Wk 10: Sympathomimetic agents Flashcards

1
Q

Naturally occurring catecholamines (3)

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

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2
Q

Synthetic catecholamines (2)

A

Isoproterenol
Dobutamine

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3
Q

Epinephrine is a hormone synthesized, stored, and released from the _______ _______

A

adrenal medulla

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4
Q

Epinephrine’s natural functions upon release into circulation include (5)
-Regulation myocardial _______
- _________ _________
-_____ and ____ smooth muscle tone
-________ secretions
-Metabolic processes (______ and ______)

A

-Regulation myocardial contractility
-Heart rate
-Vascular and bronchial smooth
muscle tone
-Glandular secretions
-Metabolic processes
(glycogenolysis and lipolysis)

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5
Q

Epinephrine receptors

A

Alpha 1
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Beta 2

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6
Q

Why isn’t oral administration of epinephrine effective?

A

Rapid metabolism in GI mucosa and liver

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7
Q

What routes can epinephrine be administered?

A

Subcutaneous
IM
IV

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8
Q

Epinephrine is poorly _______ soluble, preventing its ready entrance into the _____ ______ _____ and accounting for the lack of _______ _______

A

lipid
central nervous system
cerebral effects

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9
Q

Epinephrine clinical uses:

-___________
-Severe ________ and _______
-Cardiopulmonary __________
-Promotion of myocardial ________ and increase __________ ________
-Can be added to LA as a “marker” or to decrease _______ absorption and prolong DOA

A

-Anaphylaxis
-asthma and brochoconstriction
-Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
-promotion of myocardial contractility and increase vascular resistance
-systemic

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10
Q

____________ has the most significant metabolic effect on metabolism of all the catecholamines

A

Epinephrine

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11
Q

Release of endogenous epinephrine and the resulting __________ and inhibition of _______ secretion is the most likely explanation for perioperative hyperglycemia

A

glycogenolysis
insulin

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12
Q

Coagulation is accelerated by _________

A

epinephrine

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13
Q

A hypercoagulable state present during the intraoperative and postoperative period may reflect stress-associated release of _________

A

epinephrine

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14
Q

Norepinephrine is the endogenous neurotransmitter synthesized and stored in __________ sympathetic nerve endings and released with sympathetic nerve stimulation

A

postganglionic

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15
Q

Norepinephrine receptors

A

Alpha 1 > B1

B2 (weak)

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16
Q

The primary utility of norepinephrine is as a potent ________ to increase total peripheral vascular resistance and mean arterial pressure

A

vascoconstrictor

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17
Q

What is first-line agent in the treatment of refractory hypotension during severe sepsis?

A

Norepinephrine

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18
Q

Norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and redistribution of flow may increase ________ blood flow and _______ _______ in severely hypotensive septic patients

A

splanchnic
urine output

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19
Q

Norepinephrine side effects

Use as an inotropic agents limited by its action as a ___________ _________

A

potent vasoconstrictor

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20
Q

Norepinephrine side effects

Excessive vasoconstriction and decreased perfusion of renal, splanchnic, and peripheral vascular beds may lead to end-organ _______ and ________

A

hypoperfusion
ischemia

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21
Q

__________ is an endogenous catecholamine that regulates cardiac, vascular, and endocrine function.

Is an important neurotransmitter in the central and peripheral nervous systems

A

Dopamine

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22
Q

Despite identical IV infusion rates, there may be a ___ to ____ -fold variability in plasma concentrations produced by this drug, even in healthy individuals with normal drug metabolism

A

Dopamine

10-75

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23
Q

Dopamine receptors

A

B1 > B2
Alpha 1
D1 D2

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24
Q

Dopamine increases cardiac output by stimulation of ____ receptors, increasing ______ ______

A

Beta 1
stroke volume

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25
Q

Rapid metabolism of dopamine with an elimination half life of ___ to ___ minutes mandates its use as a continuous infusion

A

1 to 2 minutes

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26
Q

______________ is used clinically to increase cardiac output in patients with decreased contractility, low systemic BP, and low urine output as may be present after cardiopulmonary bypass or with chronic heart failure

A

Dopamine

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27
Q

Dopamine is unique among the catecholamines in being able to simultaneously:
-Increase myocardial _________
-Increase ________ blood flow
-Increase ________ _________ rate
-Excretion of _________
-Increase __________ output

A

contractility
renal
glomerular filtration
sodium
urine

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28
Q

Which catecholamine is associated most with dose-related sinus tachycardia and the potential to cause ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Dopamine

(vs. dobutamine or epinephrine)

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29
Q

Dopamine may presdispose to mycardial ischemia by:

precipitating ________, increasing ________, increasing _______, and precipitating coronary artery _________

A

tachycardia
contractility
afterload
vasospasm

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30
Q

__________ is the most potent activator of all sympathomimetics with beta 1 and beta 2 activity ____ to ____ times more potent than epinephrine and at least _____ times more active than NE

A

Isopreterenol
2 to 3
100

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31
Q

Isoproterenol receptors

A

Beta 1
Beta 2

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32
Q

The cardiovascular effects of isoproterenol reflect activation of beta 1 receptors in the ______ and beta 2 receptors in the _______ _______

A

heart
skeletal muscle

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33
Q

Isoproterenol

Although cardiac output may increase, the ___________ may decrease

A

Mean arterial pressure (MAP)

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34
Q

Does baroreceptor-mediated reflex bradycardia occur with isoproterenol?

A

No because MAP is not increased

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35
Q

Metabolism of isoproterenol in the _______ by catechol-O-methyltransferase is ________, necessitating a continuous infusion to maintain therapeutic plasma concentrations

A

liver
rapid

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36
Q

_________ is used to increase heart rate in adults in presence of heart block

A

Isoproterenol

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37
Q

_________ is used to provide sustained increases in heart rate before insertion of a temporary or permanent cardiac pacemaker

A

Isoproterenol

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38
Q

___________ is a synthetic catecholamine derived from isoproterenol consisting of a 50:50 racemic mixture of two sterioisomers

A

Dobutamine

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39
Q

Dobutamine receptors

A

Beta 1 > Beta 2
Alpha (high doses)

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40
Q

Dobutamines effects on ____ receptors increases at higher doses

A

alpha

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41
Q

_________ stimulates SA node automaticity as well as AV node and ventricular conduction

A

Dobutamine

(tachyarrhythmias)

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42
Q

Rapid metabolism of dobutamine (half life ___ mins) necessitates continuous infusion

A

2 mins

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43
Q

Dobutamine increases myocardial contractility (____ and ______ receptors) and causes a modest degree of peripheral vasodilation ( _____ receptors)

A

Beta 1 and alpha 1
Beta 2

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44
Q

Dobutamine is used to : (2)

A

-improve cardiac output in patients with CHF
-Weaning from CPB

45
Q

Vasodilators may be combined with ________ or _________ to decrease afterload, optimizing cardiac output in the presence of increased _______

A

dobutamine
dopamine

SVR

46
Q

The use of dobutamine may be limited by the occurrence of ________

A

tachyarrhythmias

47
Q

Tachyarryhthmias in dobutamine occur more frequently at ______ _____ or in patients with underlying _______ or _______ _________

A

higher doses
arrhythmias
heart failure

48
Q

Synthetic noncatecholamines

A

Ephedrine
Phenylephrine

49
Q

_________ is an indirect and direct acting synthetic sympathomimetic

Indirect: stimulates release of endogenous ____

Direct: stimulates ___ and ___ -adrenergic receptors

A

Ephedrine

NE
alpha and beta

50
Q

The slow inactivation and excretion of ________ are responsible for the prolonged duration of action of this sympathomimetic

51
Q

Ephedrine uses:

-Increase BP in presence of SNS blockade produced by _____ _____

-Hypotension due to _______-or _________ anesthetics

A

regional anesthesia
inhaled or injected anesthetics

52
Q

__________ was considered the preferred sympathomimetic for administration to parturients experiencing decreased systemic blood pressure owing to spinal or epidural anesthesia

alpha agonists such as __________ may be preferable for treatment of maternal hypotension

A

Ephedrine

Phenylephrine

53
Q

Cardiovascular effects of ephedrine resemble those of __________, its systemic BP-elevating response is ________ ________ and lasts approximately ____ times longer

A

epinephrine
less intense
1o

54
Q

IV ephedrine results in increases in: (3)

A

-Sys. and dys. BP
-HR
-CO

55
Q

Ephedrine receptors

A

Alpha 1
Beta 1 > Beta 2

56
Q

Phenylephrine receptor

57
Q

The principle mechanism for cardiovascular effects produced by ephedrine is increased myocardial _________ due to activation of ___ receptors

A

contractility
B1

58
Q

In the presence of ______________, the cardiovascular effects of ephedrine may resemble responses more typical of alpha-adrenergic receptor stimulation

A

preexisting beta-adrenergic blockade

59
Q

A second dose of ephedrine produces a less intense systemic blood pressure response than the first dose (_______________, occurs with many sympathomimetics

A

tachyphylaxis

60
Q

___________ mimics the effects of NE but is less potent and longer lasting

A

Phenylephrine

61
Q

Phenylephrine stimulates ____ receptors by a direct effect, with only a small part of the pharmacologic response being indirect-acting d/t its ability to evoke the release of ________

62
Q

Phenylephrine primarily causes ________ rather than ________ constriction

A

venoconstriction

63
Q

Phenylephrine uses:

-Increase BP in presence of SNS blockade produced by _____ _____

-Peripheral vasodilation due to _______-or _________ anesthetics

-As a _________ infusion in adults to maintain normal BP during surgery

A

regional anesthesia
inhaled or injected anesthetics

continuous

64
Q

Selective Beta 2- adrenergic agonists (3)

A

Albuterol
Metaproterenol
Terbutaline

65
Q

Selective phophodiasterase inhibitors

A

Milrinone
Amrinone

66
Q

Selective beta 2 agonists relax ________ and _______ smooth muscle, but in contrast to isopreterenol generally lack stimulating ____ effects on the heart

A

bronchiole and uterine

B1

67
Q

Which of the beta 2 agonists can be administered MDI, PO, and subcutaneously?

A

Terbitaline

68
Q

_______ are the preferred treatment for acute episodes of asthmas and the prevention of exercise-induced asthma

A

Beta 2 adrenergic agonists

69
Q

Beta 2 agonists are divided into those with an intermediate DOA ( ___ to ___ hours) and those that are long acting (>___ h)

70
Q

Beta-2 adrenergic agonists may be administered as continuous infusions to stop _______ _______ ______ (_______ )

A

premature uterine contractions (tocolytics)

71
Q

Beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators can be administered (4)

A

Orally
Inhalation
Subcutaneously
IV injection

72
Q

The _________ route for beta 2 agonist bronchodilators is the preferred route because the side effects are fewer for any degree of bronchodilation

73
Q

With optimal inhalation technique approximately ___% of alpha 2 agonists is delivered from the MDI to the lungs, the remainder is deposited in the mouth, pharynx, and larynx

74
Q

Technique for administering beta 2 agonist with MDI

Discharge inhaler while taking a slow deep breath over ___ to___ seconds, and then hold the breath at full inspiration for ___ seconds

75
Q

Beta 2 agonist

The presence of an ETT decreases by approximately ___% to ____% the amount of drug delivered by a MDI that reaches the trachea

76
Q

Beta 2 agonist

Actuation of the MDI during a mechanically delivered __________ increases the amount of drug that passes beyond the distal end of the tracheal tube

A

inspiration

77
Q

Side effects of Beta 2 agonists

The widespread distribution of beta 2 adrenergic receptors makes it likely that undesired responses result when beta 2 adrenergic agonists undergo ___________ absorption

78
Q

The principle side effect in awake subjects of beta 2 adrenergic agonists treatments is ________

79
Q

Increased _________ _______ is less common with the selective beta 2 adrenergic agonists

A

heart rate

80
Q

In patients with acute, severe ________, beta 2 agonists may cause transient decrease in ________ ______ presumed to reflect relaxation of compensatory _________ in areas of deceased ventilation

