Wizz Air RESUME ATPL Flashcards
1
Q
What is a Critical Engine?
A
Engine whose failure would most adversely affect the aircraft’s handling and performance quality.
2
Q
What is a Swept Wing?
A
A wing design angled beyond the spanwise axis, favored for high subsonic and supersonic speeds.
3
Q
List advantages of a swept wing.
A
- High Mach cruise speed
- Stability in turbulence
4
Q
List disadvantages of a swept wing.
A
- Poor lift qualities
- Speed instability at lower speeds
- Wing tip stalling tendency
5
Q
What are High Lift Devices?
A
Devices intended to increase lift during certain flight conditions, including flaps and slats.
6
Q
What is the Critical Mach Number?
A
The lowest Mach number at which airflow over some point of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.
7
Q
What is Mach Tuck?
A
An aerodynamic effect where the nose of an aircraft tends to pitch down as airflow reaches supersonic speeds.
8
Q
What is Coffin Corner?
A
Altitude where stall speed equals the critical Mach number, making stable flight nearly impossible.
9
Q
Define a Stall.
A
When the angle of attack exceeds a critical point, causing the wings to lose lift.
10
Q
What is a Deep Stall?
A
A dangerous stall affecting T-tail aircraft where the horizontal stabilizer becomes ineffective.
11
Q
What is Dutch Roll?
A
A combination of rolling and yawing oscillations in an aircraft.
12
Q
What is the Centre of Pressure?
A
The point depending on pressure distribution along the chord, which varies with angle of attack.
13
Q
Why does an aircraft descend quicker when it is lighter?
A
Heavier aircraft require a shallower descent to avoid overspeeding.
14
Q
What is the Centre of Gravity?
A
The point through which the force of gravity acts on a mass.
15
Q
Effect of forward and aft C.G. on performance.
A
- Forward C.G.: High AoA, increased drag, decreased range
- Aft C.G.: Low AoA, decreased stability, increased performance
16
Q
Define Basic Empty Mass.
A
The mass of an aeroplane plus standard items excluding crew, fuel, passengers, and cargo.
17
Q
What is Dry Operating Mass?
A
Total mass of the aeroplane ready for operation excluding usable fuel and traffic load.
18
Q
Define Traffic Load.
A
The total mass of passengers, baggage, and cargo.
19
Q
What is Zero Fuel Mass?
A
The Dry Operating Mass plus traffic load, excluding fuel.
20
Q
What is Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM)?
A
The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.
21
Q
Define Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass (MTOM).
A
The maximum permissible total aeroplane mass at the start of the take-off run.
22
Q
What are Performance Limited Masses?
A
Limits ensuring the aircraft is light enough to complete take-off and landing within available distances.
23
Q
What is Performance Limited Take-Off Mass (PLTOM)?
A
The maximum take-off mass allowable to comply with departure performance limitations.
24
Q
What are performance mass limits?
A
Limits imposed to ensure aircraft is light enough for take-off and landing within available distances.
25
What factors determine Performance Limited Take-Off Mass (PLTOM)?
* Runway distance available
* Minimum climb gradients required.
26
What is Performance Limited Landing Mass (PLLM)?
The maximum landing mass allowable to comply with landing runway limitations.
27
What factors determine Performance Limited Landing Mass (PLLM)?
* Runway distance available
* Minimum climb gradients required in case of a go-around.
28
What determines the regulated mass of an aircraft?
The most limiting of either structural considerations or performance considerations.
29
What are aerodrome operating minima (AOM)?
Criteria used by pilots to determine landing or take-off conditions at night or in IMC.
30
What are the two parts of Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM)?
* Cloud base
* Visibility and/or Runway Visual Range (RVR).
31
Fill in the blank: RVR/CMV = Reported met. VIS × _______ for Day.
1.5
32
Fill in the blank: RVR/CMV = Reported met. VIS × _______ for Night.
2.0
33
What is a Take-off Alternate?
An alternate aerodrome specified if return to the departure aerodrome is precluded.
34
What is the distance requirement for a Take-off Alternate?
Within one hour still air flight time at one-engine inoperative cruising speed.
