ATPL RESUME Flashcards
1
Q
What is the standard bank angle for holding turns?
A
25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
2
Q
What is the buffer area beyond the holding area boundary?
A
5.0NM
3
Q
What is the outbound time for holding at an altitude ≤ 14,000 ft?
A
1 minute
4
Q
What is the outbound time for holding at an altitude > 14,000 ft?
A
1 minute 30 seconds
5
Q
What are the ICAO maximum holding speeds for altitudes up to 14,000 ft?
A
230 kts
6
Q
What are the ICAO maximum holding speeds for altitudes 14,000 ft to 20,000 ft?
A
240 kts
7
Q
What are the ICAO maximum holding speeds for altitudes 20,000 ft to 34,000 ft?
A
265 kts
8
Q
What are the ICAO maximum holding speeds for altitudes above 34,000 ft?
A
M0.83
9
Q
What is the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) around a navigation facility?
A
25NM with a 1000 ft clearance; mountainous area 2000 ft
10
Q
What is the SSR mode C derived level information tolerance for maintaining assigned level?
A
+/- 300 ft
11
Q
What frequencies should an aircraft attempt to establish communication on when intercepted?
A
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
12
Q
What is the maximum speed adjustment for a pilot under radar control during approach?
A
± 20 KT
13
Q
What are the segments of an approach?
A
- Initial approach
- Intermediate approach
- Final approach
- Missed approach
14
Q
What is the maximum descent gradient for CAT C, D, and E?
A
6.1% (3.5°)
15
Q
What is the glide angle for CAT II/III approaches?
A
3.0°
16
Q
What does a transponder code of 7700 indicate?
A
Aircraft in distress
17
Q
What does a transponder code of 7600 indicate?
A
Communication failure
18
Q
What does a transponder code of 7500 indicate?
A
Unlawful interference
19
Q
What does PAPI stand for?
A
Precision Approach Path Indicator
20
Q
What does ATIS stand for?
A
Automatic Terminal Information Service
21
Q
What does AIC stand for?
A
Aeronautical Information Circular
22
Q
What does VASI stand for?
A
Visual Approach Slope Indicator
23
Q
What are the main parts of an AIP?
A
- GEN
- ENR
- AD
24
Q
What are the visibility requirements for airspace class C, D, and E at 10,000 ft or more?
A
8 km
25
What are the horizontal and vertical distance from clouds requirements for airspace class C, D, and E below 10,000 ft?
1,500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
26
What are the visibility requirements for airspace class G at 10,000 ft or more?
8 km
27
What is the VFR minimum level over congested areas?
Less than 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m
28
What is the IFR minimum level over high terrain?
At least 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km
29
What is the minimum holding altitude (MHA)?
The lowest altitude prescribed for a holding pattern ensuring navigation signal coverage and obstacle clearance.
30
What is the Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA)?
The lowest published altitude ensuring acceptable navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance.
31
What does MOCA stand for?
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
32
What does MORA stand for?
Minimum Off Route Altitude
33
What is the purpose of MSA?
Represents the safe altitude around a navigation station or aerodrome reference point.
34
What is Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?
A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
35
What is a Decision Altitude (DA)?
The specified height at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been acquired.
36
What are the three services comprising ATS?
* Air traffic services
* Flight Information Service
* Alerting Service
37
What does EPR stand for in engine instruments?
Engine Pressure Ratio
38
What does EGT stand for?
Exhaust Gas Temperature
39
What does N1 represent in engine instruments?
Low speed rotor rpm [%]
40
What does N2 represent?
High speed rotor rpm [%]
41
What is the primary advantage of a turbofan engine?
Quieter and more efficient for subsonic airspeeds due to greater mass flow and lower total exhaust speed.
42
What is the formula for Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption (TSFC)?
TSFC = Fuel burn (lbs/hour) / Engine Thrust (lb)
43
What is a compressor stall?
A situation of abnormal airflow through the compressor stage causing a loss of engine power.
44
What is the critical engine in a multi-engine aircraft?
The engine whose failure would result in the most adverse effects on handling and performance.
45
What is the stroke in a piston engine?
The movement of the piston in the engine.
46
What is a turbocharger?
A turbine-driven forced induction device that increases engine efficiency and power.
47
What is a supercharger?
An air compressor that increases the pressure or density of air supplied to an internal combustion engine.
48
What are the conditions for highest engine performance?
* Low humidity
* Low temperature
* High pressure density
49
What is the pressure altitude?
The altitude shown on altimeter with standard (1013) setting.
