Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the hallmarks of an inflammatory disease in regards to rheumatology?

E.g rheumatoid arthritis

A

Night time pain
Morning stiffness >30 mins
Pain is worse after resting (worse in morning)
Systemic symptoms (fatigue, aches, weight loss)
Acute/subacute presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the hallmarks of a non-inflammatory disease in regards to rheumatology?

E.g, osteoarthritis

A

Morning stiffness <30 mins
Pain worse with use
Pain worse at the end of the day
Longstanding/chronic in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 types of Arthritis?

A

Inflammatory
Non-inflammatory (osteoarthritis)
Septic arthritis
Crystal (Gout)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the different types of inflammatory arthritis?

A

Connective tissue disease
Vasculitis
Seropositive (rheumatoid arthritis)
Seronegative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 4 types of seronegative inflammatory arthritis?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Psoriatic arthritis
Reactive arthritis
Inflammatory bowel disease arthritis (IBD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the presentation of joint involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Affects multiple joints (>5)

Presents symmetrically e.g, in both hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the commonly affected joints in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Small joints first in hands: MCP, PIP, DIP, MTP

Large joints as the disease starts to worsen:

  • shoulder
  • elbow
  • knee
  • ankle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do the swellings in the joints differ between rheumatoid and osteoarthritis?

A

RA - boggy swelling (like a grape)

OA - bony swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 main symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Join pain - throbbing and aching
Swelling - boggy swellings in joints
Stiffness - worse after inactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the systemic symptoms seen in rheumatoid arthritis?

A
Fatigue 
Fever
Sweating 
Loss of appetite 
Weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the specific deformities seen in the hands of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and which joints are they seen in?

A

Ulnar deviation - in MCP joints
Boutonnières - in PIP joints
Swan neck - in DIP joints

Also can see guttering muscle wasting over the dorsum of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe what an ulnar deviation deformity looks like?

A

Swelling in the MCP joints

Causes the fingers to become displaced, they therefore tend towards the little finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe what a boutonnières deformity looks like?

A

Swelling in the PIP joints causes:

  • PIP flexion
  • DIP hyperextension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe what a swan neck deformity looks like

A

Swelling in the DIP joints causes:

  • PIP hyperextension
  • DIP flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a bakers cyst?

A

Cyst that occurs within the knee joint (popliteal cysts)
Fluid filled swelling that develops at the back of the knee
Occurs when the knee joint tissue becomes swollen and inflammed - the synovial sac gets so swollen that it bulges posteriorly into the popliteal fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risk factors for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Genetics - more likely if a family member has it
Sex - more common in women, due to oestrogen
Smoking - this can trigger it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the susepctibility genes associated with RA?

A

HLA-DR1

HLA-DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the pathophysiology of RA?

A

Environmental triggers cause post translational modifications of proteins e.g, citrulliation
This then can cause autoimmunity - whereby immune cells recognise self cells as foreign and produce antibodies against host cells
These immune cells specifically target cells in the synovial - which is the lining of the membranes that surround the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is rheumatoid factor?

A

RF is an autoantibody produce in RA - an antibody produced to attack healthy host tissue in joints

It is an antibody that binds to the Fc portion of IgG - it forms immune complexes that contributes to the inflammation in RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Anti-CCP?

A

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
This is a type of autoantibody produced in RA
It specifically targets the altered citrullinated proteins produced in RA
This results in the formation of immune complexes which activate the inflammatory process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why does RA cause fatigue?

A

The antibodies that cause the inflammation in RA can also affect the CNS as well as the joints
High inflammation levels can lead to severe fatigue
This can also lead to mood problems which causes a cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why do extra-articular manifestations occur in RA?

A

Inflammatory cytokines leave the joint spaces and travel to different organ systems

This happens as the disease progresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At what age does RA present?

A

Usually between ages 30-50 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the extra-articular manifestations of RA called which are found in the skin?

A

Rheumatoid nodules

Commonly found in pressure points e.g elbows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What extra-articular manifestations of RA can occur in the lung?

A

Interstitial fibrosis

Plueral effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is felty syndrome?

A
Triad occurring with RA:
- anaemia 
- splenomegaly 
- neutropenia/leucopenia
(Can lead to life threatening infections)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most specific test for RA diagnosis?

A

Anti-CCP antibody (ANTI-CCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why is the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF) itself not diagnostic of RA?