A

asthma
arterial oxygenation
vasoconstriction

(supplemental oxygen indicated)

81
Q

Acute metabolic responses to beta 2 adrenergic agonists include: (3)

A

Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia

82
Q

_________ is the preferred selective beta 2 adrenergic agonist for the treatment of acute bronchospasm due to asthma

83
Q

Administration of albuterol is most often by a MDI, producing about ______ mcg per puff

84
Q

The duration of action of inhaled dose of Albuterol is about ___ hours, but significant relief of symptoms may persist up to ___ hours

85
Q

The effects of Albuterol and volatile anesthetics on bronchomotor tone are ________

86
Q

___________ is a predominantly beta 2 adrenergic agonist that may be administered ______, _______, or by _______ to treat asthma

A

Terbutaline
orally
subcutaneously
inhalation

87
Q

The subcutaneous administration of terbutaline ( _____mg) produces responses that resemble those of _______, but the duration of action is _________

A

0.25
epinephrine
longer

88
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are a heterogenous group of ____________ ____________ compounds that exert a competitive inhibitory action on phosphodiesterase enzymes

A

noncatecholamine
nonglycoside

89
Q

The PDE III inhibitors have their greatest clinical usefulness in patients who would benefit from combined ______ and _______ therapy

A

inotropic
vasodilatory

90
Q

___________ is a derivative of amrinone with almost ____ times the inotropic potency of amrinone but less adverse effects

A

milrinone
30

91
Q

Because of its reduced incidence of side effects, ________ has replaced amrinone in clinical use

92
Q

PDE III inhibitors

Cardiac output improves both as a result of increased ________ as well as vascular smooth muscle relaxation of _________ and ________ vessels

A

inotropy
peripheral and pulmonary

93
Q

Milrinone may be useful in management of acute _______ _______ dysfunction

A

left ventricular

94
Q

Milrinone can be useful when weaning high-risk patients from ____________ ____________

A

cardiopulmonary bypass

95
Q

Milrinone may potentiate the effects of ________ agents as well as help increase inotropy in chronic heart failure patients who have downregulation of _____ adrenergic receptors

A

adrenergic
beta 1

96
Q

Milrinone is useful in the setting of _______ __________

decreases _______ _______ pressures more effectively than other positive inotropic drugs

A

pulmonary hypertension

pulmonary artery

97
Q

Milrinone is associated with more ________ and greater decrease in _______ and ______ than dobutamine

A

vasodilation
SVR
BP

98
Q

Unlike dobutamine, milrinone rarely causes __________

A

tachycardia

99
Q

Milrinone may be preferred in situation with high _______ _______, elevated _______ _______ pressure, need for continued _____ blockade, decreased responsiveness to ________ therapy, and increased risk for _________________

A

filling pressures
pulmonary artery
beta
catecholamine
tachyarrhythmias

100
Q

Rapid administration of milrinone may decrease ________, decrease ________, and result in hypotension

May also be associated with arrhythmias due to enhanced ____ node conduction

A

SVR
venous return

AV

101
Q

______ is present in the body in greater amounts than any other mineral

102
Q

Calcium is important for
-__________ transmission
-________ _______ contraction
-________ _______ contractility
-Blood ___________
_ ___________ necessary for release of neurotransmitters

A

neuromuscular
skeletal muscle
cardiac muscle
coagulation
exocytosis

103
Q

Calcium is the principal component of ________

104
Q

Calcium is a potent _________-

105
Q

Increasing the plasma concentrations of ionized calcium with exogenous administration of calcium chloride or calcium gluconate is commonly used to treat cardiac depression as may accompany:
-delivery of ________ ________
-transfusion of ________ blood
-following termination of _______ _____

A

volatile anesthetics
citrated
cardiopulmonary bypass

106
Q

Ionized calcium typically represents approximately ___ % of the total plasma concentration

107
Q

Acidosis ______ ionized calcium
Alkalosis _____ ionized calcium

A

increases
decreases

108
Q

Normal plasma ionized calcium (3)

A

1-1.26 mmol/L
2-2.5 mEq/L
4-5mg/dL