50
What is the density altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for temperature and humidity.
51
What does IAS stand for in airspeed indicators?
Indicated Airspeed
52
What happens when the pitot source is blocked?
Increases in climb; decreases in descend.
53
What is TCAS?
Traffic Collision Avoidance System
54
What is the definition of TCAS?
Traffic Collision Avoidance System
55
What does a red full square + arrow indicate in TCAS?
Resolution advisory (RA)
56
What does a yellow full circle indicate in TCAS?
Traffic advisory (TA)
57
What is FDR?
Flight data recorder
58
What is the data retention requirement for FDR?
25 hours
59
What does CVR stand for?
Cockpit voice recorder
60
What is the data retention requirement for CVR?
2 hours
61
What is the effect of insufficient bank or too much rudder called?
Skidding
62
What is the effect of too much bank or too little rudder called?
Slipping
63
What is the memory aid for magnetic compass errors?
Turn to N, Under Shoot; Turn to South, Over Shoot
64
What is the memory aid for acceleration and deceleration with a magnetic compass?
A N D S - Accelerate North, Decelerate South
65
What is dynamic pressure in the pitot-static system?
Total pressure - static pressure
66
What temperature correction must be added to DA/DH or MDA/MDH?
When air temperature is 0°C or colder
67
What is CG?
Center of gravity
68
What happens when CG is outside the forward limit?
Stalling speed will be increased
69
What happens when CG is outside the aft limit?
Longitudinal stability is reduced
70
What is V1?
Maximum speed during takeoff at which a pilot can safely stop the aircraft without leaving the runway
71
What is VR?
Rotation speed, the speed at which the aircraft's nose wheel leaves the ground
72
What is V2?
Takeoff safety speed, where the aircraft may safely become airborne with one engine inoperative
73
What is VNE?
Never exceed speed
74
What is VMCA?
Minimum control speed in the air with one engine inoperative
75
What is VMCG?
Minimum control speed on the ground with one engine inoperative
76
What is the definition of a balanced field?
TODA = ASDA for the aircraft weight, engine thrust, aircraft configuration and runway condition
77
What is the climb gradient?
Rate of change in height divided by horizontal distance traveled
78
What does TOD stand for?
Takeoff distance
79
What is the definition of TORA?
Takeoff run available
80
What is the minimum additional fuel required for a flight?
Fuel to descend and proceed to an adequate alternate aerodrome
81
What is the minimum fuel reserve for jet and turboprop aircraft?
30 minutes
82
What is the definition of performance class A?
Multi-engine JET and Turboprops (> 5.700kg or > 9 seats)
83
What is the climb gradient for a standard SID?
3.3%
84
What happens to V2 when flaps are down?
V2 decreases
85
When climbing at a constant IAS, what happens to Mach number?
Mach number increases
86
What is the significance of the speed of sound in relation to altitude?
The speed of sound decreases in colder air
87
What is the definition of glide angle?
Not affected by airplane weight
88
What is the purpose of extra fuel?
Fuel at the discretion of the commander
89
What is the formula for climb rate?
Climb rate (fpm) = Gradient (%) * Airspeed (kts)
90
What is Performance Class A?
Multi-engine JET and Turboprops (> 5.700kg or > 9 seats)
91
What defines Performance Class B?
Propeller driven aeroplanes (≤ 5.700kg and ≤ 9 seats)
92
What characterizes Performance Class C?
Reciprocating engines (> 5.700kg or > 9 seats)
93
What is the semi-circular height rule for IFR?
Pod FL290 → IFR 000o – 179o = even, 180o – 359o = odd
94
What is RVSM airspace?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minima from FL290 to FL410
95
Define MNPS.
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification extending from 27° North to 90° North, vertical from FL285 to FL420
96
What is the lateral separation for MNPS approved aircraft?
60NM
97
What does an RNP of 10 signify?
A navigation system must calculate its position to within a circle with a radius of 10 nautical miles
98
What is PBN?
Performance-Based Navigation
99
What does ETOPS stand for?
Extended range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards
100
What is Area Navigation (RNAV)?
A method of IFR navigation that allows an aircraft to choose any course within a network of navigation beacons
101
What is a Take-off alternate?
An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land shortly after take-off
102
What is an En-route alternate?
An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after an abnormal condition en-route
103
Define Destination alternate.
An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed if landing at the intended aerodrome is inadvisable
104
What are the weather minimums for a Take-off alternate?
Conditions will be at or above the landing minimums 1 hour before and after ETA
105
What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without ETOPS approval?