A

Only 66% specificity for RA
20% of patients with RA will have negative RF
May be present in 10% of normal population
Can also be present in Sjögren’s syndrome and other rheumatic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What would an typical X-ray show in someone with RA?

A
Decreased bone density 
Soft tissue swelling 
Bony erosions 
Periarticular ostopenia 
Narrowing of joint space
RA Deformities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which patients should undergo testing for RA?

A

Patients with at least 1 joint with definite clinical synovitis (swelling)
Where the swelling is not better explained by another disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What scoring system is using to determine how active a patients rheumatoid arthritis is?

A

DAS28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is Rheumatoid arthritis managed?

A

Symptom management - analgesia (NSAIDS)
Suppression of inflammation - disease modifying anti rheumatic medications (DMARDs)
Biological response modifiers (Biologics)
Managing acute flares (steroids - short term only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the common disease modifying anti rheumatic medications (DMARDs) used in Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Methotrexate
Hydroxycholroquine
Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most common type of arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does osteoarthritis usually present?

A

Pain in joints
In elderly patients
Gradual onset - can take years to develop
Pain is worse on movement (Pain worse at the end of the day )
<30 mins of morning pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the bony swellings called in osteoarthritis?

Name the common swellings found in the hand?

A

Osteophytes / Nodal osteoarthritis

Heberdens nodes - DIPJs
Bouchard nodes - PIPJs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the commonly affected joints in osteoarthritis?

A

Weight bearing joints - knees, feet, spine (lumbar and cervical), hips

Joints in the hands - DIPJ, PIPJ, CMCJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the risk factors for developing osteoarthritis?

A

Age
Obesity - as excess weight puts strain on joints
Female - more common in women
Joint injury - overusing joint if it has not had time to heal following injury
Genetics - although no single gene has been found
Secondary arthritis - if patient already has RA or gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When should you consider osteoarthritis as a secondary cause of arthritis (following RA or gout)?

A

If OA symptoms presents at young age (<40)

If there is atypical distribution of joints (e.g, MCP, elbows, shoulders, ankles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis?

A

Condrocyte cells are responsible for maintaining a balance of breaking down and producing new cartilage in a joint
In OA, Condrocyte cells produce a higher amount of degenerative enzymes, tipping the balance in favour of cartilage loss
Loss of articular cartilage, causes friction between bones which causes inflammation in the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is eburnation in osteoarthritis?

A

Where there is complete loss of articular cartilage so the bones rub against each other
This looks like polished ivory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the x-ray findings seen on a patient with osteoarthritis?

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral bone sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is osteoarthritis managed?

A

Lifestyle - weight loss, exercise, physiotherapy
Analgesia - NSAIDs, colchicine
Intra-articular Steroid injections - for moderate/severe pain

Surgical management - e.g joint replacement (reserved for patients who have substantial impact on quality of life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is gout?

A

Type of inflammatory arthritis (crystal arthritis)

Where monosodium urate crystals deposit into a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does gout typically present?

A

Acute presentation - red, hot swollen joint
This is known as a “gouty attack”
Repeated attacks result in arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the podagra presentation of gout?

A

Gout affecting the first metatarsal joint of big toe
Very typical presentation of gout
Patients wake up feeling like toe is on fire
Pain is severe for a few hours and then settles down
Swelling and pain can last for days/weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the risk factors for gout?

A

Male sex
Obesity, Diabetes
Anything that increases the amount of uric acid in the body: alcohol (as it makes you dehydrated), CKD (kidneys unable to clear uric acid), certain mediations (thiazide diuretics, aspirin), high purine diet, chemotherapy (as DNA is broken down into purines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the pathophysiology of gout?

A

Hyperureicemia (too much uric acid in blood)
This results in formation or uric acid crystals in areas with slow blood flow e.g, joints and kidney tubules
This leads to inflammation and a gouty attack
Overtime repeated attacks destroy joints causing arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why does excess having purines lead to hyperuraecemia?

A

Purines are a component of DNA

When they are broken down they are broken down into uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which foods are high in purine content?

A

Shellfish
Anchovies
Red meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which medications can cause hyperuraecemia?

A

Thiazide diuretics

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the gold standard investigations for diagnosing gout?

A

Synovial fluid microscopy

Allows visualisation of urate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is gout managed?

A

Analgesia - NSAIDs
Lifestyle - weight loss, decrease alcohol, low purine diet
Cardiovascular risk assessment - as gout increases risk
Urate lowering therapy - e.g, allopurinol

54
Q

When should urate lowering therapy be used for patients with gout?

