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winter exam Flashcards

1
Q

what are the layers of the eye?

A

fibrous, vascular, and inner layer.
fib- 2 regions called sclera (white of eye) and cornea (clear, allows light to enter eye)
vas- consists of, choroid that nourishes eye, ciliary body, and iris
inn-retina, optic disc, macula lutea and fovea centralis

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2
Q

what is the lens?

A

helps you focus on things

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3
Q

what are the humours of the eye?

A

fluid that maintains eye shape.
anterior cav- located between pupil and cornea, filled with aqeous humour that supplies nutrience and oxygen to lens and cornea as well as carries away waste.
posterior cav- keeps eye round, filled with viterous humour that transmits light, supports lens, holds retina, and maintains pressure

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4
Q

what are rods?

A

-sensitive to light, best suited for night vision
-cant resolve colour or sharp images
-they are peripheral vision
-have more rods than cones

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5
Q

what are cones?

A

-best for bright light and provide high resolution colour vis
-humans have 3 kinds, blue, red, and green
-each cone is individually connected to optic nerve so image is sharper

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6
Q

what is cataracts?

A

clouding of the lens.
causes dim or blurry vision, faded colours, and trouble seeing at night or w bright lights

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7
Q

what is glaucoma?

A

condition where the drainage of aqueous humour is blocked causing fluid to build up and increase pressure in the eye.
can lead to blindness.

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8
Q

where does light first enter the eye?

A

the cornea

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9
Q

what is the retina?

A

contains photoreceptors, rods, cones, bipolar cells, and ganglion. has nerves to detect light.

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10
Q

how is light focused in distant vision?

A

cil musc are relaxed as suspensory ligs are stretched causes lens to be flat

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11
Q

how is light focused in close vision?

A

lens thickens, pupil constricts, eyeball convergence. sus ligs are loose and cil musc is contracted

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12
Q

what is an astigmatism? what causes this?

A

uneven curvature of the cornea or lens that produces blurred images

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13
Q

what is nearsightedness? what causes this? what is another name for it?

A

aka myopia, objects focus infront of the retina, can see close objects but far ones are blurred.
eyeball is too long

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14
Q

what is farsightedness? what causes this? what is another name for it?

A

aka hyperopia, objects focus behind retina resulting in seeing distant object but close ones are blurred.
eyeball is too short

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15
Q

how is light converted to a neural signal?

A

rods and cones convert light energy into nerve signals that travel through the optic nerve to the brain

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16
Q

what is light adaptation?

A

occurs when we move from darkness to the light

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17
Q

what is dark adaptation?

A

occurs when we go from a bright area to a dark one

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18
Q

what are the steps in visual processing?

A

primary visual cortex maps retinal info onto occipital lobe, which then is divided into two streams, either ventral stream (go to temporal lobe for memory and emotion) or the dorsal stream (go to occipital or parietal lobes to let you interact with what youre seeing)

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19
Q

what is the pathway to the visual cortex?

A

retinal ganglion cells merge at back of eyeball to become the optic nerve that crosses at optic chiasma to become optic tracts connected to the thalamus, then optic radiations project to the primary vis cortex in occipital lobes

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20
Q

what are the special senses?

A

vision, smell, taste, hearing, and equilibrium.

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21
Q

what are accessory structures of the eye?

A

eyebrows, eyelids, conjunctiva, lacrimal apparatus and extrinsic eye muscles and the eyeball.
all help to make the eye function better and are all located outside of the eye.

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22
Q

what is the conjuctiva?

A

transparent membrane that produces lubricating mucus to prevent the eye from drying out.
covers the whites and has blood vessels

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23
Q

what is the Lacrimal apparatus?

A

consists of the lacrimal gland, which secretes tears
has glands to drain the fluid to the nose

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24
Q

iris

A

controls how much light gets thru and gives you eye colour

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25
Q

cilliary body

A

smooth musc that controls how thick or thin the lens is in order to focus on things, controls shape and how much light is ket in.
cil musc pulls on sensory ligaments to change shape

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26
Q

what is the blind spot?

A

optic disc, allows vessels to get to brain

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27
Q

what gives you the best colour vision

A

fovea centralis

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28
Q

what is the pathway of light?

A

cornea- aqueous humour- lens- vit humours- neutral layer of retina- photoreceptors.

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29
Q

how many cranial nerves does the tongue have? the nose?

A

tongue has 3, nose has 1

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30
Q

what type of receptors are taste and smell ones?

A

chemoreceptors

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31
Q

what is the olfactory epithelium? olfactory sensory neuron?

A

epi- the organ of smell in the roof of nasal cav.
sens- bipolar neurons with apical dendrites that have olfactory cilia covered in mucous that is the solvent for odorants

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32
Q

what is anosmia

A

temp or permanent loss of smell

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33
Q

what are mitral cells

A

second order neurons that carry signal from olfacotry bulb to your brain to report what youre smelling

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34
Q

what is olfactory transduction?

A

an odorant binds to receptor, G protein, and the secondary messengery of AMP which depolarizes the cell and allows for action pot

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35
Q

what are taste buds?

A

sensory receptor organs for taste located within the papillae of the tongue.

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36
Q

what are the bumps on your tongue for?

A

not taste buds, allow for you to hang onto or move food

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37
Q

what are gustatory epithelial cells?

A

taste receptor cells tat have microvili called gustatory hairs. the dendrites located around these cells are what sends taste signals to your brain. they are replaced by basal epithelial cells every 7-10 days

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38
Q

how can a chemical be tasted?

A

must be dissolved in saliva, move into taste pore, and contact a receptor or ion channel on the surface f the gustatory cell. the gustatory cel is then able to release neurotrans to dendrites which then sends action pot along one of the 3 cranial nerves.

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39
Q

what are the 5 basic tastes?

A

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami

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40
Q

what is the function of the outer ear?

A

sends direct sound waves to auditory canal.
structures apart of this: the external visable part and ear drum.

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41
Q

what is the function of the middle ear?

A

auditory ossicles (3 tiny bones, malleus, incus, and stapes) that vibrate because of the ear drum. they send vibrations to oval window. auditory tube is also included

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42
Q

what is apart of the inner ear?

A

cochlea, semicanals, and vesibule

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43
Q

what is the sound conduction pathway?

A
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44
Q

what is sound transduction?

A

when trapped sterocilia of hair cells are deflected by local movement of basilar mem. physical vibrations that are turned into electrical signals that we can understand. this happens in the cochlea and the hair cells within.

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45
Q

what is the tympanic?

A

ear drum

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46
Q

what is the cochlea?what are the 3 bony parts?

A

converts vibrations to sounds we understand. contains cochlear duct and basilar mem which is the floor of it and important for sound reception.
the bony part is divided in to three layers; scala vestibuli (intake of vibrations), scala media (lets out vibrations), and scala tympanic.

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47
Q

what is the order sound enters ear?

A

external canal, ear drum, 3 bones, oval window, canal of fluid, and cochlea.

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48
Q

what fluid is in the bony labryrinth? membranous lab?

A

perilymph, endolymph

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49
Q

what is amplitute? frequency?

A

amp- height or size of waves and their intensity.
fre- number of waves that pass at a given point

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50
Q

what is the pathway of impulses from cochlea to auditory cortex?

A

spiral ganglion -> cochlea -> pons medulla -> tract -> thalamas -> PAC

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51
Q

what is pitch and loudness?

A

pitch- (frequency) perceived by hair cells in different positions along basilar mem.
loudness- (volume) perceived by vibrations in fluids of cochlea that produce larger graded potentials that generate more frequent action potentials.

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52
Q

how do we detect source of sound?

A

depends on relative intensity and timing sound waves reach both ears.

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53
Q

how do semicircular canals maintain equalibrium?

A

each canal contains a semicircular duct that has an ampulla on one end which contains an equalibrium detector called crista ampullaris. crista ampullaris detects angular or rotational acceleration.

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54
Q

how do vestibules maintain equalibrium?

A

vestibule is a central cav of the bony labyrinth that contains two membranous sac that house an equilibrium receptor called maculae.
the saccule is near the cochlea and utricle is near the semicircular canals. they monitor the position of the head in space and linear acceleration (moving straight)

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55
Q

what are inner hair cells?

A

sensory, in basilar mem, sends signals along cochlear branch of vestivulocochlear nerve

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56
Q

what are outer hair cells?

A

effector, receives signals from brain and alter the tension which improves hearing sensitivity. they also help distinguish between similar sound frequencies.

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57
Q

list the 3 functions of blood

A

transport, regulatory, and protective

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58
Q

what does blood transport?

A

oxygen, nutrience, metabolic waste, and hormoes.

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59
Q

what does blood regulate?

A

body temp, pH, and fluid balance.

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60
Q

what does blood protect against?

A

blood loss and infections

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61
Q

why is blood a CT?

