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final exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is the lung root?

A

attaches pleural cavities to mediastinum

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2
Q

why does each lung have its own cavity?

A

to prevent the spread of infection if one gets infected

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3
Q

why is the L lung smaller than the right?

A

the heart is positioned slightly to the L

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4
Q

how many lobes do each lung have?

A

R- 3, superior, middle, inferior
L- 2, inferior and superior

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5
Q

what is the pulmonary network and bronchial arteries?

A

p- carries blood to lungs to get O
b- provides blood to lung tissue

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6
Q

what is the visceral and parietal pleura?

A

v- in contact w lungs
p- covers thorasic wall

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7
Q

what lubricates the space between the lungs

A

pleural fluid, to reduce friction

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8
Q

what is lung compliance

A

lung stretch.
determined by distensibility (ablility to expand) of lung tissue and thorasic cage and alveolar surface tension

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9
Q

what does a decrease in lung resilience do to compliance?

A

reduces compliance, isnt able to return to original shape after stretching

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10
Q

what reduces surface tension in lungs?

A

surfactant, produced by type 2 alveolar and makes it easier to breathe

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11
Q

what is tidal volume

A

the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath during quiet breathing (normal breathing).
It averages 500 mL per breath

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12
Q

what is inspiratory reserve volume

A

the amount of air that can be inspired beyond (forced) the tidal volume.

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13
Q

what is expiratory reserve volume

A

the amount of air that can be forcibly expired from the lungs
after tidal expiration.

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14
Q

what is vital capacity

A

the sum of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve, and expiratory reserve volumes and is the total amount of exchangeable air.
the most air you have

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15
Q

what is residual volume

A

volume of air remaining after max foreced expiration, air that doesnt leave your lungs

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16
Q

what is total lung capasity

A

sum of all lung volumes

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17
Q

what is boyles law?

A

states that pressure changes lead to gas flow.
explains the motion of air in and out of our lungs

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18
Q

if air pressure in lungs is higher what will happen?

A

air will move out of lungs

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19
Q

if air pressure is lower inside lungs what will happen?

A

air will be drawn in

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20
Q

what happens in quite insiration?

A

the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, increasing the thoracic volume. Intrapulmonary pressure to drop below atmospheric pressure, and air flows into the lungs

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21
Q

what happens during forced inspiration?

A

accessory muscles of the neck and thorax contract, further increasing thoracic volume.

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22
Q

what does alveolar surface tension do?

A

draws walls of alveoli together making a force that must be over come to expand the lungs

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23
Q

what is quite expiration

A

normal exhale, causes thorasic muscs to relax

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24
Q

what is forced expiration?

A

abdominal muscs contract increasing intraabdominal pressure and forces air out

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25
Q

what are nonrespiratory air movements

A

cause movement of air in and out of lungs but unrelated to breathing
this is like coughing or sneezing

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26
Q

what is intrapulmonary pressure

A

pressure in alveoli

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27
Q

what is intrapleural pressure

A

pressure in pleural cavity

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28
Q

what is transplumonary pressure

A

the difference between intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressure: the greater the transpulmonary pressure, the larger the lung volume.

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29
Q

what is airway resistance

A

the change in transpulmonary pressure needed to produce a unit flow of gas through the airways of the lung.

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30
Q

what physical factors influence pulmonary ventilation?

A

airway resistance
alveolar surface tension
lung compliance

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31
Q

what is pulmonary ventillation

A

breathing
the air moving in and out of lungs

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32
Q

explain what happens when you inhale

A

diaphragm contracts to fill lungs as it pulls down thorasic cavity making air in lungs at a lower pressure than the outside which draws in more air

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33
Q

explain what happens when you exhale

A

the diaphragm relaxes, acessory muscs around neck and shoulder contract, and volume of the thoracic cavity decreases, while the pressure within it increases. As a result, the lungs contract and air is forced out

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34
Q

what is daltons law of partial pressures?

A

states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each gas in the mixture
sees what things in the mixture contributes whta to the air

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35
Q

Describe how atmospheric and alveolar air differ in composition, and explain these differences.

A

less O and more CO2 in alveolar air than outside because you actively make CO2 and use O

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36
Q

what is total atmospheric pressure

A

pressure outside of the body
760mmHG

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37
Q

what is partial pressure

A

the pressure from a specific gas in the air ex notrogen makes up 78.6% of air

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38
Q

if nitrogen makes up 78.6% of the air what is the partial pressure?

A

.786 x 760 mm Hg = 597mm Hg

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39
Q

what is henrys law

A

states that when a mixture of gases is in contact with a liquid, each gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure

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40
Q

Relate Dalton’s and Henry’s laws to events of external and internal respiration.

A
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41
Q

what is ventilation perfusion coupling

A

the matching of alveolar ventilation with pulmonary blood circulation
automatic sys that pairs how much breathing ur doing w how much blood is flowing thru ur tissues

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42
Q

what controls perfusion

A

P o2 by changing arteriolar diameter

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43
Q

what controls ventilation

A

P co2 by changing bronchiolar diameter

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44
Q

Describe how oxygen is transported in blood.

A

up to 4 O molecules can bound to a hemoglobin molecule. it binds to the iron in the centre of the hemoglobin.
hemoglobin picks up O and drops it off in tissues when they need it like during exercise, warmer temps and when you have more CO2

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45
Q

what is hypoxia?

A

inadequate O2 delivery to tissues

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46
Q

is plasma partial pressure of O rises what happens to hemoglobin? what abt if it falls?

A

rise- hemoglobin unloads little O
lowers- more O unloaded

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47
Q

anemic hypoxia
ischemic hypoxia

A

a- too few RBC or too little hemoglobin
i- blocked circulation

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48
Q

histotoxic hypoxia
hypoxemic hypoxia

A

hi- cells unable to use O, when theres a poison that prevents them
hy- insufficient O

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49
Q

what is carbon monoxide poisoning? (hypoxia)

A

typically from fire, hemoglobin has 200x greater affinity for carbon monoxide than for O, therefore wants to stick to it more than O

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50
Q

what is carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer system

A

formed when CO2 combines with water and dissociates, producing carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions that can release or absorb H to keep pH stable

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50
Q

Describe how carbon dioxide is transported in the blood.

A

transported in 3 ways;
-7-10% dissolved in plasma
-20% carried on hemoglobin
-70% exists as bicarbonate ions

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51
Q

what does slow shallow breathing do

A

increases CO2 in blood causing a drop in pH

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52
Q

what are the neural controls of respiration?

A

ventral respiratory group and dorsal respiratory
both located in the medulla oblongata

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53
Q

what is the ventral respiratory group?

A

generates baseline rhythm of inhalation and exhalation.
has neurons that control the contration of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles during resporation

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54
Q

what is the dorsal respiratory group?

A

receives sensory input from peripheral stretch and chemoreceptors and communicates w ventral group

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55
Q

what is the pontine respiratory group?

A

within the pons,
modifies breathing rhythm to smooth out transitions between inspiration and expiration.

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56
Q

how does arterial pH affect breathing?

A

decreased pH increases breathing rate bc breathing faster and deeper increases the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled, which raises the blood pH back toward normal.

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57
Q

what factors influence breathing

A

pH and changing levels of O and CO2

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58
Q

what are peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

in aortic arch and carotid arteries.
theyre sensitive to arterial P o2 and monitor arterial BP
can detect a change in arterial pH which causes breathing rate to change

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59
Q

what is hyperventilation?

A

unnecessary heavy breathing,
leads to decreased blood CO2 which causes vasoconstriction and ischemia which can lead to dizzy and fainting

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60
Q

what is hyperpnea?

A

high breathing rate for a specific reason, like exercise

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61
Q

Pulmonary irritant reflexes

A

respond to inhaled irritants by causing reflexive broncoconstriction in airways

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62
Q

inflation or Hering-Breuer reflex

A

activated by stretch receptors in visceral pleurae and airways, this protects the lungs from over expanding by inhibiting inspiration

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63
Q

Describe the process and effects of acclimatization to high altitude

A

after long term change from sea level to high altitudes it results in acclimation of the body,
there is less O and thinner air which causes you to take more breaths and make more RBC
this increases ventilation rate, lower hemoglobin saturation, and increased production of erythroprotein

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64
Q

what is acute mountain sickness (AMS)?

A

acute mountain sickness (AMS),
may result from a rapid transition from sea level to altitudes above 8000 ft bc atmospheric pressure and P o2 levels are lower at high elevations

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65
Q

what are obstructive pulmonary diseases?

A

hyperinflation of lungs,
problem within trachea, larynx or bronchi making it harder to get air in and out and causes ppl w this to have bigger lungs that are over inflated, higher vital capacity

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66
Q

what is restrictive pulmonary diseases?