A

Patients who have >2 attacks of gout per year
CKD stage 2 or worse
Tophus or tophi present
If urolithiasis is present (uric stones present in bladder or urinary tract)

55
Q

What levels of serum uric acid should you aim for on urate lowering therapy?

A

<300 micromoles/L

56
Q

What is the important information to know when starting a patient on urate lowering therapy (ULT) for gout?

A

Should be started 2-4 weeks after acute attack has settled
During initial phase of ULT, can be an increase in attacks (due to remodelling of articular urate crystals deposits as a result of lowering concentrations)
Because of this all patients starting on ULT should be coprescirbed either colchicine or low dose NSAID

57
Q

What are tophi in gout?

A

Permanent deposits of uric crystals which form along the bones just beneath the skin

58
Q

What are patients with chronic gout more at risk of?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Kidney stones
Urate nephropathy

59
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)?

A

Swelling in joints present in children before the age of 16

Similar Pathophysiology to rheumatoid arthritis

60
Q

What are the 2 most common types of juvenile idiopathic arthritis and how do you distinguish between them?

A

Oligoarthritis - <5 joints affected in 1st 6 months

Polyarthritis - >5 joints affected in 1st 6 months

61
Q

Which type of juvenile idiopathic arthritis is associated with chronic anterior uveitis?

A

Oligoarthritis

62
Q

What is dactylitis and which type of juvenile idiopathic arthritis is it seen in?

A

Dactylitis - swollen sausage like toe

Commonly seen in psoriatic arthritis

63
Q

What joints does juvenile idiopathic arthritis typically occur in?

A

Knees

64
Q

What is the prognosis for children who have juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

70% cases disappear before adulthood
Of those which disease progresses into adulthood, they may have joint damage and need knee replacements
When disease progresses into adulthood, they are more likely to develop osteoporosis

65
Q

How is juvenile idiopathic arthritis managed?

A
Similar to that of RA
Analgesia - NSAIDs
Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) e.g, methotrexate 
Biological therapies 
Steroid injections
66
Q

How does septic arthritis usually present?

A

Acute history - hot painful joint

Systemic features present - e.g, sweats, fever, malaise

67
Q

What other condition is commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Sjögren’s syndrome

68
Q

How does Sjögren’s syndrome commonly present?

A
Dry eyes
Dry mouth 
Fatigue 
Joint pain 
Swollen salivary glands 
Photosensitive skin rash
69
Q

Why might a patient with rheumatoid arthritis be anaemic?

A

Anaemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency anaemia due to NSAID use
Feltys syndrome - anaemia, leucopenia and enlarge spleen
Pernicious anaemia - another autoimmune disease may be present

70
Q

What percentage of patients wtih rheumatoid arthritis have extra-articular manifestations?

A

40%

71
Q

What are the important differentials for any patient presenting with multiple systemic symptoms?

A
Connective tissue disease 
Vasculitis 
Infection 
Malignancy 
Inflammatory arthritis
72
Q

What is vasculitis?

A

Autoimmune disease
Causes inflammation of the blood vessels
Causing systemic symptoms across multiple body systems

73
Q

What are the 3 classifications of vasculitis?

A

Small vessel vasculitis - inflammation in arterioles and capillaries
Medium vessel vasculitis - inflammation in arteries and arterioles
Large vessel vasculitis - inflammation in the aorta and arteries

74
Q

What are the two types of large vessel vasculitis?

A

Giant cell arteritis

Takayasu’s arteritis

75
Q

What are the 2 types of medium vessel vasculitis?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

Kawasaki’s disease

76
Q

What are the 3 types of small vessel vasculitis?

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (Chung-Strauss disease)
Granulomatosis with polyangitis (wegeners granulomatosis)
Microscopic polyangitis

77
Q

What is the pathogenesis of vasculitis?

A

In large and medium vessel vasculitis - Molecular mimicry (where the immune cells mistake vascular endothelial cells as foreign)

In small vessel vasculitis - indirect damage (autoimmune disease where cells attack cells near vascular endothelial cells which get indirectly damaged)

78
Q

What are the important investigations to carry out in suspected vasculitis?

A

Urine analysis - to determine renal involvement (glomerulonephritis is a common manifestation of vasculitis)
FBC
P-ANCA and C-ANCA
Plasma viscosity - the thicker the blood, the more inflammation
Chest x ray - granulomatosis polyangitis can present with lung cavities

79
Q

What is giant cell arteritis?