35
What weather conditions must be met for a destination alternate?
Weather must be at or above planning minima during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA.
36
What are the conditions for selecting destination alternates?
* No alternate required if:
- Flight duration does not exceed 6 hours
- Two separate runways are available
- Weather is at or above minima
* One alternate required if IFR flights are involved.
37
What defines separate runways on the same aerodrome?
Separate landing surfaces that do not prevent operations on the other runway if one is blocked.
38
What is the requirement for an Enroute Alternate?
An adequate airport must be reachable within one hour still air flight time at one-engine inoperative cruising speed.
39
What must meteorological reports indicate for a destination aerodrome?
Weather must be at or above applicable planning minima during specified times.
40
What are the planning minima for CAT II and III approaches?
Specific visibility and ceiling requirements must be met.
41
What is the minimum required visibility for a CAT I approach?
550m
42
What is the minimum required visibility for a CAT II approach?
300m
43
What is the minimum required visibility for a CAT III A approach?
200m
44
What is the minimum required visibility for a CAT III B approach?
75m
45
What is an Approach Ban?
No more than two successive approaches resulting in a go-around are allowed, except in emergencies.
46
What is the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) area divided into?
* Primary area
* Secondary area.
47
What is the width of the primary area in obstacle clearance?
Equal to one-half of the total width.
48
What is the minimum decision altitude (DA) for CAT II approaches?
100ft
49
What is the minimum decision altitude (DA) for CAT III approaches?
50ft
50
What is the purpose of the Missed Approach Segment?
To establish a climb at the Missed Approach Point (MAPt).
51
What are the phases of the Missed Approach Segment?
* Initial MISAP Segment
* Intermediate MISAP Segment
* Final MISAP Segment.
52
What is the minimum climb gradient for the approach climb?
2.1%
53
What is the minimum climb gradient for the landing climb?
3.2%
54
What is a Circling Approach?
Visual phase to position for landing on a runway not suitable for a straight-in approach.
55
What visibility and minimum descent height (MDH) are required for a Circling Approach?
* MDH: 600ft
* Visibility: 4000m.
56
What is a Visual Approach?
An IFR approach executed with visual reference to the terrain.
57
What visibility and ceiling are required for a Visual Approach?
* Visibility: 5000m
* Ceiling: 2500ft.
58
What is the approach speed range for Category C airplanes?
160/240 KIAS
59
What are the required minimums for a Non-Precision approach?
* RVR: 750m
* DH: 250ft to 350ft.
60
What is the definition of the Initial Approach Fix (IAF)?
An aid/fix where the initial approach segment begins.
61
What defines the Missed Approach Point (MAPt)?
The point where the prescribed Missed Approach Procedure must be initiated.
62
What is the minimum obstacle clearance on straight segments?
Equal to one-half of the total width of the primary area.
63
What is the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) at the departure end of the runway?
Zero
## Footnote
The MOC increases by 0.8% of the horizontal distance in the direction of flight after the departure end.
64
What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided in the turn initiation area?
90 m (295 ft)
## Footnote
This applies to the turn area as well.
65
What is the assumed Procedure Design Gradient (PDG) for departure procedures?
3.3 per PDG
## Footnote
This assumes a straight climb on the extended runway centerline until reaching 120 m (394 ft) AAL.
66
What are the two components that make up the Procedure Design Gradient (PDG)?
* 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification surfaces
* 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance
67
What is the maximum turn angle assumed during departure procedures?
15°
68
What is the initial departure track requirement for straight departures?
Within 15° of the alignment of the runway centerline
69
What altitude must be reached before turns of more than 15° are specified?
At least 120 m (394 ft)
70
What is the maximum holding speed for normal conditions below 14,000 ft?
230 kts
71
What is the holding speed for CAT A and B aircraft up to 14,000 ft in turbulent conditions?
170 kts
72
What is the minimum holding level clearance above obstacles in the holding area?
984 ft
73
What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) clearance within a 25NM radius from the navigational facility?
1000 ft
74
What altitude does the drift down altitude refer to?
The altitude to which an aircraft descends after an engine failure
75
What does ETOPS stand for?