A

a disease that causes damage to elastic tissue so lung doesn’t expand well, causes smaller lungs, low vital capacity

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67
Q

what is emphysema?

A

permanently enlarged alveoli and deterioration of alveolar walls, causes more effort to breathe

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68
Q

what is bronchitis?

A

inhaled irritants result in inflammation of bronchi, excessive mucous production as well as fibrosis
impairs lung ventilation and gas exchange

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69
Q

what is asthma?

A

inflamed airways caused by a combo of genetics and environmental factors.
causes airways to thicken.
caused by release of interleukins and mucous

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70
Q

what are the 4 main functions of the dig sys?

A

take in food
break it down into nutrient molecules
absorb nutrient molecules into blood stream
rid body of any indigestible remains

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71
Q

what is the alimentary canal?

A

tube from mouth - anus
order: mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, SI, LI

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72
Q

what are the 4 layers of the alimentary canal starting deepest?

A

mucosal layer
submucosa
musularis
serosa

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73
Q

what is the mucosa and submucosa layers?

A

m- inner most, moister, lines entire dig tract, provides secretions to GI lumen, absorbs, and protects against infectious disease
s- dense CT containing blood ves and lymph ves, and nerves

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74
Q

what are the muscularis and serosal layers?

A

m- smooth musc that preforms peristalsis and segmentation, stomach has 3 layers and everywhere else has 2
s- protective outer layer, forms visceral peritoneum, attaches canal to tissues or mems

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75
Q

what are the first 3 steps of processing food?

A
  1. ingestion, in mouth, takes food to GI tract.
  2. in mouth, secretion of dig enzymes.
  3. motility, mechanical breakdown and moving things along thru peristalsis and segmentation
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76
Q

what is peristalsis?

A

squeezing behind the food in order to move forwards

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77
Q

what is segmentation?

A

contracts and relaxes back and forth to churn, break down, and mix food

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78
Q

what are the last 3 steps in food processing?

A
  1. digestion, chem breakdown.
  2. absorption, in SI, movement of digested products from lumen to blood or lymph
  3. defecation, eliminates waste thru anus
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79
Q

what is splanchnic circulation?

A

the supply of blood that goes to the GI tract.
incudes arteries that branch off abdominal aorta to dig organs

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80
Q

what is the hepatic portal sys?

A

sends blood from GI tract to liver to finish filtering and breaking down toxins to prevent them from joining circulation

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81
Q

wht is visceral and parietal peritoneum?

A

v- covers organs
p- lines body wall of abdom cav

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82
Q

what is the peritoneal cavity

A

between vis and parietal peritoneum and its filled w serous fluid to prevent friction while organs moves

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83
Q

what is retroperitoneal? what organs are included in this?

A

organs that are found posterior to the mesentery lying against dorsal wall. ( not in abdom cav technically)
organs; pancreas, duodenum, and parts of LI

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84
Q

what are messenteries?

A

double layer of peritoneum that allows vessels and nerves to reach dig organs and holds the organs in place, also stores fats

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85
Q

what are the greater and lesser omentums?

A

g- hangs from inferior/greater curve of stomach infront of intestines
l- hangs from liver to superior/lesser curve of stomach

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86
Q

what is the enteric nervous sys

A

GI tracts own nerv sys.
made up of myenteric plexus and submucosal plexus.
controls long and short reflexes.
measures how muc food youre eating in order to regulate how much acids should be made

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87
Q

myenteric plexus

A

within muscular layer, it coordinates segmentation and peristalsis in the intestines

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88
Q

submucosal plexus

A

controls local muscle, intestinal secretion, local absorption, and local contraction and regulates forwards movement of dig

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89
Q

what are short and long reflexes?

A

s- mediated by enteric neurons, reflex in GI tract
l- also involves CNS and extrinsic nerves, goes to brain then back down

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90
Q

what 3 components determine regulation of digestion

A

-variety of chem and mech stimuli to promote dig activity
-smooth musc and glands are the effectors in GI tract
-neurons and hormones control dig activity

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91
Q

what is the mucosal layer of the mouth?

A

stratified squamous

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92
Q

what is the palate? what are its two parts?

A

roof of the mouth.
hard palate- bony, aids in manipulation of food.
soft palate- rises during swallowing to close the nasopharynx

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93
Q

what is the purpose of the skeletal muscle that covers lips and cheeks?