A

Type of large vessel vasculitis (arteritis) affecting branches of the carotid arteries:

  • temporal artery
  • ophthalmic artery
  • facial artery
80
Q

Which artery is most commonly affected artery in giant cell arteritis?

A

Temporal artery (branch of external carotid)

81
Q

What are the risk factors for developing giant cell arteritis?

A

> 50 years of age

Female sex

82
Q

How is giant cell arteritis investigated and diagnosed?

A

ESR - classically raised in giant cell arteritis

Biopsy (e.g temporal artery biopsy) - looking for giant cells in internal elastic lamina

83
Q

How is giant cell arteritis managed?

A

Steroids

84
Q

What is takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Type of large vessel vasculitis which typically affects the arteries that branch off around the aortic arch

85
Q

What are the risk factors for developing takaysu’s arteritis?

A

Asian
Female sex
Typically <40 years

86
Q

What are the specific symptoms for takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Weak pulse - as the arteries supplying the upper limbs are affected
Visual symptoms
Neurological symptoms

87
Q

What is polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Medium vessel vasculitis

Caused by immune cells directly attacking vascular endothelium

88
Q

How does polyarteritis nodosa look on an angiogram?

A

Like beads on a string

Due to vessel wall weakening and pouching out

89
Q

What infection is polyarteritis nodosa associated with?

A

Hepatitis B infection

90
Q

How does polyarteritis nodosa typically present?

A

Rash
Mononeuritis multiplex
Vascular hypertension
Organ infection

91
Q

What is the main complication of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

As the vascular wall is weak it is more prone to aneurysms

Main complication is organ Ischaemia

92
Q

What are ANCA?

A

Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies
These are autoimmune antibodies which the plasma cells have mistakenly produced to target the body’s own neutrophils
IgG type antibodies

93
Q

What type of vasculitis would ANCA be found?

A

Small vessel vasculitis

94
Q

What are the two types of ANCA and what do they target?

A

C-ANCA - targets PR3 (proteinase 3) (commonly found in cytoplasm)

P-ANCA - targets MPO (myeloperoxidase) (commonly found in peri-nuclear region)

95
Q

Which type of small vessel vasculitis are c-ANCA and p-ANCA found in?

A

C-ANCA: granulomatosis with polyangitis
P-ANCA: microscopic polyangitis

P-ANCA can also be found in eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (EGPA) although this is less commonly found at diagnosis (30-40% of patients are p-ANCA positive)

96
Q

What is Eosinopilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (Chung-Strauss syndrome)?

A

Type of small vessel vasculitis
Multisystem disease with increase eosinophils
Often mistaken for asthma or allergies because of this reason

97
Q

What is the Lanham diagnostic criteria for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (churg Strauss disease)?

A

Triad of EPGA:
Asthma (late onset)
Eosinophilia
Multi-organ involvement (pulmonary, cardiovascular, neuropathy)

98
Q

How is small vessel vasculitis managed?

A

Induction of remission:

  • steroids - prednisolone or methyprednisolone
  • immunosupression - cyclophosphamide or riuximab

Then switch to maintaining remission:
- Methotrexate, azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

99
Q

What is the major complication of small vessel ANCA associated vasculitis?

How is this managed

A

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Presents with nephrotic and nephritic features
Light microscopy will show crescent formation in glomerulus

Managed with high dose steroids

100
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)?

A

Multi-system autoimmune connective tissue disorder

Results in chronic systemic inflammation

101
Q

What are the risk factors for developing lupus?

A

Female sex
Childbearing age (20-40) - due to oestrogen presence
Afro-Caribbean decent

102
Q

What is thought to cause lupus?

A

Susceptibility genes

Environmental factors thought to trigger these e.g. sunlight, smoking, infection

103
Q

What is the classic symptoms of lupus?

A

Fever
Inflammatory arthritis - swollen, tender joints
Butterfly (malar) facial rash
Lupus nephritis (20-25% of patients have renal involvement at diagnosis)
Photosenstivity - rash on sun exposed areas
Oral ulcers
Fatigue
Lymphadenopathy

104
Q

Which antibodies are present in Lupus?

A

ANA (anti-nuclear antibody)
DsDNA - antibody against DNA, seen during active disease
Anti-sm (anti-smith) - antibody to Sm nuclear antigen, target ribonucleoprotein, this is specifc for lupus
Antiphospholipid antibodies - can be present but less specific for lupus

105
Q

What other autoimmmune disease are patients with lupus at risk of getting?