Specific distance based on the operator's approval and conditions
106
What is the composition of the atmosphere?
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 1% other gases
107
What is Hyperventilation?
Occurs when the rate of alveolar ventilation exceeds the body's production of carbon dioxide
108
What is Hypoxia?
A condition where the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply
109
What is Cyanosis?
A blue or purple coloration of the skin due to low oxygen saturation
110
What is Time of Useful Consciousness at 18,000 ft?
30 minutes
111
What is the Time of Useful Consciousness at 25,000 ft?
2-3 minutes
112
What is the Time of Useful Consciousness at 30,000 ft?
45-75 seconds
113
What is a Rate 1 turn?
3°/sec, 180°/min
114
True or False: Narrow or long runways can lead to landing short or hard if the pilot feels too high.
True
115
What is the standard atmosphere (ISA) pressure at sea level?
1013.25 hPa
116
What does OAT stand for?
Outside Air Temperature
117
What is CAVOK?
Ceiling And Visibility Okay: Visibility > 10km, no clouds below 5,000ft
118
What happens to the altimeter when QNH increases?
True altitude is higher than indicated altitude
119
What is the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR)?
3.0°C/1,000 ft (unsaturated air)
120
What type of front typically moves the fastest?
Cold front
121
What are the three types of fog?
* Radiation fog
* Advection fog
* Upslope fog
122
What is a Low pressure system?
Wind circulates counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere; air is rising
123
What is a High pressure system?
Anticyclone; air is subsiding in the center
124
What is the ITCZ?
Intertropical Convergence Zone where trade winds come together
125
What is SIGMET?
Warnings of hazardous weather phenomena for aircraft in-flight
126
What does VOLMET stand for?
VOL (flight) and METEO (weather)
## Footnote
VOLMET is a worldwide network of radio stations that provide meteorological information for aircraft in flight.
127
What are SIGMETs?
Warnings of actual and/or forecasted weather phenomena hazardous to aircraft in-flight
## Footnote
Validity is not more than 4 hours (6 hours for TC, VA) and should be cancelled when phenomena are no longer occurring.
128
What types of severe weather phenomena are included in SIGMETs?
* TS (Thunderstorm)
* TC (Tropical Cyclone)
* TURB (Turbulence)
* ICG (In-cloud Lightning)
* MTW (Mountain Waves)
* HVY DS/SS (Heavy Dust/Sand Storms)
* RDOACT CLD (Radioactive Cloud)
129
What is ASHTAM?
Provides information on the status/changes of volcano activity using a level of alert
## Footnote
The maximum validity is 24 hours.
130
What characterizes light turbulence?
Condition less than moderate turbulence; changes in accelerometer readings less than 0.5g at the Center of Gravity (CG)
## Footnote
Reported as 'Turbulence light'.
131
What defines moderate turbulence?
Moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude; accelerometer readings 0.5g to 1.0g
## Footnote
Reported as 'Turbulence moderate'.
132
What is severe turbulence?
Abrupt changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude; accelerometers readings > 1.0g
## Footnote
Occupants forced violently against seatbelts; reported as 'Turbulence severe'.
133
What is Clear Air Turbulence (CAT)?
Turbulence associated with jet streams caused by vertical and horizontal wind shear
## Footnote
Strongest on the cold air side of the jet.
134
Define downdraft.
A relative small scale downward current of air
## Footnote
Often observed on the lee side of large objects or in precipitation areas.
135
What is a microburst?
Small-scale intense cold air downdrafts out of cumulus clouds or thunderstorm cells
## Footnote
Causes vertical and horizontal wind shear, especially at low altitude.
136
What is the typical size of a strong downdraft?
Typically less than 1NM in diameter; horizontal outflow can extend to approximately 4NM in diameter.
137
What is the intensity range of downdrafts?
Can be as strong as 8.000ft/MIN with horizontal wind speeds near the surface reaching up to 100KT
## Footnote
Normally lasts for 1 to 5 minutes.
138
What are the three stages of a thunderstorm's life cycle?
* Cumulus stage
* Mature stage
* Decaying stage
139
What is windshear?
A difference in wind speed and direction over a relatively short distance in the atmosphere.
140
What conditions lead to icing?
Any cloud containing liquid water presents a significant icing environment if the temperature is 0 °C or less.
141
What is rime ice?
Formed when small supercooled water droplets freeze rapidly on contact with a sub-zero surface
## Footnote
Appears white in color and is rough and crystalline.
142
What is clear ice?