A

helps to keep food between the teeth while chewing

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94
Q

what is the tongue?

A

made of skeletal musc
used to reposition food in chewing, mix food w saliva, initiate swallowing, and helps w speech.
you have voluntary control of it

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95
Q

what and how is saliva produced?

A

saliva is mainly water w electrolytes and enzyme called amylase, ligual lipase, antibodies, and metabolic wastes.
composed of serous cells, that produce a watery secretion, and muscus cells, that produce mucus.

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96
Q

what do lingual lipase and salivary amylase break down?

A

l- lipids
a- starch

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97
Q

how saliva do you produce on av a day?

A

1L- 1.5L

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98
Q

what are the 3 salivary glands?

A

-sublingual gland, under tongue
-submandibular gland, jaw area
-parotid duct, by ear or cheeks

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99
Q

what is the function of saliva?

A

begins chemical dig,
breaks down carbs,
moistens food.

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100
Q

what begins mech dig?

A

teeth, using mastication (chewing)

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101
Q

what is precise dentition? what has it?

A

top and bottom teeth fit w each other,
only mammals have this

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102
Q

what are primary dentition or deciduous teeth?

A

baby teeth
20 in total
teeth that are lost to make room for permanent teeth

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103
Q

what are permanent dentition?

A

permanent/adult teeth
32 in total

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104
Q

what are the types of teeth? what are they for?

A

incisors, cutting
canines, tering
premolars, crushing
molars, grinding

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105
Q

what is the adult human dental formula?

A

I 2/2
C 1/1
P2/2
M 3/3

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106
Q

explain the dental formula

A

the top # is top teeth,
bottom # is bottom teeth,
only accounts for half of the mouth and assumes both sidea are equal because humans are symentrical

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107
Q

what is the crown?

A

hardest part of tooth,
covered w enamel,
exposed part of tooth

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108
Q

what is the root of the tooth?

A

the part embedded in the gums

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109
Q

why do you get two sets of teeth?

A

because the head and jaw grows so you need more teeth

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110
Q

what is cementum? dentin? pulp cavity?

A

c- calcified CT that anchors root into periodontal ligaments
d- bone like material under enamel and surrounds pulp cav
p- provides supply of blood and nerves

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111
Q

what are 2 ways you can get cavities?

A

sugars- the bacteria in mouth breakdown sugar and produce acid, too much consumption of sugar and production of acid breaks down teeth causing demineralization and cavities.
gum erosion- the neck of tooth becomes exposed and it is not covered w enamel leading to cavities

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112
Q

what is function of the pharynx

A

musc contractions within the walls propels food to esophagus

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113
Q

what is the function of the esophagus

A

passageway for food and fluids from laryngopharynx to stomach at the cardial orifice.

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114
Q

when does heartburn occur?

A

when the gastroesophageal (cardiac) sphincter isnt able to stay closed when moving stuff from esoph to stomach and the acid gets out

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115
Q

describe the mechanism of swallowing

A

buccal phase- voluntary, occurs in mouth where bolus is forced into oropharynx by tongue.
pharyngeal-esophageal phase- involuntary, occurs when food is squeezed thru the phaynx and into esoph. controlled by the medulla and pons.

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116
Q

what are 7 functions of the stomach?

A

1 mech and chem break down.
2 holding area for food.
3 delivers chyme to SI.
4 denatures pros w hydrochloric acid.
5 pepsin carries out enzyme dig of pros.
6 absorbs alc and asprin into blood thru endothelium.
7 secretion of intrinsic factor for B12 absorption.

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117
Q

what is the cardia and pyloric area in the stomach?

A

c- where food enters
p- controls movement of food out of the stomach

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118
Q

what is the mucosa of the stomach?

A

simple columnar w goblet cells that provide protective cover of alkaline mucus

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119
Q

what are the purpose of gastric glands of the stomach?

A

produce gastric juice that denatures pros and lipids.
mix of mucus, acid, enzymes, hormones, and intrinsic factor

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120
Q

what are surface mucous cells, mucous neck cells, and parietal cells of the stomach?

A

m- secretes mucous, keeps acid at bay.
mnc- secretes diff type of mucus.
p- makes hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor to absorb B12 ans denature pros.

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121
Q

what are chief and enteroendocrine cells of the stomach?

A

c-secretes pepsinogen and gastric lipase to breakdown pros.
e- secretes hormones for communication between dig organs and coordinates activity.