A
Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)
This is due to the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies which can be present in lupus
106
Q

What are the 3 types of antiphospholipid antibodies?

A

Anticardiolipin
Lupus anticoagulant
Anti-B2 glycoprotein 1

107
Q

How is lupus managed?

A

Preventing flares - avoiding triggers e.g, sunlight, stress

Managing flares:

  • NSAIDs e.g, ibuprofen
  • Steroids e.g, prednisolone
  • DMARDs e.g, hydroxycholoquine, methotrexate, azathioprine
  • Biologics e.g, ritiximab (for severe cases)
108
Q

What is the common debilitating symptom of lupus and how is it managed?

A

Fatigue
Can be present even in remission
Managed by encouraging an active lifestyle and healthy diet

109
Q

What are the antibodies present in Sjögren’s syndrome?

A

Ro (SSA)

La (SSB)

110
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

Deposition of calcium dihydrate crystals in the synovium
Causing synovitis that presents very similar to gout

NOT DUE TO URIC ACID

111
Q

What are the risk factors for pseudogout?

A

Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Acromegaly
Wilson’s disease

112
Q

How is pseudogout managed?

A

Aspirate joint fluid - to exclude septic arthritis

NSAIDS or steroids for symptom management

113
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Type of inflammatory arthritis

Where the spine and other joints can become inflamed

114
Q

What is the gene associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

HLA-B27

115
Q

What is schober’s test?

A

Test for ankylosing spondylitis
Assesses the amount of lumbar flexion - to see if there is a decrease in flexion
Mark is made at L5 level. One finger placed 5cm below and one finger is placed 10cm below mark
Patient then leans forward
If the increase in distance between the two fingers is less than 5cm - this suggests there is limited lumbar flexion

116
Q

How does giant cell arteritis typically present?

A

Rapid onset
Headache
Jaw claudication
Tender, palpable temporal artery

117
Q

Why should you continue steroid treatment in giant cell arteritis, even if the temporal artery biopsy is normal?

A

Skip lesions can occur in GCA - which can mean the biopsy may be normal

118
Q

How is raynauds disease?

A

Symptom relief - calcium channel blocker e.g, nifedipine

If secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is suspected, then patients should be referred to rheumatology to investigate for underlying connective tissue disease e.g, lupus

119
Q

What are the cardiovascular manifestations of lupus?

A

Pericarditis

Myocarditis

120
Q

What blood test is used as an activity marker for lupus?

A

Complement levels - C3 and C4 would be low during active disease (this is because formation of complexes leads to consumption of complement)

121
Q

When would a TNF-inhibitor be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Where there has been an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs including methotrexate

122
Q

Give the name of commonly used TNF-inhibitors in RA?

A

Entanercept
Infliximab
Adalimumab

123
Q

What are the adverse effects of methotrexate?

A
Mucositis - causing oral ulcers
Myelosupression - if infection must go to A&E
Alopecia 
Pneumonitis 
Pulmonary fibrosis 
Liver fibrosis
124
Q

What are the poor prognostic features for RA?

A
Rheumatoid factor positive 
HLA DR4
X ray showing early erosions 
Extra articular features e.g, nodules 
Insidious onset 
Anti-CCP antibodies
125
Q

What is Ehler’s Danlos Syndrome?

A

Type of connective tissue disease
Results in widespread elasticity of tissue
Patients have very flexible joints and stretchy skin

126
Q

What are the cardiac complications of elder-danlos syndrome?

A

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral valve prolapse
Aortic dissection

127
Q

What is lateral epicondylitis more commonly known as?

A

Tennis elbow

128
Q

How does lateral epicondylitis commonly present?

What are the findings on exam?

A

Pain/tenderness to lateral epicondyle
Pain worse on wrist extension against resistance while elbow extended
Pain worse on supination of forearm with elbow extended

129
Q

What are the common cardiorespiratory manifestations of lupus?

A

Pericarditis
Myocarditis
Pleurisy
Fibrosing alveolitis

130
Q

What is main adverse effect of hydroxychlorioquine?

A

Retinopathy

Must monitor visual acuity when starting on medication

131
Q

How many months prior to getting pregnant must you stop taking methotrexate?

A

At least 3 months

132
Q

What is the difference in joint aspiration findings of gout and pseudogout?

A

Gout - negatively birefringent needle shaped crystals

Pseudogout - positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals