in one or both ovaries and has spread to lymph nodes Stage 4 - distant mets
284
What are the diffferent types of chemotherapy used in ovarian cancer?
Carboplatin - platinum based chemotherapy | Paclitaxal
285
What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?
High grade serous carcinoma
286
When is follow up arranged after treatment for ovarian cancer?
1st year - every 3 months | 2nd year - every 4 months
287
Why is CA125 not used routinely for follow up for ovarian cancer?
As there is no evidence that detection for recurrence improves overall survival
288
What % of high grade serous carcinoma is BCRA related?
15%
289
What are PARP inhibitors?
Drugs used to treat high grade ovarian cancers They inhibit the enzyme poly ADP ribose polymerase (PARP) This is an enzyme involved in DNA repair - and is the only mechanism for repair in cancer cells
290
Name a commonly used PARP inhibitor
Niraparib
291
Why is ovarian cancer becoming a chronic disease?
Because of the high rates of relapse Most cases are not curable Has to be managed cytotoxically every so often
292
When would BRCA gene testing be offered to a women with ovarian cancer?
If she had high grade serous carcinoma
293
How should a women with post menopausal bleeding be investigated?
2ww referral to gynaecological cancer Trans vaginal USS Hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy (if endometrial thickness >4 on USS)
294
What would the management be of a mother who had a previous baby with group B streptococcus infection?
Give her Intrapartum antibiotics
295
What screening tool should be used to screen for postnatal depression?
Edinburgh Scale
296
Which SSRIs can be used in women with postnatal depression?
Sertraline | Paroxetine
297
When can contraception be started postpartum and what types?
Combined pill - contraindicated in women who are breast feeding and <6 weeks postpartum Mirena and IUD - can be used from 4 weeks post partum POP - can be started on 21 days post partum Implant - can be started on 21 days post partum No contraception is needed before day 21
298
What are the 3 forms of emergency contraception available and when can they be used?
Levonorgestrel - used with 72 hours Ulipristal acetate (Ella One) - used with 120 hours IUD - used with 5 days (this is the most effective)
299
How is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy managed?
Emollients - reduce itching Ursodeoxycholic acid - reduce itching and improve LFTS Induction of labour at 37 weeks - to reduce risk of stillbirth
300
How does fibroid degeneration present in pregnancy and why?
Low grade fever Pain Vomiting Fibroids grow during pregnancy due to oestrogen, if they outgrow their blood supply then undergo degeneration
301
How would you counsel a women who had a breech presentation during pregnancy?
If <36 weeks - most fetuses will turn spontaneously If breech at 36 weeks - offer external cephalic version (ECV), which has a success rate of around 60% (this is done at 37 weeks in multiparous women) If baby is still breech after this than plan for C section
302
What are the absolute contraindications to ECV?
``` Where caesarean delivery is required Antepartum haemorrhage within the last 7 days Abnormal CTG Ruptured membranes Multiple pregnancy ```
303
What happens during an external cephalic version (ECV)
Doctor applies pressure on pelvis to gently turn the baby from breech to a sideways presentation USS is done prior to check breech position CTG is done to monitor baby throughout Rh-D negative are offered anti D after procedure
304
What is the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) for contraception?
It is the contraceptive effect post partum It is 98% effective providing the women is full breast feeding (no supplementary feeds), she is amenorrhoeic and is <6 months post partum
305
What are the contraindications for receiving HRT?
Current, past or suspected breast cancer Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding Untreated endometrial hypoplasia Previous VTE - unless women is on anticoagulant medication Untreated hypertension
306
What are the risks of HRT?
Slight increase of breast cancer and endometrial cancer Increase risk of blood clots - DVT and PE Small increased risk of heart disease and strokes
307
What are the symptoms of menopause?
``` Hot flushes Night sweats Headaches Irritability Anxiety Low mood Vaginal atrophy (vaginal dryness) ```
308
What age is early menopause defined?
Menopause below the age of 40 years
309
What would you advice in regards to HRT women who go through early menopause?
Take HRT until the natural age of menopause (Around 51)
310
What are the two hormone options in regards to HRT?
Combined HRT | Oestrogen only HRT
311
Which women are okay to take oestrogen only HRT?
Women without a womb (who have had a hysterectomy)
312
Why is combined HRT advised for women with a uterus?
As unopposed oestrogen can cause endometrial proliferation
313
What are the 2 different HRT treatment routines?
Cyclical HRT - to be given for women still having periods but with menopausal symptoms Continuous combined HRT - for post menopausal women
314
What are the 2 types of cyclical HRT and when would you give them?
Monthly HRT (for women having regular periods) - take oestrogen every day and progesterone alongside it for last 14 days of menstrual cycle 3 monthly HRT (for women having irregular periods) - take oestrogen everyday and progesterone for around 14 days every 3 months
315
When is a women said to be post menopausal?
If she has not had a period for at least 1 year
316
What are the different forms HRT comes in?
Tablets - can have oestrogen only or combined Skin patches - can have oestrogen or combined (these are to be replaced every few days) Implants - oestrogen only IUS - progesterone only Vaginal oestrogen - to help with vaginal dryness
317
How is urge incontinence managed?
Bladder retraining - for 6 weeks Muscarinic antagonist - e.g, oxybutynin, tolterodine, solifenacin Use mirabegron (beta 3 agonist) - if there is concern about anti-cholinergic side effects in frail elderly patients
318
How is stress incontinence managed?
Pelvic floor muscle training Surgical procedures - e.g, retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures
319
How should incontinence be investigated in women?
Bladder diaries Vaginal examination - to exclude prolapse for a cause Urine dipstick and culture Urodynamic studies