Tehcnical Interview Flashcards
1
Q
What happens following a pressurization SYSTEM 1 fault?
A
Master caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew
System 2 must be selected by the crew or takes over automatically without crew action.
2
Q
How are the safety valves operated?
A
Pneumatically
They can also be operated electrically or hydraulically.
3
Q
What is sent when the “ditching” switch is selected ON?
A
A closure signal is sent to:
* The outflow valve and the pack flow control valves
* The ram air inlet and ventilation inlet and extract valves
* All answers are correct
4
Q
When should the RAM air switch be used?
A
Only when diff press is less than 1 psi
It should not be used when diff press is greater than 1 psi or only after outflow valve is fully opened.
5
Q
Where is the landing elevation sent from when set to AUTO?
A
FMGC
6
Q
Cabin pressurization starts at what point?
A
Engine start
7
Q
When does the pack flow control valve close automatically?
A
In case of:
* Pack overheat
* Engine fire push button released
* Engine start
* Ditching push button pressed
8
Q
What information is used in automatic control mode for cabin pressurization optimization?
A
FMGS cruise level, time to climb and static pressure information
9
Q
When will the RAM air inlet open when set to ON?
A
Provided delta P < 1 PSI and ditching not selected
10
Q
When using APU bleed to supply the packs, what is the pack air flow with the pack flow selector at LOW?
A
80 % of normal
11
Q
What does the outflow valve indicator change to when it is fully closed?
A
Amber
12
Q
In normal operation, how is pressurization controlled?
A
Fully automatic
13
Q
During ground operation, the outflow valve is positioned according to what?
A
FMGS demands
14
Q
The mixing unit is connected to which components?
A
Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground Connector
15
Q
What does the LOC P/B on the FCU do?
A
Arms the LOC mode for performing a published localizer approach
16
Q
What is the trim function of the FAC?
A
A pitch trim and a rudder trim
17
Q
In cruise, which components execute lateral A/P orders?
A
Ailerons and spoilers
18
Q
What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
A
A level 3 warning to the crew
19
Q
What are the basic modes of AP/FD?
A
V/S and HDG, ALT and NAV, SPD and HDG
20
Q
When is the active FPLN erased?
A
When the wheels touch the runway at landing
21
Q
When does the FAC compute rudder travel limit?
A
At any time
22
Q
How does ATHR reactivate after being disconnected?
A
As soon as thrust levers position is changed when A/THR p/b is pressed
23
Q
What are the flight guidance functions?
A
Autopilot, flight director, A/THR
24
Q
What is the normal FMGC operation?
A
FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in STBY
25
For ACFT position determination, what data does FMGC use?
3 ADIRS, DME, VOR, ILS, GPS
26
What happens when thrust levers are in climb detent?
ATHR disengages
27
When the A/P is engaged, who normally controls the rudder?
The FAC
28
What are the functions of the FMGC?
Flight management and flight guidance
29
What does the ”TOO STEEP PATH AHEAD” amber message on MCDU indicate?
The A/C is approaching a descent segment between two constraints waypoints that are impossible to fly with the planned descent speed and half speed brake extended.
30
To display localizer and glide slope indications on the PFD, what must be pressed?
Press the APPR p/b on the FCU.
31
How do you switch from speed to Mach on FCU?
Push the speed knob.
32
What does the FMA display in green and white?
Green displays an active mode and white displays an engaged system.
33
How can the pilot manually tune the VOR on RMP?
Press the NAV key and then press the VOR key.
34
What does the Flight Guidance part of the FMGS control?
Flight Director, Autopilot, Autothrust.
35
What happens to the AP function in case of both FM failure?
Is lost.
36
How is thrust reduction for landing performed during a manual ILS approach?
Is manually performed.
37
To leave SRS MODE during takeoff, what must be reached?
The acceleration altitude inserted in MCDU.
38
What does LVR ASYM on FMA mean?
Only one thrust lever is set to FLEX/MCT or CL detent.
39
What happens when the APPR p/b is pressed on FCU?
LOC and GS modes are armed when performing ILS.
40
What happens during descent in OPEN DES mode if an altitude higher than aircraft altitude is selected?
Vertical mode switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft).
41
What occurs if approach phase is activated and confirmed on PERF page in clean configuration?
Speed reduces to 250 kt.
42
What happens if RMP 2 fails?
VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled.
43
What is the function of the “RESET” push button on the ACP?
To cancel the previous selections.
44
Can you tune VOR 2 with RMP 1?
Yes.
45
What must be pressed to activate the voice recorder before engine start?
The “CVR TEST” p/b.
46
When is the cockpit voice recorder energized on GND?
As soon as ACFT electrical network is supplied but only for 5 minutes.
47
What is the main purpose of the RMP?
To select radio frequencies.
48
Can you transmit on VHF and the PA at the same time?
Yes by pressing RAD toggle switch and PA key.
49
Which AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by?
AC BUS 1.
50
Does external power have priority over the APU gen?
Yes.
51
What does the static inverter transform the DC current from battery 1 into?
Single phase 115V - 400 HZ ac current.
52
What happens in case of TR1 and TR2 failure?
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC BAT BUS are lost.
53
What happens in case of total loss of main generators?
The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the EMER GEN.
54
What does a fault light illuminate in red under the label on the EMER ELEC PWR panel mean?
Emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered.
55
Where can the battery voltage be checked in cold aircraft configuration?
On the ECAM ELEC page.
56
DC BAT BUS can be supplied by?
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or BATTERIES.
57
In case of EMER ELEC config, why is the ECAM asking you to press the BUS TIE p/b to “Off”?
To separate both sides of the electrical system.
58
When engine fire p/b is released out, which valve is affected?
LP FUEL SHUT OFF VALVE + HYD + BLEED + PACK + ELEC GEN.
59
What does the engine fire test p/b verify?
Both A and B are correct.
60
What happens when the APU fire p/b is released out?
APU generator is deactivated.
61
How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished?
From APU fire panel.
62
What happens when you perform an APU fire test with the APU running?
The test is inhibited when the APU is running.
63
In NORMAL LAW, when is the STALL WARNING activated?
When a MAX is reached.
64
What does the PITCH NORMAL LAW provide?
Load factor protection + pitch attitude protection + low speed stability.
65
What functions are carried out by the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS?
Maintaining a safe flight envelope.
66
What are the different laws in which the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS can operate?
Normal law, alternate law, direct law.
67
What happens if you hold the SIDESTICK deflected for too long at 45° bank?
The aircraft reduces the bank angle to 33°.
68
What do you command in the pitch channel when you deflect the SIDESTICK in normal flight?
Attitude.
69
What happens when you level off after climbing with climb power set without reducing power far enough?
The Over speed Warning activates. You must take corrective action.
70
In NORMAL LAW, when does the SIDESTICK command an ANGLE OF ATTACK demand?
When the ANGLE OF ATTACK protection activates.
71
What Slats/Flaps configuration is achieved by moving the Flaps lever from 0 to 1?
1 + F.
72
In NORMAL LAW, when does the SIDESTICK command an ANGLE OF ATTACK demand?
At bank angle > 33° or after the Stall Warning has activated or when the ANGLE OF ATTACK protection activates.
## Footnote
This pertains to the aircraft's flight control laws and their response to pilot inputs.
73
What Slats/Flaps configuration is achieved when moving the Flaps lever from 0 to 1?
1 (slats) or 1 + F or 0 (slats).
## Footnote
The specific configurations depend on the aircraft design and operational procedures.
74
When do Ground Spoilers deploy automatically after landing?
When ground condition is sensed and all thrust levers are in idle.
## Footnote
This is an automatic safety feature to assist in deceleration.
75
What happens when both pilots move their SIDESTICK in the same direction?
Both inputs are added, up to a maximum deflection.
## Footnote
This ensures cooperative control without exceeding limits.
76
How does the aircraft react when thrust is slowly reduced during manual level flight?
The aircraft maintains altitude, pitch increases and the stabilizer trims automatically to compensate.
## Footnote
This is a result of the aircraft's automatic systems working to maintain stability.
77
Can you override the HIGH SPEED PROTECTION by applying full forward SIDESTICK in Normal law?
Yes, pilot input always has priority.
## Footnote
This highlights the pilot's authority over automated protections.
78
What happens when the power is left in IDLE after leveling off?
The aircraft maintains altitude until reaching V PROT, then goes automatically into descent.
## Footnote
This is related to the aircraft's stall protection systems.
79
All flight controls are:
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated or electrically controlled with mechanical back up control and hydraulically actuated or electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated with mechanical reversion capability.
## Footnote
This describes the control systems used in modern aircraft.
80
What does pushing the 'RESET' button on the rudder trim control panel do?
Resets the rudder trim to zero degree.
## Footnote
This is a critical function for ensuring proper aircraft handling.
81
If the Green hydraulic system is inoperative, what happens?
The slats flaps are operating at half speed or the wing tip brakes are activated and the corresponding surfaces remain at previous position.
## Footnote
This indicates the redundancy built into hydraulic systems.
82
In flight with FLAP 2 configuration, how do you select FLAPS 3?