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122
Q

Explain how gastric secretion and stomach motility are regulated.

A

by neutral and hormonal mechanisms that stimulate or inhibit the enteric neurons of the gut, which are organized as ganglionated plexuses and innervate the smooth muscles of the GI tract.

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123
Q

what is gastrin and somatostatin?

A

g- produced by G cells in stomach, stimulate gastric secretions and promote movement of food thru tract. ( activates dig sys)
s- from the stomach muscosa and duodenum, inhibits dig acvitity

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124
Q

what is histamine and serotonin in the stomach?

A

h- increases stomach acid (HCI)
s- regulate and stimulate musc contraction

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125
Q

what is gherlin?

A

hunger hormone.
released by stomach mucosa to stimulate hunger

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126
Q

how are gastric secretions regulated/what are the phases?

A

cephalic phase- before food enters, reflex trigger by sight ot thought of food.
gastric phase- lasts 3-4- hrs, triggered by stretch when foods in stomach, releases gastric juices and churns food.
intestinal phase- slow gradual release of chyme into SI

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127
Q

how do parietal cells make hydrochloric acid?

A

by pumping acidic ions one way and bicarbonates the other way. acid ions to stomach and basic to blood.

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128
Q

what is alkaline tide?

A

the balancing of acids and bases in stomach and blood. puts acids in stomach and bases in blood.

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129
Q

how is gastric motility regulated?

A

controlled by contractility of smooth muscles of the GI tract, extrinsic and intrinsic neurons (motor and sensory) and neural hormonal mechinisms

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130
Q

what is the role of the liver in the dig sys?

A

hepatic sys, filter blood brought from portal veins from SI, as it goes thru liver capillaries to help w detoxifying it,
stores and makes bile to dig lipids.

131
Q

what is hepatitis

A

liver inflammation from viral infection

132
Q

whats the anatomy of the liver?

A

has 4 lobes made of liver cells called hepatocytes that surround a central vein and meet at the portal triads which each have a hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein as well as a bile duct

133
Q

what is the role of the gallbladder in the dig sys?

A

stores bile thats not needed atm and concentrates it by absorbing water and ions.

134
Q

what is the role of the pancreas in the dig sys?

A

secretes pancreatic into the SI.
regulates blood suagr and makes bicarbonate to go into ST to balance acid

135
Q

what creates gallstone?

A

increased liver proteins

136
Q

what does gallstones blocking the bile duct do?

A

inflames pancreas,
they block the shared pathway of gallbladder and pancreas so bile and pancreatic juices cant get out, pancreas will start digesting itself bc tripsin cant get out

137
Q

whats the purpose of the SI? what are the 3 parts?

A

absorption of nutrient
duodenum, jejunum, and ileum which ends at ileocecal valve where it joins w LI

138
Q

what modifications in the SI have been made for absorption?

A

-circular folds, mix chyme for best absorption
- villi and microvilli for surface area

139
Q

what are microvillis purpose in SI

A

projection of the plasma mem that absorbs, increases surface area, and grabs onto things

140
Q

what are paneth cells in SI

A

secretes lysozyme and does phagocytosis.
regulates how much bacteria is in intestines and can send signals if theres too much

141
Q

what is the general absorptive cell in the SI

A

enterocytes

142
Q

what are intestinal crypts

A

depression between villi that have cells

143
Q

what is the migrating motor complexes

A

controls the pattern of seg and peri on order to kepp food moving forward

144
Q

what is the function of the LI?

A

absorbs water and makes faeces

145
Q

what are 3 features of the LI?

A

teniae coli- 3 bands of smooth musc in muscularis
haustra- pocket like sacs created by teniae
epiploic appendices- fat filled pouches of vis peritoneum

146
Q

whats the order of the LI

A

cecum
ascending
transverse
descending
sigmoid
rectum

147
Q

what does appendix do

A

flushes out bacteria

148
Q

what are the movements of the LI

A

haustral contractions- slow moves
mass movements- powerful waves of peristalsis

149
Q

causes and symptoms of diarrhoea

A

results when LI doesnt have enough time to absorb the remaining water in chyme
causes irritation of colon

150
Q

causes and symptoms of constipation

A

occurs when food remains in colon for extended periods of time and too much water is absrobed.
caused by insufficient fibre or fluid in diet, improper bowel habits, lack of exercise, or laxative abuse

151
Q

whats the av amount of time for food to pass thru GI tract

A

1-2 days or 30-40 hrs

152
Q

where does most digestion occur

A

most occurs in the SI and is accomplished by anzymes secreted into the lumen that hydrolyze larger molecules into monomers

153
Q

what is the process of absorption

A

occurs in intestines,
The molecules that result from chemical digestion pass through cell membranes of the lining in the small intestine into the blood or lymph capillaries

154
Q

what are the 4 steps in carb digestion?

