Week 4: Induction Agents and Benzos Flashcards

1
Q

Induction refers to the _______ of anesthesia

A

Start

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2
Q

During induction, the patient is rendered _______

A

Unconscious

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3
Q

Intravenous induction allows for patients to experience a _________ loss of consciousness, achieving surgical levels of anesthesia

A

Rapid

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4
Q

Desirable properties of induction agents (8)

A

Rapid and smooth onset
Rapid and smooth recovery
Analgesia
Antiemetic actions
Advantageous pharmacokinetics
and pharmaceutics
Bronchodilation
Minimal cardiac and respiratory
depression
Lack of toxicity or histamine release

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5
Q

Has a single IDEAL intravenous anesthesia induction agent been developed?

A

No

Instead we choose an appropriate drug for the surgical and anesthetic requirements

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6
Q

___________ were introduced in the 1930’s and revolutionized the administration of anesthesia

Use declined in recent years due to the development of __________

A

Thiobarbiturates

Propofol

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7
Q

Although thiobarbiturate use has declined, the practice of intravenous ______ of sedatives to initiate _______ remains standard of care

A

boluses, anesthesia

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8
Q

in 2011, decision was made to stop marketing ______ ______ (a barbiturate) in the US and many other countries

A

Sodium pentothal

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9
Q

Propofol is prepared as a __ % solution in a ______ emulsion

A

1%, Lipid

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10
Q

Propofol’s lipid emulsion is comprised of:
__ % __________ _____
__ % _________
__ % _________ _____ _______

A

10% soybean oil
2.25% glycerol
1.2% purified egg lechithin

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11
Q

What kind of contamination is possible in Propofol?

A

Bacterial and fungal contamination

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12
Q

Propofol

Original trade product contains ______ % ________ ________ (____) as a preservative

A

0.005% disodium edetate (EDTA)

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13
Q

Propofol

Generic contains _____% ________ ______ or _________ _________

A

0.025% sodium metabisulfate or benzyl alcohol

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14
Q

Propofol

Open vials or syringes should be discarded within ____ hours if Propofol was transferred from the original container

A

6

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15
Q

Propofol has a _____ (narrow/wide) therapeutic index

A

Narrow

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16
Q

Propofol

Hemodynamic and respiratory ________ are problems

A

Depression

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17
Q

Long term use of propofol can lead to ______ ________ ______

A

Propofol infusion syndrome

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18
Q

Does propofol have a pharmacologic antagonist?

A

No

Propofol’s effects are terminated by redistribution

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19
Q

Propofol has a ______ (fast/slow) onset of action

A

Fast

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20
Q

Propofol

_______ distribution following intravenous bolus into brain and other highly perfused areas

A

Rapid

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21
Q

Propofol

Rapid ______________ from central to _________ compartments causing brain concentration to ________

A

Distribution
peripheral
fall

Causes a rapid reawakening after sedative and anesthetic doses

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22
Q

Propofol

Elderly require _______ doses
Children require ______ doses

A

Lower
Higher

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23
Q

Why do children require higher doses of Propofol?

A

Children have increased volume of distribution compared to adults

Children’s rate of clearance is higher

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24
Q

Propofol elimination half life

A

1-2 hours

SLOWER than wake up seen with Propofol (d/t redistribution)

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25
Q

Propofol MOA

A

Directly stimulates GABA A and potentiates action of exogenous GABA

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26
Q

Propofol

Appears to exert its effects via interaction with _____________ neurotransmitter = ______

A

Inhibitory
GABA

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27
Q

Propofol

What is GABA A

A

A protein receptor complex

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28
Q

Propofol
CNS effects

A

Amnesia
Sedation (unconsciousness in 30
sec)
Rapid/complete awakening with
minimal residual CNS effects

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29
Q

Propofol
CV effects

A

Decreased BP, CO, SVR
HR unchanged or decreased
Bradycardia/asystole have been
reported

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30
Q

Propofol
Respiratory effects

A

Respiratory depression
Decreased response to hypoxemia

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31
Q

Propofol
Other pharmacologic actions

A

Mild antiemetic effects
Risk of infection
Pain on injection
Hypertriglyceridemia (prolonged
administration)
PE
Antipruretic
Anticonvulsant
Reduces bronchoconstriction

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32
Q

Propofol
Hypotension exaggerated in _______, _______, _________

A

Hypovolemia
Elderly
LV failure

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33
Q

Does propofol cause analgesia?

A

No

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33
Q

Propofol

Highly ________soluble drug, therefore easily passes placental barrier

A

lipid

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34
Q

Propofol

Do sedative effects occur in the neonate when propofol is used for cesarean delivery?