You must decrease speed below 'S' speed.
## Footnote
This is a specific operational requirement for changing flap configurations.
83
What component must be selected ON for a successful CVR test?
RMP # 1 or Cockpit speaker or Parking brake.
## Footnote
This relates to the operational checks required for the cockpit voice recorder.
84
What activates the complete Evacuation Alert System when the CAPT and PURS/CAPT switch is set to CAPT?
Selecting the Cockpit COMMAND pushbutton to on.
## Footnote
This is part of the emergency procedures for evacuation.
85
If RMP # 2 is set to tune a navaid, which FMGC(s) lose auto tuning capability?
Both FMGCs lose auto tuning capability.
## Footnote
This is important for navigation management in flight.
86
Which position of the INT/RAD switch creates a 'hot mike' for interphone communications?
INT.
## Footnote
This setting is used for specific communication scenarios in the cockpit.
87
In the event of a failed ACP, how can the pilot continue to make ACP selections?
The failed ACP can be replaced by ACP 3 using the AUDIO SWITCHING selector.
## Footnote
This provides redundancy in communication systems.
88
An emergency call from the cabin results in the flashing of what ACP legend?
CALL.
## Footnote
This is part of the communication alert system in the cockpit.
89
How quickly can a fast alignment occur by selecting the rotary MODE selector from NAV to OFF and back to NAV?
Within ten seconds.
## Footnote
This is a critical procedure for aligning navigation systems.
90
ADIRU # 2 normally supplies ADR and IR information for which displays?
Captain’s PFD and First officer’s ND.
## Footnote
This pertains to the aircraft's flight data management.
91
At the gate, if the ADIRUs are powered by the aircraft batteries, what occurs?
The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminates or ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated.
## Footnote
This indicates the operational status of the ADIRU systems.
92
Which exterior lights automatically extinguish with the landing gear retracted?
Landing lights.
## Footnote
This is part of the aircraft's landing gear and light management systems.
93
When illuminated, the overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs are powered by which power source?
Internal batteries.
## Footnote
This is crucial for emergency situations.
94
If Cabin Pressure Controller 1 fails, what occurs automatically?
Cabin Pressure Controller 2 activates.
## Footnote
This is part of the redundancy in cabin pressure management.
95
What does the active Cabin Pressure Controller receive destination field elevation from if the LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position?
FMS.
## Footnote
This is important for maintaining proper cabin altitude.
96
What is true regarding automatic pressurization when a return to the departure airport is required immediately after takeoff?
The active pressure controller automatically returns the cabin altitude to departure field elevation.
## Footnote
This is critical for passenger safety.
97
During descent, how is the cabin pressure rate controlled?
The cabin is slightly pressurized at landing.
## Footnote
This is a part of the operational procedures for landing.
98
The forward cargo ventilation system includes two isolation valves that:
Close automatically if smoke is detected.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature for cargo management.
99
Which statement best describes the use of engine bleed air?
The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is insufficient to meet system demand.
## Footnote
This is vital for understanding bleed air management.
100
In the AUTO position, what will the XBLEED (crossbleed) valve do?
Open when the APU bleed valve opens.
## Footnote
This relates to the management of bleed air systems.
101
What happens if the engines and APU are running with the APU bleed valve open?
Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air.
## Footnote
This is a critical procedure for managing bleed air priorities.
102
What type of bleed leak detection is contained in the wings?
Dual loop.
## Footnote
This indicates the safety and redundancy in the system.
103
What is the priority order for normal electrical power from highest to lowest?
GEN(engine), APU GEN, EXT PWR.
## Footnote
This is important for understanding power management in the aircraft.
104
What is the minimum voltage for a successful battery check during Preliminary Cockpit Preparation?
Greater than or equal to 25.5 volts.
## Footnote
This is part of the preflight checks to ensure battery reliability.
105
Which statement is true regarding circuit breakers monitored by the ECAM?
Black circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM.
## Footnote
This is important for understanding the aircraft's electrical system.
106
Which statement regarding the emergency electrical configuration is true?
The RAT automatically extends and the emergency generator connects if AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are unpowered in flight.
## Footnote
This is critical for emergency power management.
107
What cockpit lighting is available during the emergency electrical configuration?
F/O’s dome light and the standby compass light.
## Footnote
This ensures visibility for pilots during emergencies.
108
Each aircraft generator (engine and APU) can supply up to how much power?
90 KVA while the emergency generator supplies 15 KVA.
## Footnote
This details the power supply capabilities in the aircraft.
109
What action is required by the crew when the AUTO FEED FAULT message is displayed during refueling?
No maintenance action is required since refueling is in process.
## Footnote
This indicates the process is operationally normal despite the fault message.
110
If the outer tank fuel transfer valves open in flight, they are commanded closed:
Automatically in flight when all outer tank fuel has transferred.
## Footnote
This is related to fuel management systems.
111
When do the fuel used (F USED) indications on the FUEL page automatically reset to zero?
After landing.
## Footnote
This is part of the fuel management system.
112
If the BLUE electric pump malfunctions and the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is selected OFF:
The Blue system shuts down (unpressurized).
## Footnote
This indicates the consequences of a pump failure.
113
If a GREEN ENG 1 PUMP failure occurs:
The PTU transfers YELLOW system fluid to operate the GREEN system.
## Footnote
This is part of the hydraulic system's redundancy.
114
Which of the following best describes the YELLOW hydraulic system after pushing the ENG 2 FIRE pb?
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU transfers GREEN system fluid to operate the YELLOW system.
## Footnote
This is critical for understanding emergency hydraulic operations.
115
Which hydraulic system provides pressure for braking under normal conditions?
YELLOW.
## Footnote
This indicates the system used for braking functionality.
116
When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO?
Automatically, after both engines are started.
## Footnote
This is part of the hydraulic system operations.
117
In the event of an engine fire, when do the ENG FIRE pb and ENG panel FIRE light illuminate red until?
The respective ENG MASTER switch is selected OFF.
## Footnote
This is part of the emergency procedures for engine fire management.
118
If an engine fire detection loop fails, what happens?
Fire detection for that engine is unavailable.
## Footnote
This highlights the importance of redundancy in fire detection systems.
119
What happens if an ENG FIRE pb is pushed?
AGENT 1 and AGENT 2 are armed.
## Footnote
This is part of the fire suppression system's operation.
120
Can the APU fire test be accomplished on battery power only?
No, external power is required to accomplish the APU fire test.
## Footnote
This ensures proper testing conditions for the safety systems.
121
What does the red disk on the outside of the fuselage adjacent to the APU compartment indicate?
The APU fire bottle has discharged due to over pressure.
## Footnote
This is a visual indicator of fire suppression system status.
122
With reference to the cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?
There is one fire bottle that can be discharged into one compartment only and both DISC lights illuminate when either FWD or AFT pb is pushed.
## Footnote
This relates to the fire suppression systems in the aircraft.
123
Which of the following is true concerning FADEC?
Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic starts.
## Footnote
This is crucial for engine management and safety.
124
What should you expect from the red SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel after discharging the fire bottle?
To remain illuminated even if the source of the smoke is extinguished after discharging the fire bottle
## Footnote
This indicates that the smoke detection system is still active.
125
Which of the following is true concerning FADEC?
Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic and manual engine starts
## Footnote
FADEC stands for Full Authority Digital Engine Control.
126
During an automatic start in-flight, what does FADEC provide?
Abnormal start indications, Abort authority, N1 and N2 limits protection
## Footnote
FADEC is designed to enhance engine safety during start operations.
127
If performing a manual engine start, when does ignition and fuel flow occur?
Ignition and fuel flow occur when the respective ENG MASTER switch is selected ON
## Footnote
This is critical for manual engine start procedures.
128
What activates continuous ignition in the event of an engine flame-out?
Selecting the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START
## Footnote
Continuous ignition helps prevent further flame-outs.
129
If the ENG MODE selector is moved to the CRANK position, what happens?
The engine will motor when the overhead ENG MAN START pb is selected ON
## Footnote
Fuel and ignition are inhibited during this mode.
130
Is it normal for only igniter B to be powered during an automatic start of engine 1?
Yes. FADEC alternates igniters for automatic engine starts
## Footnote
This ensures even wear and reliable ignition.
131
What limitation does FADEC enforce during engine operation?
FADEC will always prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits and EGT limits
## Footnote
This is crucial for engine safety and longevity.
132
Can the pilot deploy the thrust reverser blocker doors and translating sleeve from the cockpit with an engine shut down?
No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an inoperative engine from the cockpit
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent accidental deployment.
133
What is required to start the APU?
APU MASTER and START switches to ON
## Footnote
Other conditions like battery selection may also be necessary.
134
APU bleed air may be used for all of the following except?
Wing ant-ice
## Footnote
APU bleed air is typically used for engine starting and pack operation.
135
What indicates that the EXT PWR pb indicates AVAIL and the APU START pb indicates AVAIL?
External power is powering the aircraft
## Footnote
This means the aircraft is not solely reliant on battery power.
136
Which emergency lights are controlled by the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel?
Escape slide lights, Cabin emergency lights
## Footnote
This is part of the emergency safety protocols.