Extended Twin Operations
76
What is the purpose of Noise Abatement Departure Procedure 1 (NADP 1)?
Provide noise reduction for noise-sensitive areas close to the departure end of the runway
77
What is the takeoff thrust requirement for NADP 2?
V2 + 10 to 20 kt
78
What is the classification for multi-engine jets over 5700 kg?
CLASS A
79
What is the formula for calculating approach category by airspeed?
VAT: 1.3 × VSO
80
What is the takeoff distance (TOD) on a dry runway based on engine failure?
Greater of distance to 35 ft above surface at VEF or 115% of distance to 35 ft above surface with all engines operating
81
What does the Takeoff Run (TOR) calculation incorporate when a clearway is present?
Distance from brake release to point equidistant between VLOF and 35 ft above the surface
82
What is the Accelerate Stop Distance (ASD) on a dry runway?
Greater of distances to accelerate to VEF, accelerate from VEF to V1, and come to a full stop
83
What is the Takeoff Run Available (TORA)?
The length of the runway itself
84
What is the buffer area surrounding the holding area?
5.0 NM beyond the boundary of the holding area
85
What is the minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) for VOR airways?
Lowest published altitude providing obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment
86
What is the minimum enroute altitude (MEA)?
Lowest published altitude between radio fixes assuring acceptable navigational signal coverage
87
What is the drift down altitude related to?
One engine inoperative absolute ceiling
88
What is the minimum holding level clearance over high terrain?
1,969 ft
89
What are the holding entry types?
* Parallel Entry
* Offset Entry
* Direct Entry
90
What is the approach category for aircraft operating at speeds from 121 to 140 kt?
Category C
91
What altitude must be achieved before initiating a turn after takeoff?
Greater of 50 ft AGL or half of the aircraft wingspan
92
What is the purpose of the stopway area?
To support the airplane during an abortive take-off without causing structural damage
93
What is the relationship between Accelerate Stop Distance and Accelerate Stop Distance Available?
Accelerate Stop Distance must not exceed the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
94
What does TORA stand for?
Take off Run Available
95
What is a Stopway?
An area beyond the take-off runway, no less wide than the runway and centred upon the extended centreline of the runway, able to support the aeroplane during an abortive take-off.
96
What is the formula for ASDA?
ASDA = TORA + Stopway
97
Define Clearway.
The length of an obstacle-free area at the end of the runway, with a minimum width of 150m (500ft) and centrally located about the extended centreline of the runway.
98
What is TODA?
Take off Distance Available
99
What does TODR stand for?
Take off Distance Required
100
What does LDA represent?
Landing Distance Available
101
What is LDR?
Landing Distance Required
102
What is Decision Speed (V1)?
Maximum speed during takeoff at which a pilot can safely stop the aircraft without leaving the runway.
103
What is Engine Failure Speed (VEF)?
The CAS at which the critical engine is assumed to fail.
104
What is Rotation Speed (VR)?
The speed at which the pilot starts to rotate the aeroplane for take-off to achieve V2 at the screen height.
105
What is Takeoff Safety Speed (V2)?
Achieved by the screen height 35ft and maintained to 400ft AGL in the event of an engine failure.
106
What is Lift-off Speed (VLOF)?
The speed at which the aeroplane first becomes airborne.
107
What is Stall Speed (VS)?
The speed at which the airflow over the wings will stall.
108
What does Minimum Control Speed on the Ground (VMCG) refer to?
The minimum speed on or near the ground at which the take-off can be continued safely when the critical engine becomes inoperative.
109
What is Minimum Control Speed in the Air (VMCA)?
The minimum speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in flight with a maximum 5 degrees of bank.
110
What is a balanced field?
If TODR equals ASDR, it is known as a balanced field.
111
What are the components of Taxi Fuel?
Total amount of fuel prior to take-off including operation of ice protection system and APU.
112
What is Contingency Fuel?
5% of TRIP Fuel or amount to fly 5 min’ holding speed at 1500ft over destination.
113
What is Final Reserve Fuel?
30 minutes at 1500ft ARP elev. in ISA calculated with the estimated landing mass.
114
What should be reported if the aircraft may land with less than Final Reserve Fuel?