Formed by larger supercooled water droplets, resulting in a transparent or translucent ice deposit
## Footnote
Difficult to detect and contains few air bubbles.
143
What is required for flight documentation?
Must cover the flight in respect of time, altitude, and geographical extent
## Footnote
Presentation may vary according to regional agreements.
144
What is the validity period for TAF?
Should not be less than 6 hours, no more than 30 hours.
145
What does METAR stand for?
Meteorological Aerodrome Report
## Footnote
Issued half hourly or hourly.
146
What does QNH represent?
Barometric pressure adjusted to sea level.
147
What does QFE indicate?
Station pressure adjusted for the difference in height between the barometer and the field elevation.
148
What is the purpose of SPECI?
Special weather report issued when there is a significant deterioration or improvement in airport weather conditions.
149
What is the principle of operation for VOR?
Phase comparison of two 30 Hz signals.
150
What is DME?
Distance measuring equipment that measures distance by timing the propagation delay of VHF or UHF radio signals.
151
What is the frequency range for MLS?
5.03 – 5.09 GHz (SHF)
## Footnote
MLS is an all-weather precision landing system.
152
Define the term 'great circle track'.
A line of shortest distance between two points on a sphere with constantly changing track direction.
153
What is the function of the FMS?
Organizes the database so pilots can insert navigation data between updates.
154
What is the range of the NDB?
3 * √P (W) over water; 2 * √P (W) over land.
155
What is the frequency range for VOR?
108 to 117.95 MHz.
156
What is the principle of operation for the phase comparison of two signals?
Phase comparison of two 30 Hz signals
## Footnote
This principle is essential for various navigation and communication systems.
157
What are the types of errors in navigation?
Equipment, Site and Propagation error
## Footnote
These errors can affect the accuracy of navigation systems.
158
What is the structure of the FMS database?
The FMS database can be only read by the pilots.
## Footnote
This allows pilots to insert navigation data between updates.
159
Define Inertial Navigation System (INS).
A navigation aid that uses a computer, motion sensors, and rotation sensors to calculate position, orientation, and velocity without external references.
160
What are the minimum horizontal visibility requirements for Category A during circle to land?
1,500 m
## Footnote
This is applicable when the aircraft speed is less than 91 knots.
161
What is the MDA for Category B during circle to land?
500 ft
## Footnote
This applies to aircraft speeds from 91 knots to 120 knots.
162
What is the minimum visibility requirement for a non-precision approach using VOR/DME?
250 ft
163
What does Low Visibility Operations (LVO) include?
Low Visibility Taxi, Low Visibility Take-off, ILS CAT 1, CAT 1LTS, CAT 2, CAT 2OTS and CAT 3 Landings in LVC.
164
What defines Low Visibility Conditions (LVC) for take-off?
RVR less than 400 m
## Footnote
This is critical for ensuring safety during take-off.
165
What is required for Category II operations below decision height?
Visual reference containing at least 3 consecutive lights must be attained and maintained.
166
True or False: A visual approach is permitted when RVR is less than 800 m.
False
167
What is the minimum fuel requirement for a turbojet aircraft landing on an isolated field?
Sufficient for flying 2 hours with normal cruising consumption.
168
At what altitude must quickly-fitted oxygen masks be available on pressurized aircraft?
Greater than 25,000 ft.
169
What is the required landing distance for jets compared to turboprops?
Jets must land in 60% and turboprops in 70% of the LDA.
170
What is the minimum number of oxygen masks required in a public transport aircraft at FL 390?
At least the same as the total number of seats exceeded by 10%.
171
What is the recency requirement for flight crew members?
3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days.
172
Define a contaminated runway.
A runway covered by more than 25% of its area with surface water, slush, compacted snow, or ice.
173
What defines a wet runway?
Covered with water or equivalent, less than specified for contaminated runway.
174
What happens during a landing approach with increasing headwind without pilot action?
Aircraft flies above the glide path with increasing true airspeed.
175
What is the maximum validity of a SNOWTAM?
24 hours.
176
What is the conversion factor for RVR during daytime with high-intensity lighting?
RVR = met VIS x 1.5.
177
What are the components of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
Inoperative instruments, equipment, or functions for flight operation under specified conditions.
178
What is the definition of Cost Index (CI)?
The ratio of fuel costs to all other costs.
179
What is the required minimum number of hand fire extinguishers for 61 to 200 passengers?
3 AND a crash axe or a crow-bar on the flight deck.
180
What is the minimum number of megaphones required for aircraft with 100 or more passengers?