A

it has cells, fibres, and ground subtsnce.
cells- red and white BC and platlets.
fibres- dissolved in plasma.
GS- plasma

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62
Q

what is the composition of blood?

A

3 layers.
blood plasma and dissolved element.
buffy coat- white BV and platelets.
erythrocytes- RBC

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63
Q

what is the composition of plasma?

A

90% water, solutes including nutrience, gases, hormones, wastes, products of cell activ, ions, and proteins

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64
Q

what are the characteristics of blood?

A

-slightly basic (7.4 or 7.5 pH)
-denser than water
-5-6 liters in male, 4-5 liters in female.

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65
Q

what is the function of RBC

A

carries oxygen using hemoglobin, releases O in tissues when needed, and picks up O by lungs

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66
Q

what is the structure of RBC?

A

-lack nucleus and most organelles
-bioncave in shape
-contain mostly hemoglobin
-makes ATP thru glycolysis (breaks dwon blood sugar)

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67
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

protein consisting of 4 polypeptide chains, globin proteins each in a ring like heme. each heme contains an iron atom that allows O to bind.

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68
Q

what is hematopoiesis?

A

occurs in red bone marrow, the production of BCs. makes either myeloid stem cells (cell can turn into any type of BC) or lymphoid stem cells ( makes WBC)

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69
Q

how are erythrocytes formed?

A

through erythropoiesis.
when a hematopoietic stem cell is thransformed to a proerthroblast. after it has accumulated enough hemoglobin it ejects most organelles, assumes biconcave shape and makes room for hemoglobin. this makes a RBC

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70
Q

how long does it take to make new RBC

A

15 days

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71
Q

what is erythroprotein?

A

regulates how much RBC are being made and is produced in kidneys.

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72
Q

anemia

A

a condition that develops when your blood produces a lower-than-normal amount of healthy red blood cells.
causes blood loss, iron deficiency, low EPO, low vit B12, or destruction of red bone marrow

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72
Q

polycythemia

A

excess of RBC due to oxygen deficency or disease.
increases blood viscosity causing poor blood flow and oxygen delivery and can lead to blood clots.

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73
Q

what is blood doping?

A

artificially inducing polycythemia for an advantage in athletics.

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74
Q

what is diapedesis

A

when WBC leave the blood to enter the tissues

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75
Q

what are granulocytes? what cells are included?

A

major group of WBC, large cells with visible granules and are phagocytic.
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

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76
Q

what are agranulocytes? what cells are included?

A

lack visible granules
lymphocytes and monocytes

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77
Q

neutrophils

A

fights pathogenic micro-organisms, bacterial infections, and foreign matter

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78
Q

eosinophils

A

respond to allergies and attack parasites

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79
Q

basophils

A

involved in allergic reactions and release histamine to promote inflammation

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80
Q

lymphocytes

A

produce antibodies for immune response.
T - attack infected cells
B- bind antigens and produce antibodies
NK- innate immune response

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81
Q

monocytes

A

phagocytic macrophages that absorb particles and activate lymphocytes

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82
Q

what is leukopoiesis

A

formation of WBC in 2 ways;
lymphoid- stem cells dev into lymphocytes
myeloid- stem cells dev into all other WBC, platelets and RBC

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83
Q

Leukopenia

A

abnormally low WBC count

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84
Q

leukemias

A

cancer

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85
Q

what are plateletes

A

fragments of bone marrow called megakaryocytes.
helps w blood clotting and forming temp seals when blood vessel breaks

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86
Q

what hormone regulates platelets?

A

thrombopoietin

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87
Q

what is hemostasis? what are the 3 steps?

A

the process of preventing blood loss.
1 vascular spasm
2 platelet plug formation
3 coagulation

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88
Q

explain vascular spasms

A

the narrowing of the arteries caused by a persistent contraction of the blood vessels, which is known as vasoconstriction.
temp mechinism to reduce blood flow bc slower blood is easier to clot.

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89
Q

explain platelet plug formation

A

when endothelium is damaged platelets stick to exposed collagen fibres to form a platelet plug.

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90
Q

explain coagulation

A

aka blood clotting, process wher blood is transformed form liquid to fibrin

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91
Q

what factors limit clot formation

A

-rapid moving blood
-clotting factors inhibited by other compounds in blood

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92
Q

what are thromboembolic disorders?

A

result from conditions that cause unwanted clotting
thrombus- clot forms in unbroken vessel and blocks blood flow. if thrombus breaks away its called embolus

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93
Q

Impaired liver function

A

can result in insufficient synth of clotting facotrs

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94
Q

hemophilia

A

genetic condition that results in deficiency of clotting factors

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95
Q

Explain the diagnostic importance of blood testing

A

it can signal diseases like anemia, heart disease, diabetes and infection.

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96
Q

what are antigens

A

substances that trigger the body’s adaptive immune response

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97
Q

what are antibodies

A

proteins produced by lymphocytes that target specific antigens.

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98
Q

explain ABO blood groups

A

based on the presence or absence of type a and type b.

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99
Q

what antigens in ab blood

A

has both antigens

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100
Q

what antigens in o blood

A

has no antigens

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101
Q

explain what is Rh

A

a groups of RBC antigens that are either present or not in blood. ppl w D antigen are blood type + and ppl w/o it are -.

102
Q

what is a transfusion reaction?

A

when the donars antigens are attacked by recipients antibodies resulting in aggulation of donor cells

103
Q

where is the heart located? whats its size?

A

mediastinum, between lungs.
size of a fist

104
Q

what side of the heart receives oxygen poor blood? whats the circuit?

A

right,
rfecives from body tissues and then pumps to lungs
pulmanary circuit

105
Q

what side of the heart receives oxygenated blood? whats the circuit?

A

left
gets blood from lungs and pumps to body (system circuit)

106
Q

what are the layers of the heart starting superficially?

A

fibrous pericardium, serous pericardium consisting of firsrt a parietal layer, pericardial cavity, then the viseral layer.

107
Q

what doe fibrous pericardium do? serous pericardium?

A

fib- anchors and protects heart and resists against overfilling.
ser- has serous fluid to prevent frictions and lubricate movmemnt

108
Q

what are coronary vessels

A

supply nutrient to heart itself

109
Q

what is myocardium? endocardium?

A

myo- musc layer in heart that supports heart .
end- lines chambers of the heart

110
Q

what 3 veins enter R atrium?

A

superior vena cava- collect blood from everything above heart
inferior- collect blood from everything below heart.
and coronary sinus- returns blood from myocardium

111
Q

where do the ventricles pump blood?

A

R- pulmonary trunk to take blood to lungs
L- aorta to carry blood throughout body

112
Q

why is L ventricle thicker?

A

is it can generate at a higher pressure and overcome greater resistance

113
Q

what are AV valves

A

tricuspid and bicuspid valves, and mitral valve in the left.
forces blood upward against the flaps pushing them closed
seperate artia and ventricles

114
Q

what are semilunar valves

A

located at the base of artieres to prevent back flow of blood into ventricles.
seperate ventricles from arteries

115
Q

what happens to semilunar valves when ventricles are contracted?

A

When ventricular pressure rises above aortic and pulmonary pressure, the semilunar valves are forced open allowing blood to be ejected from the heart.

116
Q

what happens to semilunar valves when ventricles are relaxed?

A

When the ventricles relax, blood flows backward toward the heart, filling the cusps of the semilunar valves, forcing them closed

117
Q

what is a myocarfial infraction

A

heart attack, blockage of blood flow to the coronary vessels

118
Q

what is the pathway of blood?

A

body - inferior vena - super vena - R atrium - tri valve - R ventricle - pulmonary semilunar valve - pulmonary trunk - lungs - 4 main pulmonary veins - L atrium - bicuspid valve - L ventricle - aortic semi valve - aorta - body

119
Q

what is the structure of cardiac musc?

A

musc cells are striated, short, and branched. they have one central nucleus. they have intercalated discs

120
Q

what do intercalated discs do in cardiac musc

A

makes desmosomes for strength and gap junctions for ions to flow between cells to allow the heart to beat as a coordinated unit.

121
Q

what connects cardiac musc to cardiac skeleton?

A

lose CT inn myocardiums matrix

122
Q

how is cardiac musc different than skeletal?

A

cardiac musc cells have many large mitochondria, myofibrils arranged in sarcomeres, but less sarco reticulum.

123
Q

why is cardiac cells refractory period longer than skel musc?

A

to prevent tetanic contractions.
heart needs time to relax and refill

124
Q

how many av beats per min in heart?

A

75 bpm

125
Q

what does the intrinsic conduction sys set?

A

basic rythum of heart

126
Q

what does the extrinsic innervation of the heart do?

A

modifies the basic rythum

127
Q

what makes heart beat

A

gap junctions, conduct impulses and intrinsic conduction sys

128
Q

explain the role of the intrinsic con sys

A

determinds the pace of the heartbeat pacemakers have an unstable resting potential and produce pacemaker potentials that continusly depolarize in initiating action pots that are cinducted thru the heart.