137
When do the cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?
When the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
## Footnote
This is a critical safety feature for high-altitude emergencies.
138
In normal law, can the aircraft exceed the maximum 'G Load' with rapid sidestick commands?
No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid excessive 'G loads'
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to protect the aircraft structure.
139
What is the maximum bank angle obtainable with the sidestick fully deflected in normal law?
67 degrees
## Footnote
This allows for controlled maneuverability without exceeding limits.
140
What happens if the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank?
Positive spiral stability returns the bank angle to 25 degrees
## Footnote
This feature helps maintain stable flight characteristics.
141
Which statement is NOT true about rudder control?
Mechanical control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power
## Footnote
Rudder operation typically relies on hydraulic systems.
142
What is the only protection available in alternate law?
Angle of Attack
## Footnote
Other protections are disabled in alternate law.
143
What happens if flaps FULL is selected with the speedbrakes extended?
The flaps will not extend until the speedbrakes are fully retracted
## Footnote
This prevents aerodynamic issues during landing configurations.
144
The Alpha Lock feature of the Slat and Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) prevents?
The extension of flaps at a speed greater than the maximum flap extension speed
## Footnote
This is to avoid structural damage to the aircraft.
145
Engine anti-ice is applied to what component of the engine?
The nacelle leading edges
## Footnote
This is critical for preventing ice buildup on engine components.
146
If electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve fails, what happens?
Closes
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent unintended operation.
147
Is probe/window heat available prior to engine start?
Yes. The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb on the ANT ICE panel must be selected to ON
## Footnote
Proper operation ensures visibility for pilots.
148
What is the airspeed limit for operation of the windscreen wipers?
230 knots
## Footnote
Exceeding this limit can damage the wiper system.
149
The wing anti-ice system provides?
Anti-icing capability for all leading edge devices of each wing
## Footnote
This helps maintain aerodynamic efficiency.
150
Which hydraulic system does the Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU) use?
GREEN
## Footnote
This system is critical for landing gear operation.
151
When does the alternate braking system become operational?
The failure of the green hydraulic system
## Footnote
This ensures continued braking capability.
152
Which is NOT a basic mode of GPWS?
Deviation above the glideslope
## Footnote
GPWS focuses on descent and terrain closure rates.
153
During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel
## Footnote
This initiates the manual start process.
154
What does the message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD indicate?
Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank
## Footnote
This helps manage fuel distribution during flight.
155
On board the Wizz Air A-320 aircraft, how many identical ADIRUs and GPS receivers are there?
3,2
## Footnote
This redundancy enhances navigational reliability.
156
The APU may be started up to what altitude?
The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries
## Footnote
This allows for flexibility in operations.
157
What does pushing the APPR push button do?
Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localiser and glide slope
## Footnote
This is essential for precision approaches.
158
What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?
It operates normally on HOT BAT bus
## Footnote
Emergency systems maintain functionality during power loss.
159
If the lower ECAM DU fails, how can that information be retrieved?
By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel
## Footnote
This allows for redundancy in system monitoring.
160
What does illumination of the white SLIDE ARMED light represent on the main cabin door?
This indicates that the slide is armed and will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft
## Footnote
This is important for passenger safety during emergencies.
161
After a single MC failure, how can a crew member recover the display units?
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3
## Footnote
This is a procedure for recovering lost information.
162
The amber ON BAT light illuminates on the ADIS panel when?
Both other answers are correct
## Footnote
Indicating battery supply and alignment status.
163
The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?
All modes except Plan
## Footnote
This is important for situational awareness.
164
What happens when the door arming lever is in the ARMED position and the door is opened from the outside?
Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide
## Footnote
This is a critical safety feature.
165
Which statement best describes the function of the safety valves?
They prevent excessive positive or negative differential pressure
## Footnote
This helps maintain cabin integrity.
166
In manual mode, who drives the outflow valve full open during landing?
The pilot using the MAN VIS CTL switch
## Footnote
This allows for manual control over cabin pressure.
167
Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?
20 minutes
## Footnote
This is designed to provide adequate time for descent to safer altitudes.
168
How can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?
HORN SHUT OFF
## Footnote
This is part of the emergency procedures.
169
From which tanks will fuel gravity feed?
Outer cell of the wing tanks, inner cell of the wing tanks, and/or center tank
## Footnote
This is important for fuel management during flight.
170
After a dual engine generator's failure, what is available?
FMGC 1 only is available (nav function only)
## Footnote
This limits navigation capabilities during emergencies.
171
What happens when standby nav has been selected using nav key?
VHF is still available but only the last frequency selected can be used
## Footnote
This impacts communication options.