2.
181
What is the requirement for life jackets on aircraft flying more than 50 nm from shore?
Mandatory for every passenger.
182
What is the effect of positive windshear (headwind) on IAS and lift?
IAS increases, LIFT increases.
183
What happens during negative windshear (tailwind)?
IAS decreases, LIFT decreases.
184
What is the definition of the coffin corner?
Altitude where stall speed equals critical Mach number.
185
What is the lift equation?
L = CL * ρ * V² / 2 * S.
186
What does CL represent in the lift equation?
Coefficient of lift associated with airfoil shape and angle of attack.
187
What is the function of a yaw damper?
Damps rolling and yawing oscillations due to Dutch roll.
188
Define Dutch roll.
A battle between lateral and directional stability of the aircraft.
189
What is the recovery technique for Dutch roll without yaw dampers?
Apply opposite aileron to the direction of the roll.
190
What is the recovery technique for a side slip?
Apply opposite aileron to the direction of the roll (yaw dampers U/S)
## Footnote
This technique helps stabilize the aircraft during a side slip situation.
191
What is the coffin corner in aviation?
The altitude where a fast fixed-wing aircraft's stall speed equals the critical Mach number
## Footnote
At this altitude, maintaining stable flight becomes nearly impossible.
192
What is the critical Mach number (Mcr)?
The aircraft Mach speed at which airflow over a wing becomes sonic
## Footnote
At this point, local airflow reaches the speed of sound, causing increased drag and potential control issues.
193
What may cause flutter in an aircraft?
Distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency
## Footnote
Flutter can lead to structural failure if not managed.
194
What are the types of loads an aircraft in flight is affected by?
* Compressive
* Tensile
* Shear
* Torsional
## Footnote
These loads affect the structural integrity and performance of the aircraft.
195
Define static stability.
The initial tendency of an airplane, when disturbed, to return to the original position
## Footnote
This is a crucial aspect of an aircraft's ability to maintain its flight path.
196
What is dynamic stability?
The overall tendency of an airplane to return to its original position following a series of damped oscillations
## Footnote
Dynamic stability is essential for smooth flight behavior.
197
What is longitudinal stability?
Pitch stability, or stability around the lateral axis of the airplane
## Footnote
Influenced by the size and position of the horizontal stabilizer and center of gravity.
198
What factors influence lateral stability?
* Wing dihedral
* Sweepback
* Keel effect
* Proper distribution of weight
## Footnote
These factors help maintain roll stability during flight.
199
What is directional stability?
Stability around the vertical or normal axis
## Footnote
Mainly affected by the vertical tail surface, fin, and rudder.
200
What determines directional static stability?
Fin volume
## Footnote
A larger fin volume generally improves directional stability.
201
What occurs when lateral stability is too great compared to directional stability?
Dutch roll
## Footnote
This condition can lead to oscillations that affect control of the aircraft.
202
What is a stall in aviation?
A reduction in the lift coefficient generated by a foil as angle of attack increases
## Footnote
Stalling occurs when the critical angle of attack is exceeded.
203
What is superstall?
A stable stall with almost a constant pitch attitude from which the aircraft is unable to recover
## Footnote
This condition poses significant safety risks.
204
How does stall speed change in a 60° banked turn?
Increases by the factor 1.41
## Footnote
Pilots must account for this increase during maneuvers.
205
What is the best rate of climb for a jet aircraft achieved?
When excess power available is at a maximum
## Footnote
This allows for the most efficient ascent.
206
What do vortex generators do?
Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer
## Footnote
This helps improve lift characteristics at various speeds.
207
What is Mach Buffet?
The separation of airflow from the flight surfaces due to exceeding the speed of sound
## Footnote
This can lead to buffeting and loss of control.
208
Define dihedral in aviation.
The upward inclination of a wing from the root to the tip
## Footnote
This design enhances lateral stability.
209
What is anhedral?
The downward inclination of a wing from the root to the tip
## Footnote
Anhedral wings typically reduce lateral stability.
210
What is aspect ratio?
The ratio of the wing span to its chord
## Footnote
A higher aspect ratio generally provides better lift characteristics.
211
What are the advantages of a swept wing?
* High Mach cruise speed
* Stability in turbulence
* Less air friction
* More lateral stability
## Footnote
These features make swept wings ideal for high-speed aircraft.
212
What are the disadvantages of a swept wing?
* Produces less lift compared to straight wing
* Higher stall speed
* Speed instability
* Wing tip stalling tendency
## Footnote
These drawbacks must be managed in aircraft design.