A PAN PAN must be reported to ATC.
115
What conditions may indicate icing?
When the OAT or TAT is at or below 10°C and there is visible moisture.
116
What is Anti-Icing?
The process of protecting against the formation of frozen contaminant on surfaces.
117
What is De-Icing?
The process of removing frozen contaminant from a surface.
118
What does Hold Over Time (HOT) refer to?
The estimated time an anti-icing fluid will prevent frost, ice, snow, or slush from forming.
119
What does METAR stand for?
Routine Actual Weather Report
120
What is a TAF?
Aerodrome Weather forecast
121
What does RNP stand for?
Required Navigational Performance
122
What is the required accuracy for RNP-5?
Shall be within 5 NM of the desired flight path at least 95% of the flight time.
123
What is PRNAV?
Precision RNAV, which satisfies a required track-keeping accuracy of ±1 NM.
124
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
125
What is the minimum equipment required for P-RNAV procedures?
One RNAV system, including one FMGC, one MCDU, one GPS receiver, two IRS, and one FD in NAV mode.
126
What is RNAV IAP?
RNAV approach, procedure designed in overlay to a conventional IAP.
127
What is required for FM navigation update?
Two IRS and one FD in NAV mode.
## Footnote
On the PF side: PFD and ND must be operative. On the PNF side: at least one of the two EFIS must be operative.
128
What is an RNAV Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)?
An RNAV approach designed in overlay to a conventional IAP, based on ground radio navaids.
## Footnote
It can be a stand-alone RNAV approach requiring GPS accuracy or associated with an RNP value.
129
What is RVSM?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minima, airspace between FL290 to FL410 considered special qualification airspace.
## Footnote
All Wizz Air airplanes are authorized for RVSM operations.
130
What must be available for flights through RVSM airspace?
A Significant Weather Chart.
## Footnote
This is crucial for flight planning in RVSM airspace.
131
What equipment must be serviceable before entering RVSM airspace?
* Two primary altimeter systems (agree within ± 200 feet)
* One automatic altitude control system
* One altitude alerting system
* A transponder connected to altitude measurement system
132
What is the purpose of the Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System ((E)GPWS)?
To alert pilots of abnormal aircraft position in relation to terrain, preventing Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT).
## Footnote
This system cannot be deactivated.
133
What is the aural alert for excessive descent rate in (E)GPWS?
"SINKRATE"
## Footnote
This alert indicates a critical condition requiring immediate pilot action.
134
What does TCAS stand for?
Traffic Collision Avoidance System.
## Footnote
It is designed to reduce mid-air collisions between aircraft.
135
What does a Traffic Advisory (TA) in TCAS indicate?
A yellow circle symbol indicating potential traffic conflict.
## Footnote
The pilot should prepare for possible resolution actions.
136
What should a pilot do in case of communication failure?
* Continue to fly in VMC
* Land at the nearest suitable airport
* Report arrival to the appropriate ATC unit
137
Define light turbulence.
Turbulence that causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.
## Footnote
Passengers may feel slight strain against seat belts but service does not need to be suspended.
138
What is the categorization of the A320 in airport firefighting?
Category 6, but category 4 is also suitable if there are infrequent movements.
## Footnote
Not more than 8 movements per day.
139
List the wake turbulence categories based on mass.
* Super (Airbus A380)
* Heavy (MTOM > 136,000 kg)
* Medium (7,000 < MTOM < 136,000 kg)
* Light (MTOM < 7,000 kg)
140
What is the minimum spacing for a heavy aircraft followed by a medium/light aircraft departing from the same position?
2 minutes.
141
What are low visibility operations (LVO)?
* Manual take-off (RVR below 400 m)
* Auto-coupled approach with manual flare, landing, and roll-out
* Auto-coupled approach followed by auto-flare and auto-landing
142
What does the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) include?
All equipment, systems, and installations that must be serviceable before a flight.
## Footnote
Items that may be unserviceable are indicated with limitations.
143
What is the Configuration Deviation List (CDL)?
Lists aeroplane panels and doors that may be missing and indicates acceptable areas of damage for flight.