129
Q

what is the order of the intrinsic conduction sequence?

A

impulses pass thru pacemakers in the folloeing order:
-SA node (sinoatrial) that triggers musc contraction in L and R atriums.
-AV node (atrioventricular) slightly delays firing in order to follow atria to finish contracting before ventricles go
-bundle of his (AV bundle) conducts impulses into the ventricles from the AV node.
- R and L bundle branches, conduct impulses down the interventricular septum.
-purkinje fibres, penetrates throughout the ventricular walls, distributing impulses through the ventricles.

130
Q

what does sympathetic and parasympathetic nerv sys to do HR

A

sym- increases
par- decreases

131
Q

what are arrhythmias

A

irreg heart beats

132
Q

what is fibrillation

A

musc spasms
treatment is defibrillation which resets heart

133
Q

how are actions potentials generated in the heart?

A

voltage gated Na channels allow Na to enter resulting in. depolarization.
this opens slow Ca channels that allow Ca to enter as K exits causing action potentials to delay repolarization (plateau phase).
Ca channels are then inactivated, K channels open and the cell repolarizes back to resting mem pot

134
Q

what is a P wave? QRS complex? T wave?

A

p- atrial depolarization
qrs- ventricular depolarization
t- ventricular repolarization

135
Q

what is the contractile phase of the cardiac cycle? what is the relaxtion phase?

A

systole and diastole

136
Q

what are the first 6 events in cardiac cycle and what phase are they

A

1 atrial contraction (atrial systole)
2 isovolumetric contraction and ventricular election (ventricular sys)
3 isovolumetric relaxtion and ventricular filling (relaxation period)
4 atrial contraction (atrial sys)

137
Q

what happens in ventricular systole

A

The atria relax and the ventricles contract
includes isovolumetric contraction (atrioventricular vals shut) and ventricular ejection (all 4 valves shut)

138
Q

what is the end systolic volume

A

volume remaining i each ventricle after systole

139
Q

what is Isovolumetric relaxation

A

occurs in early diastole resulting in a drop in ventricular pressure, which then causes closure of the semilunar valves and the opening of the atrioventricular valves.

140
Q

what does the normal heart sound mean (lub dub)?

A

lub- the closing of atrioventricular valves in ventricular systole.
dub- closing of aortic and pulmonary valves during ventricular diastole.

141
Q

what are heart murmurs

A

heart sounds due to the backflow of blood thru a valve that does not fully close (incompetent) or does not fully open (stenotic)

142
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during one cardiac cycle.
the volume of blood between end diastolic and end systolic volumes.

143
Q

what is congestive heart faliure?

A

occurs when the pumping efficiency of the heart is so low that blood circulation cannot meet tissue needs

144
Q

what is pulmonary congestion

A

occurs when the left side of the heart fails but the right side continues to pump blood to the lungs. Blood is not taken back into the left side of the heart and accumulates in the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema and can lead to suffocation

145
Q

what do arteries, veins, and capillaries do?

A

a- carry blood away from heart
v- carry blood towards heart
c- does direct gas exchange

146
Q

what are the layers of blood vessels starting deepest

A

tunica interna (endothelium), tunica media(smooth musc and elastin),
and tunica externa (loose collagen fibres).
in large arts theres also elastica interna and externa

147
Q

what is the function of tunica media?

A

controls vasoconstriction and vasodilation of the vessel.

147
Q

what is the function of tunica interna

A

reduces friction between the vessel walls and blood.

148
Q

what is the function of tunica externa?

A

protects, reinforces, and anchors the vessel to surrounding structures.

149
Q

what are the 3 types of arteries

A

elastic, muscular, and arterioles

150
Q

elastic arteries

A

nearest to the heart
have lots of elastin to withstand pressure changes of cardiac cycle

151
Q

muscular arteries

A

deliver blood to specific body parts and have lots of tunica media bc they more active in vasoconstriction

152
Q

arterioles

A

smallest, regulate blood flow into capillary beds thru vasoconstriction and vasodilation

153
Q

continuous capillaies

A

most common, allow passge of fluids and solutes

154
Q

fenestrated capillaries

A

helps w absorption and filtration in small intestine and kidneys, good for picking up nutrients

155
Q

sinusoid capillaries

A

leaky capillaries that allow large molecules to pass between blood and surrounding tissues, like in liver, spleen or bone marrow

156
Q

what is vascular anastamoses

A

a connection between blood vessels that supply blood to the same region of the body.
it allows blood to have alternative routes to tissues and heart incase a vessel gets blocked.
can occur between two arts or veins or and art and vein.