A

Yes

Propofol is lipid soluble and easily passes placental barrier

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35
Q

Propofol

________ (higher/lower) 1 and 5 minute APGAR scores have been noted

A

Lower

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36
Q

Propofol

In obstetric use, ________ effects may be an advantage

A

antiemetic

b/c OB patients at high risk for aspiration, nausea common in these patients

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37
Q

Propofol

Controversy exists with propofol avoidance in patients with _____, _____, or ______ allergies

(actually not controversial anymore; no adverse side effects seen in this population)

A

egg, soy, peanut

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38
Q

Propofol

Is there any striking data that shows problems with use in populations with reported allergies to egg, soy, or peanuts?

A

No

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39
Q

Propofol infusion syndrome occurs during _______ duration infusions at _______ doses

A

Long, high

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40
Q

Propofol infusion syndrome is associated with significant morbidity and mortality

True or false?

A

True

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41
Q

What area is Propofol infusion syndrome usually seen in?

A

Critical care units

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42
Q

Risk factors for Propofol infusion syndrome (7)

A

-Doses > 4mg/kg/hr
-Duration > 48 hours
-Critical illness
-High-fat low-carb intake
-Inborn errors of mitochondrial
fatty acid oxidation
-Concomitant catecholamine
infusion
-Steroid administration

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43
Q

Etomidate

Synthesized in ______, introduced into European practice in _____

A

1965, 1972

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44
Q

Etomidate

IV _______ agent

A

induction

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45
Q

Etomidate

often used as an alternative to propofol due to little if any __________ effects

A

Cardiorespiratory

Useful in more hemodynamically unstable patients

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46
Q

Does etomidate have analgesic properties?

A

No

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47
Q

Etomidate

MOA involves _______ modulation

A

GABA

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48
Q

Etomidate

Rapidly metabolized in ______ by microsomal enzymes and _______ _______

A

liver, plasma esterases

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49
Q

Etomidate

What is the primary mode of metabolism in the liver and plasma?

A

Ester hydrolysis

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50
Q

Etomidate

What accounts for short duration of action?

A

Rapid redistribution

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51
Q

Etomidate

Lipid or water soluble?

A

Lipid soluble

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52
Q

Etomidate

Terminal half life

A

2-5 hours

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53
Q

Etomidate
CNS effects

A

Reduces ICP, CBF, CMRO2
Myoclonus during onset

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54
Q

Etomidate
CV effects

A

Hemodynamic stability
HR, PAP, CI, SVR, BP changes not
significant
Aortic/mitral valve dz show
decreased BP (17-19%)
No depression of SNS, baroreceptor
reflex
Agonist at alpha 2B-adrenoceptors

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55
Q

Etomidate
Respiratory effects

A

Decreased tidal volume
Increased RR
Respiratory depression greater
with propofol
Ventilatory response to C02 reduced
May cause periods of apnea
following induction

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56
Q

Etomidate
Adrenocortical effects

A

Adrenal cortical suppression limits its clinical use

ex: sepsis = suppressed adrenals, need them to work at maximum function

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57
Q

Etomidate
Other effects

A

Increased PONV
Burning on injection

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58
Q

Etomidate contraindicated in

A

Known sensitivity
Adrenal suppression
Acute porphyrias (deficiency in heme building enzymes)

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59
Q

Ketamine

Has a long history of anesthetic use, and its popularity varies through history

True or false

A

True

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60
Q

Ketamine

Research has led to new uses and renewed interest

true or false

A

true

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61
Q

Ketamine is extremely useful in ______, _______ and _______ patients

A

High risk, pediatric, asthmatic

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62
Q

Ketamine provides ________, and can be used to aid in perioperative pain management

63
Q

Ketamine

Introduced in the ______

64
Q

Ketamine

MOA and pharmacologic effects greatly different from other classic anesthetic drugs

true or false

65
Q

Ketamine

Does it encompass the usual signs and symptoms of anesthesia?

66
Q

Ketamine

Produces a _________ state where the patients feels _________ from environment

A

Catatonic, separated

67
Q

Ketamine

The term _________ anesthesia was coined to describe the catatonic state ketamine produces

A

Dissociative

68
Q

Ketamine

Produces profound ________ and _______ while maintaining most protective _________

A

analgesia, amnesia, reflexes

69
Q

Ketamine

MOA

A

NMDA receptor antagonist
(N-methyl-D-asparate amino acid)

Noncompetitve antagonist at NMDA receptor

70
Q

Ketamine inhibits ________

71
Q

Ketamine enhances ____________ analgesia and prevents _________

A

opioid-induced analgesia, hyperalgesia (ex: as caused by remifentanil)

72
Q

Ketamine metabolism

__________ enzyme systems responsible for biotransformation

A

Hepatic microsomal

73
Q

Ketamine metabolism

Undergoes ______ to produce more ______ compound eliminated by renal system

A

conjugation, water-soluble

74
Q

Ketamine metabolism

Metabolite ________ is approximately ____ to ____ activity of ketamine

A

norketamine
20-30%

75
Q

Ketamine

Onset of action is _____ (faster/slower) than propofol or etomidate

76
Q

Ketamine

How long can it take to achieve clinical anesthesia?