213
What is induced drag?
Drag caused by the generation of lift
## Footnote
Increased aspect ratio can help reduce induced drag.
214
How does ice on the leading edge of wings affect landing distance?
Increases landing distance by 30-40%
## Footnote
Ice accumulation can severely impact aircraft performance.
215
What are trailing edge flaps?
Flaps that increase lift at lower angles of deflection
## Footnote
Often used to enhance takeoff and landing performance.
216
What do leading edge slots do?
Prevent/delay the separation of the airflow boundary layer and increase the coefficient of lift maximum
## Footnote
These features improve low-speed handling qualities.
217
What is a service ceiling?
The height where the rate of climb drops below a prescribed value (100 feet per minute climb)
## Footnote
Useful for determining operational limits of an aircraft.
218
What is an absolute ceiling?
The height at which the rate of climb drops to zero
## Footnote
Also known as the coffin corner.
219
When was Wizz Air established?
September 2003
## Footnote
The airline has grown significantly since its inception.
220
What is the IATA code for Wizz Air?
W6
## Footnote
This code is used for ticketing and flight operations.
221
What is the fleet composition of Wizz Air?
* Airbus A320-232: 54 in fleet, 34 on order
* Airbus A321-231: 0 in fleet, 26 on order
## Footnote
The fleet is designed to maximize efficiency and passenger comfort.
222
What is the formula for drag force?
Fd = 1/2 * CD * ρ * v^2 * S
## Footnote
Where Fd is drag force, CD is the coefficient of drag, ρ is the fluid density, v is speed, and S is the reference area.
223
What is the effect of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing?
Improves low-speed characteristics
## Footnote
This design feature helps maintain lift at lower speeds.
224
What is the relationship between direct proportions?
Earnings = Constant * hours
## Footnote
More hours worked results in higher earnings.
225
What is the method for solving inverse proportions?
If 4 workers can paint a fence in 3 hours, 6 workers will take 2 hours
## Footnote
This demonstrates the inverse relationship between workers and time.
226
What is the sum of all angles in a triangle?
180 degrees
## Footnote
This is a fundamental property of triangles in Euclidean geometry.
227
What is the first step in rearranging the equation ax + b = c?
Isolate ax by subtracting b from both sides
## Footnote
The equation becomes ax = c - b.
228
What does the equation bx(c + 5) = f rearrange to?
bcx = f - 5b
## Footnote
This isolates the variable x.
229
List all prime numbers up to 100.
* 2
* 3
* 5
* 7
* 11
* 13
* 17
* 19
* 23
* 29
* 31
* 37
* 41
* 43
* 47
* 53
* 59
* 61
* 67
* 71
* 73
* 79
* 83
* 89
* 97
230
What four words best describe a candidate in an HR interview?
Honest, responsible, dedicated, organized
## Footnote
These traits are commonly valued by employers.
231
What is a common weakness mentioned in job interviews?
Expecting others to be as committed as I am
## Footnote
This reflects high standards but can lead to frustration.
232
What is a good way to respond to a salary expectation question?
Ask for the salary range for the position
## Footnote
This shows negotiation skills and flexibility.
233
What unique skills does the candidate mention having?
A combination of pilot and ATC skills
## Footnote
This provides a broader perspective on aviation operations.
234
Where does the candidate see themselves in 5 years?
Captain on A320 in your company
235
What are some of the candidate's biggest strengths?
* Problem solver
* Performing good under pressure
* Loyal
* Positive attitude
* Eager to learn
* Attention to detail
236
Why does the candidate want to work for Wizzair?
It is a great privilege to work in a reputed company
## Footnote
This reflects the candidate's respect for the airline.
237
What is CRM in aviation?
Crew Resource Management is the effective use of all available resources for flight crew personnel
## Footnote
It aims to ensure a safe and efficient operation.
238
What is one key procedure before departure in a simulator?
Check cockpit instruments like PFD and ND
## Footnote
This ensures that all systems are operational prior to takeoff.
239
What is the initial climb angle during a raw data takeoff?
15 degrees
240
What should be selected when reaching the thrust reduction altitude?
Pitch 10 degrees and select a climb speed of 250 knots
241
Fill in the blank: A/THR should never be engaged without first selecting a speed higher than ______.
actual
242
What should be activated after establishing the initial climb?
Autothrust
## Footnote
This helps maintain the selected thrust during the climb.
243
What is the purpose of managing NAV and SPEED in flight?
To ensure safe and efficient navigation and speed control