157
Q

what is blood flow?

A

flow- the volume of blood flowing through a vessel, organ, or the entire circulation in a given period.

158
Q

what is blood pressure

A

pressure- the force per unit area exerted by the blood against a blood vessel wall

159
Q

what is resistance?

A

a measure of the friction between blood and the blood vessel walls. the friction blood must overcome to circulate.

160
Q

if blood pressure increases blood flow…..

A

increases

161
Q

if resistance increases blood flow …..

A

decreases

162
Q

what is vasoconstriction and vasodiolation?

A

con-the narrowing of blood vessels
dia- widening of blood vessels as a result of blood ves relaxation

163
Q

why is blood pressure in arteries the highest?

A

highest in arteries because its close to the heart and have a large volume of blood forced into them.

164
Q

what is systolic pressure

A

contracted period.
when L ventricle contracts it pushes blood into aorta producing this peak pressure.
120 mmHg is av

165
Q

what is diastolic pressure

A

relaxed state.
occurs when ventricles enter distole, aortic valves shut, aorta walls recoil so blood continues to flow forawrd.
av is 70-80 mmHg

166
Q

whats the diff between systolic and diastolic pressure

A

pulse pressure

167
Q

capillary BP

A

low, 15-40mmHg, to protect caps from rupturing but still allows for gas exchange

168
Q

venus BP

A

low and changes very little in cardiac cyle.

169
Q

what is hypertension

A

high blood pressure.
a sustained increase in either systolic or diastolic pressure.

170
Q

what is primary hypertension

A

most common, in specific cause, problem is hypertension

171
Q

what is secondary hypertension

A

less common (10%), caused by artery obstruction, kidney disease, or other causes.

172
Q

what is hypotension

A

low BP, caused by many things

173
Q

what is circulatory shock

A

any condition in which blood volume is inadequate and cannot circulate normally resulting in blood flow not being able to meet the needs of the tissue

174
Q

hypovolemic shock? vascular shock?

A

hyp- result from large loss of blood,heart cant pump blood thru body
vas- occurs when normal blood vol but exterme vasodialation resulting in poor circulation and drop in BP

175
Q

transient vascular shock? cardiogenic shock?

A

tra- due to prolonged exposure to heat resulting in vasodialtion of cutaneuos blood vessels.
car- occurs when the heat is too inefficient to sustain normal blood flow and is related to myocardial damage

176
Q

how is blood pressure measured?

A

using a sphygmomanometer or BP cuff.
cut off blood flow to arm,
squeeze artery flat, then slowly deflate until blod starts flowinf thru again so u can feel pulse.
thats systolic pressure. keep releasing pressure until sound
stops, art is no longer closing under pressure. write
this # as diastolic pressure

177
Q

what 3 adaptations are critical for venus return?

A

1- skel muscs creates a muscular pump to move blood back to heart wile venus valves prevent backflow
2- pressure changes from breathing create resp pump to move blood by squeezing abdom veins as thorasic veins expand. (keeps blood from pooling in veins)
3- smooth musc undergo sympathetic venoconstriction pushing blood back to heart

178
Q

what are varicose veins? what is the outcome of this?

A

veins that have become inlarged or twisted.
caused by insufficient force to move blood in veins which causes them to stretch which increases backflow and pooling of blood so blood falls back down.

179
Q

what 3 things maintain blood pressure?

A

cardiac output
peripheral resistance
blood volume

180
Q

what is neutral control of BP

A

clusters of neurons that regulate BP by altering cardiac output and blood ves diameter

181
Q

how do baroreceptors affect BP

A

decreases BP
detect stretch and send impulses to the vasomotor centre, inhibiting its activity and promoting vasodilation of arterioles and veins.

182
Q

how do chemoreceptors affect BP

A

detect a rise in carbon dioxide levels of the blood and stimulate the cardioacceleratory and vasomotor centres, which increases cardiac output and vasoconstriction.

183
Q

what is hormonal control of BP

A

Hormonal controls influence short-term changes in blood pressure by acting on vascular smooth muscle or the vasomotor centre of the brain.
like epinephrine

184
Q

how does a change in HR and blood viscosity affect arterial BP?

A

HR- increased cardiac output
BV- increased systemic or peripheral vascular resistance

185
Q

what is extrinsic control of blood flow?