77
Q

Ketamine

Reawakening within ___ min, although wide variability is seen

A

15 min

depends on how giving (ex: large IM dose = 30-45 min)

78
Q

Ketamine

Elimination half life: ____
IM onset: _____
PO onset: _____

A

2-3 hours
5-15 min
10-20 min

79
Q

Ketamine
CNS effects

A

-Dissociative state of anesthesia;
amnesia
-Nystagmus
-Skeletal muscle tone increased
-Occasional purposeless
movements
-Analgesic effects
-CBF, CMRO2, ICP increase
-Psychic disturbances on
emergence, nightmares,
hallucinations (reduced by
benzos or other sedatives)

80
Q

Ketamine
CV effects

A

Indirect sympathomimetic

Increased BP, HR, inotropy

81
Q

Ketamine
Respiratory effects

A

-Potent bronchodilator (indirect
sympathomimetic)
-Increased secretions
-Maintains respirations and airway reflexes (period of initial apnea may
occur)

82
Q

Ketamine
Intraocular effects

83
Q

Ketamine

Can it be used in obstetrics?

A

Yes, for analgesia or anesthesia

84
Q

Ketamine is ______ -soluble and crosses _______ into _____ tissue

A

lipid, placenta, fetal

85
Q

Ketamine

____- ____mg/kg does not compromise uterine tone, uterine blood flow, or neonatal status at delivery

___ -___mg/kg does result in depressed neonate at delivery

A

0.5-1mg/kg

2-2.5mg/kg

86
Q

Ketamine

Popular for neonates and ______

Sedation, analgesia, amnesia, cardiac and respiratory stability, short duration offer advantages in ______ patients

A

Children

Young

87
Q

Agent of choice for children with difficult or reactive airways

88
Q

Ketamine can be given ___ or ____ in uncooperative children

89
Q

Ketamine has a risk of possible _______ in children

A

Neurotoxicity

Limit exposure to lowest dose for lowest time

90
Q

Pharmacologic properties of benzodiazepines (6)

A

-Sedation
-Hypnosis
-Muscle relaxation
-Anxiolysis
-Anticonvulsant effects
-Amnesia

91
Q

Benzodiazepines have a ____ (low/high) incidence of side effects

92
Q

Benzodiazepines

Similar compounds first synthesized in ______

93
Q

_______ was the first benzodiazepine synthesized in 1955, and introduced into clinical practice in ______

A

Librium, 1960

94
Q

Diazepam synthesized in ______

95
Q

Oxazepam synthesized in ______

96
Q

Lorazepam synthesized in ______

97
Q

Midazolam synthesized in _______

98
Q

Remimazolam synthesized in late ______

99
Q

________ was the first benzodiazepine group to be formulated specifically with anesthesia as its target clinical audience

100
Q

Various benzodiazepines are similar, but vary in ______, ______, and intensities of clinical properties

A

potencies, pharmacokinetics

101
Q

______ onset and ______ duration and half life, with relative limited adverse effects make midazolam popular for preoperative medication

A

Rapid, short

102
Q

Why is midazolam rarely used to induce anesthesia?

A

Prolonged effect at high doses

103
Q

Diazepam and lorazepam used occasionally, usually for inpatients requiring ________ sedation

104
Q

___________ is an ultra-short acting benzodiazepine developed for procedural sedation as well as induction and maintenance of anesthesia

A

Remimazolam

105
Q

Remimazolam is a benzodiazepine like midazolam, but has ______________ metabolism like remifentanil

A

organ-independent

106
Q

Remimazolam was approved by the FDA July ______

107
Q

Benzodiazepines MOA

A

GABA-A receptor agonist, specifically at the benzodiazepine receptor binding sites

108
Q

Benzodiazepines work _________ to enhance endogenous GABA binding rather than indirectly, physiologic ______ effect is noted

A

Allosterically, ceiling

109
Q

Benzodiazepines are relatively ______ and have low ______

A

safe, toxicity

d/t ceiling effect

110
Q

Benzodiazepines

Newer generations focused on chemical alterations to improve chemical ____________

A

pharmacokinetics

111
Q

Benzodiazepines

Changes in chemical alterations have resulted in: (3)

A

Simplified metabolism
Fewer active metabolites
More predictable time course

Remimidazolam has been the result of all this research

112
Q

Benzodiazepines
CNS effects

A

Anterograde amnesia
No reliable retrograde amnesia
Anxiolytic
Sedation
Antiepileptic effect