144
What is the purpose of the High Intensity Runway Light (HIRL) system?
To provide visual guidance for pilots during landing and take-off.
145
What are Runway End Identification Lights (REIL)?
Synchronized flashing lights installed at the runway threshold, facing the approach direction.
146
What is indicated by the dynamic pressure in an Air Speed Indicator (ASI)?
Indicated Airspeed (IAS) as knots per hour.
147
What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?
IAS corrected for position and instrument errors.
148
Define Equivalent Airspeed (EAS).
CAS corrected for compressibility, providing the most accurate speed measure.
149
What is True Airspeed (TAS)?
The actual speed of the aircraft relative to the air mass in which it is flying.
150
What does Mach number represent?
The ratio of True Airspeed (TAS) to the local speed of sound (LSS).
151
What does the ASI measure?
Dynamic pressure as the difference between total pitot pressure and static pressure.
152
What does ASI stand for?
Air Speed Indicator
## Footnote
The ASI measures dynamic pressure as the difference between total pitot pressure and static pressure.
153
What does the ASI measure?
Dynamic pressure representing indicated airspeed in knots per hour.
154
What are the errors associated with the ASI?
* Instrument error
* Pressure error
* Density error
* Compressibility error
* Maneuver error
* Blocked pitot static system
155
If the static probe becomes blocked, what happens to the ASI during descent?
The ASI will over read.
156
If the static probe becomes blocked, what happens to the ASI during climb?
The ASI will under read.
157
What is the function of an altimeter?
Indicates altitude based on static pressure changes.
158
What are the errors associated with an altimeter?
* Instrument error
* Pressure error
* Time-lag error
* Barometric error
* Density error
* Temperature error
* Blocked static port
159
What happens if the static probe of an altimeter becomes blocked?
The indication will be stuck.
160
What does VSI stand for?
Vertical Speed Indicator
161
How does the VSI measure rate of climb or descent?
By creating a differential static pressure between the capsule and the case.
162
What are the errors associated with the VSI?
* Instrument time-lag
* Pressure error
* Maneuver error
163
What happens if the static probe of a VSI becomes blocked?
The indication will slowly move back to 0 and not change.
164
What is the function of a gyroscope in aviation?
Measures forces experienced on its rotor body during aircraft maneuvers.
165
What is the construction of a gyroscope?
Suspended in gimbals arranged at right angles to transfer force to displayed measurements.
166
What does a Turn and Slip Indicator measure?
* Turn
* Slip
* Skid
167
What are the components of a Turn and Slip Indicator?
* Rate gyroscope
* One gimbal
* Two planes of freedom
168
What is a magnetic compass comprised of?
A freely suspended horizontal magnet attached to a compass card.
169
What are the errors associated with a magnetic compass?
* Acceleration/Deceleration errors (ANDS)
* Turning errors (UNOS)
170
What is a fail-passive Automatic Landing System?
A system that does not complete landing automatically in case of failure.
171
What is a fail-operational Automatic Landing System?
A system that can complete landing even after a failure.
172
What defines a fail-operational Hybrid Landing System?
A primary fail-passive system with a secondary independent guidance system.
173
What are the frequency ranges for NAV?
108.000 - 117.975
174
What are the three fundamental principles of expert airmanship?
* Skill
* Proficiency
* Discipline
175
What are the pillars of knowledge in airmanship?
* Knowledge of self
* Knowledge of aircraft
* Knowledge of team
* Knowledge of environment
* Knowledge of risk
176
What is Crew Resource Management (CRM)?
Effective use of available resources for safe and efficient flight operations.
177
What elements comprise CRM?
* Communications
* Situational awareness
* Problem solving
* Decision making
* Teamwork
178
What is situational awareness?
Keeping track of 'what is going on' in a complex environment.
179
What does the DODAR model stand for in decision making?
* Diagnose
* Options
* Decide
* Act or Assign
* Review
180
What does the FORDEC model stand for in decision making?
* Fact and Fuel
* Options
* Risks
* Decision
* Execute
* Check
181
What does the DECIDE model stand for in decision making?
* Detect
* Estimate
* Choose
* Identify
* Do
* Evaluate