A

involves the symapthetic ner sys and hormones to control the flow of blood thru the body

186
Q

what is autoregulation

A

intrinsic control,
automatic adjustmments of blood flow to each tissue in order to support its needs byt modifying diameter of local arterioles.

187
Q

what is metabolic control

A

stimulated by shortage of O at tissues.
cells that are lacking release nitric oxide to increase blood flow.

188
Q

what is myogenic control

A

localized response,
musc based control, when theres a lot of blood flow smooth musc try to tighten and reidrect blood flow to prevent damage to blood vessels

189
Q

what is long term autoregulation

A

increase in diameter of blood vessels and the number of blood vessels in a process called angiogenesis

190
Q

what is local vasoconstriction

A

affects one body part,
decreases the amount of BP going down a single blood vessel and allows it to go thru somewhere else
doesnt change BP in anywhere else in the body

191
Q

what is systemic vasocontriction

A

in all blood vessels, increases BP

192
Q

where does capillary exchange occur

A

occurs between the blood and interstitial space thru diffusion

193
Q

what is bulk flow

A

the movement of fluids in and out of capillaries.
helps maintain the interstitial environment.

194
Q

what is hydrostatic and osmotic pressure?

A

hy- fluid force against a membrane
os- determinds what direction fluids go in capillaries

195
Q

when will fluid leave capillaries

A

if net hydrostatic exceeds net colloid osmotic pressure, occurs at arterial end

196
Q

when does fluid enter the capillaries

A

if net colloid osmotic pressure exceeds net hydrostatic pressure

197
Q

what is edema

A

an abnormal increase in the amount of interstitial fluid causing it to either increase outward pressure, driving fluid out of caps, or decrease inward pressure, not returing fluid back to capillaries or drain into lymph sys

198
Q

what is innate immunnity

A

what youre born w, looks for recognizable things that are never supposed to be in the body and do not learn
phagocytes and natural killers

199
Q

what are phagocytes and natural killers?

A

ph- destory pathgens by engulfing them
nk- lyse and kill cells before adaptive immune sys response is activated

200
Q

what is adaptive immunity

A

involves T and B cells that help immune response learn, adapt, and remember previous pathogens

201
Q

what are the 3 parts of lymphatic sys

A

lymph vessels, lymph fluid in vess, and plymphatic cells and organs

202
Q

what are lymphatic cappillaries

A

large molecules that cant enter blood caps enters lymph caps. they flow into lymph vessels and carry to lymphatic trunks

203
Q

what are lymphatic vessels

A

low pressure vessels that return the lymph back to circ sys

204
Q

where does lymph go back into the circulatory sys?

A

right lymphatic duct(drains upper right side) or thorasic duct(drains rest of body)

205
Q

what are T cells

A

go to thymus and then circulation,
manage immune responses, attack, and destroy cells

206
Q

what are B cells

A

from red bone marrow and goes directly into circulation,
secrete antibodies to mark antigens for destruction by phags

207
Q

what r macrophages

A

act as phagocytes and active T lypmhs

208
Q

what are dendritic cells

A

in lymph tiss, activate T lymphocytes

209
Q

what are reticular cells

A

supports other tissue types, builds and maintains lymph cells

210
Q

what are diffuse and follicular lymphoid tissues?

A

dif- found in most organs, monitor for trouble
fol- forms larger parts of organs, specialized lymph nodes

211
Q

what are lymphoid tissues

A

surveillance site for lymphocytes or macrophages

212
Q

what are lymph nodes

A

lymph enters from afferent lymph vess and exits thru effernt vess.
removes and destorys micro rganisms or other debris for the lymph before its transported back to blood

213
Q

what are buboes

A

inflamed lymph nodes

214
Q

what is the function of the spleen in the lymphatic sys

A

largest lymph organ.
removes old blood cells and platelets as well as foregin matter and debris from blood

215
Q

what does white and red pulp in the spleen do?

A

white- immune funcs and contains lymphocytes and reticular fibres.
red- where old blood cells and pathogens are destroyed

216
Q

what is MALT

A

lymph tissue in mucous mems throughout body like in nose or stomach

217
Q

what is the thymus? what does it do?

A

secretes hormones that cause T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent, trains T cells.
made up of thymic lobules that contains outer cortex where T cells divide, and an inner medulla where bad T cells are removed

218
Q

what are class I MHC?

A

all cells w nucleus check thei cytoplasm and put proteins on the outside on I MHC for T cells to check for infection

219
Q

what is the purpose of immflamation? what are the 4 signs of it?