113
Q

Benzodiazepines
CV effects

A

Minimal effects

114
Q

Benzodiazepines
Respiratory effects

A

-Dose-dependent respiratory depression (Midazolam the most)
-Changes in CO2 sensitivity; caution in obesity, OSA (esp. at high doses)

115
Q

Midazolam uses

A

Induction and maintenance of
anesthesia
Sedation

116
Q

Diazepam uses

A

Induction and maintenance of
anesthesia
Sedation

117
Q

Clonazepam uses

A

Treatment of epilepsy

118
Q

Alprazolam uses

A

Anxiolysis

119
Q

Sole benzodiazepine competitive antagonist available in US

A

Flumazenil

120
Q

Flumazenil has a ____ (short/long) duration of action that makes possibility of re-sedation clinically relevant

121
Q

Flumazenil

onset:
duration:

A

1-2 min
45-90 min

122
Q

Are withdrawal reactions possible with flumazenil?

______ have been reported

A

Yes

Seizures

123
Q

Dexmedetomidine

Drug class

A

Alpha-2 receptor agonist

124
Q

_________ developed as a more selective alpha 2 receptor agonist

A

Dexmedetomidine

125
Q

Dexmedetomidine causes: (5)

A

-Sedation
-Analgesia (also ketamine)
-Anxiolysis
-Reduced post-op shivering and
agitation
-Cardiovascular sympatholytic actions (decreased HR, BP)

126
Q

Dexmedetomidine is highly specific for alpha-2 vs alpha-1 at a ratio of _____:_____

127
Q

Main site of action for sedative actions of Dexmedetomidine is the _____ ______ _____, the ______ ______

A

Pontine noradrenergic nucleus, the locus coeruleus

128
Q

Dexmedetomidine

When alpha-2 receptors are stimulated by an agonist, it results in ________ catecholamine release

129
Q

Dexmedetomidine undergoes almost _________ biotransformation with very little unchanged in urine and feces

130
Q

Dexmedetomidine

Metabolism is direct __________as well as cytochrome p450-mediated

A

glucuronaidation

131
Q

Does Dexmedetomidine have active metabolites?

132
Q

Dexmedetomidine

Onset of action:
Duration of action:

A

10-20 min (slow)
10-30 min (slim)

133
Q

Dexmedetomidine
CNS

Can be useful in procedures requiring ______ tests

A

“wake-up”

134
Q

Dexmedetomidine
CNS effects

A

Sedation and analgesia, no change in ICP

Antishivering properties
Lowers risk of emergence delirium
Limited effects on evoked potentials

135
Q

Dexmedetomidine
CV effects

A

Bradycardia, hypotension

Transient HTN can occur with rapid administration

136
Q

Dexmedetomidine
Respiratory effects

A

Preserves respiratory drive

137
Q

Dexmedetomidine
Other effects (3)

A

-Mild diuretic effect
-Reduces emergence agitation
in children
-Proposed anti-inflammatory
effect

138
Q

Dexmedetomidine

Dose for emergence agitation prevention

A

0.25 mcg/kg

139
Q

Only anticholinergic drug used primarily for sedation

A

Scopolamine

140
Q

Scopolamine
CNS effects

A

-Restlessness
-Somnolence

141
Q

Scopolamine CNS effects more likely to occur in ________

142
Q

What can reverse CNS symptoms in scopolamine?

A

Physostigmine 2mg IV

143
Q

Scopolamine has a __________ effect, which is a benefit

A

Antisialagogue

144
Q

__________ used to be the most common intravenous induction agents

A

Barbiturates

145
Q

_________ (a barbiturate) was a core medicine in the World Health Organization’s list of essential medicines, but was replaced by propofol

Listed as an acceptable alternative to propofol, depending on local availability and cost

A

Thiopental

146
Q

Barbiturates

______ lowers seizure threshold, making it useful when providing anesthesia for electroconvulsive therapy

A

Methohexital

147
Q

Methohexital has similar effects to ______

Still used today depending on practice

A

sodium thiopental

148
Q

______________ discontinued barbiturate by Eli Lilly in early 80’s

When given intravenously, has a reputation for acting as a truth serum

A

Amobarbital

149
Q

Methohexital
CV effects

A

-Decreased MAP
-Decreased contractility
reflects depression of
medullary vasomotor center
and decreased sympathetic
tone, causing vasodilation

150
Q

Methohexital
Respiratory effects

A

Decreased ventilatory drive

151
Q

Barbiturates usually have more _______ stability than propofol

A

cardiovascular

152
Q

Barbiturates have _______ clearance

153
Q

Methohexital uniquely activates ______ foci facilitating electro-convulsion therapy and identification of seizure foci during ablative surgery

154
Q

Methohexital is _____ % protein bound

155
Q

Methohexital

Onset:
Duration:

A

15-30 sec (fast)
5-10 min (short)