A

occurs when tissues are injured.
limits the spread of damage, disposes of debris and pathogens, alterts adaptive immune sys, and helps w repair.
4 signs are redness, heat, sweeling, and pain

220
Q

what are antimicrobial proteins?

A

inferons and complement.
enhance innate defences by attacking microorganisms directly or by hindering their ability to reproduce

221
Q

what are inferons

A

small proteins produced by infected cells to help protect surrounding healthy cells by telling them to make proteins to protect themselves

222
Q

what are complement cascades

A

group of plasma proteins that kill a cell by punching a hole in their plasma mem making the cell leak

223
Q

what is colonial selection

A

an antigen binds to a lymphocyte and selects it for further development.
the cell can then divide and make a bunch of other cells that are all able to bind to this antigen (clonal expansion).
theyre either effector (activly fight infections) or memory cells (quick response later)

224
Q

what is cellular immunity?

A

T lymphs that either direct adaptive immunity or attack targets.

225
Q

what are CD4 cells? what are CD8 cells? what MHC are they in?

A

4- helper T cells that activate Bcells, T cells and macros ( in MHC I)
8- cytoxic T lymphocytes that destroy cells or foregin substances (in MHC II)

226
Q

what are TH1 and TH2 cells?

A

1- activate cell immune responses against intracellular threats (make more cells)
2- stimulate an increases ib antibody production against extracellular threats

227
Q

what is humoral immunity?

A

antibodies and proteins target and bind to extracellular antigens, found in fluids in body

228
Q

what are plasma cells

A

antibody secreting cells of the humoral response

229
Q

what is the function of the respiratory sys?

A

supply blood w O2 for cellular resporation and dispose of CO2

230
Q

what is pulmonary ventillation?

A

breathing, air moving in and out of lungs

231
Q

what is external resporation

A

echange of O2 and CO2 between blood and lungs

232
Q

what is internal respiation

A

(apart of circ sys)
exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and tussyes thru blood vessels

233
Q

what is the function and structure of the nose?

A

func- mositens, warms, filters, and cleans air
struc- extends down from brows and has two opens called external nares (nostrils).
nasal cavity is seperated by nasal septum and ends at pharyna thru teo openings called posterior nasal apertures or chonanae.

234
Q

what is the purpose of the two mucous membranes in the nasal cav? what are they?

A

olfactory mucosa- smell
respiratory mucosa- produces mucus

235
Q

what is the nasal conchae

A

bone that filters and moistens and heats air in nose

236
Q

what are paranasal sinuses

A

surround nasal cav, lightens the skull, warms and moistens air and makes mucous

237
Q

what is the nasopharynx

A

air only passageway, traps and destorys airborne pathogens (behind nose)

238
Q

what is the oropharynx

A

air and food passage, behind mouth, contains soft palate and epiglottis

239
Q

what is the laryngopharynx

A

air and food passage, behind larynx, goes from larynx to esophagus

240
Q

what is the structure and function of the larynx?

A

struc- attaches superiorly to the hyoid bone and attaches inferiorly to the trachea.
func- routes food and air into correct oathway and prduces sound thru vocal cords.

241
Q

what closes larynx

A

epiglottis

242
Q

what is the structure and function of the trachea?

A

struc- descends from larynx to primary bronchi.
func- the cilliated pseudostratified epi propels mucus upwards towards pharynx

243
Q

what bronchiles can do gas exchange (respitory zone)

A

respitory brochi, aveolar ducts, and aveolar sacs

244
Q

what is the purpose of pseudostratified epithelium in the resp sys

A

contains goblet cells which produce mucus that traps foregin particles and the cilia move the mucus out of the resp tract

245
Q

what is the respiratory mem?

A

The external surface of the alveoli are covered by a web of pulmonary capillaries. The capillary endothelium and the alveolar epithelium together form the respiratory membrane where gas exchange occurs.

246
Q

what is surfactant?

A

type II aveolar cells produce this to reduce surface tension in lungs so it takes less effort to breathe.

247
Q

what are alveolar pores and macrophages?

A

p- allow airflow between alveoli
m- phagocytose particles

248
Q

what is apart of the conducting zone

A

tracgea, prim bronchi, second bronchi, and terminal bronchi

249
Q

what is the order of the respitory pathway

A

nose and nasal cav
paranasal sinuses
pharynx
larynx
trachea
bronchi and branches
lungs and alveoli

250
Q
A
251
Q
A

a&p (4 decks)

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