A
  1. dig begins in mouth by salivary amylase that splits starch into oligosaccharides.
  2. in intestine, pancreatic amylase breaks it down further.
  3. brush border enzymes break oligosaccharides into monosaccharides.
  4. monos are co transported across apical mem of epithelium and exit across basolateral mem by facilitaed diffusion
155
Q

what is lactose intolerent?

A

ppl who have deficient amounts of lactase and cant consume lactose.
lactose consumed will not be digested

156
Q

what are the 4 steps in protein digestion?

A
  1. pepsin denatures pros in stomach.
  2. in SI, pancreatic proteases break down pros into smaller pieces and aminos.
  3. brush border enzymes break oligopeptides and dipeptides into aminos.
  4. aminsoa are co transported across apical mem of epitheal cells and exit across basolateral mem via faciliatated diffusion
157
Q

what are the 4 steps in lipid digestion?

A
  1. bile salts emulsify lipids into smaller droplets.
  2. pancreatic lipase breaks down emulsified fats to monoglycerides and fatty acids.
  3. monos and fattys combine w bile salts to make micells (super small fats).
  4. within epithelial cells monos and fattys are converted back to triglycerides and eventually turn into chylomicrons which get taken to lacteals for transport
158
Q

what enzymes are involved in digestion? what food do they act on?

A

lipase- lipids
amylase- starch
lactase- lactose
pepsin- protein

159
Q

how are nuceic acids broken down

A

pancreatic nucleases in pancreatic juices hydrolyse them into nucleotides. they then interact w brush border enzymes who break them into nitro bases, sugars and phosphate ions.
theyre broken down for building blocks rather than energy

160
Q

whats the function of the kidneys?

A

take blood that passes thru and filters out waste

161
Q

describes the kidneys anatomy

A

bean shaped organs that lie retroperitoneal in superior lumbar region.
R kidney is crowded by liver so its lower than the L one.
adrenal gland sits ontp each kidney

162
Q

what layers of CT surround the kiney?

A

outer- renal fascia, anchors kidney
med- periternal fat capsule, cushions kidney
inner- transparent fibrous capsule, prevents infection

163
Q

where is blood pumped into kidney?

A

renal artery, then to cortex, then afferent arteriole,

164
Q

what is renal nerve plexus

A

regulates blood flow in kidney by adjucting diamter of renal arterioles.

165
Q

what are nephrons?

A

structural and functional unit in kidney that forms urine.
composed of a renal corpuscle and renal tubules.

166
Q

how many nephrons per kidney

A

abt 1 mill

167
Q

what is the function of a nephron

A

produces bladder
filters blood of waste

168
Q

what is apart of the renal tubule

A

begins at glomerular capsule as the prox convoluted tubule, loop of henle, and dital convoluted tubule

169
Q

what are collecting ducts

A

ducts collect filtrate from many nephrons and extend through the renal pyramid to the renal papilla, where they empty into a minor calyx.
they have principal cells w sodium and potassium ions channels and aquaporins (channel for water) to reabsorb water. also has intercalated cells to control pH

170
Q

what are the 2 types of nephrons?

A

cortical- 85%, located in cortex, short nephron loop.
juxtamendullary- 15%, located near cortex medulla junction, long nephron loop.

171
Q

what is the glomerulus?

A

specialized in filtration and is fed by afferent arterioles and drained by efferent arterioles.
they maintain high pressure in golmerulus for filtration

172
Q

what are peritubular capillaries

A

low pressure caps that help w reabsorption

173
Q

what is the vasa recta

A

arise from efferent arterioles to help w secretion and reabsorption

174
Q

what 3 processes are involved in urine formation

A

glomerular filtration
tubular reabsorption
tubular secretion

175
Q

what is glomerular filtration

A

passive and non selective process where hydrostatic pressure forces fluids thru glomerular mem to filtration mem

176
Q

what are the 3 layers of the filtration mem?

A

fenstrated endothelium
glomerular basement membrane
podocytes

177
Q

explain the intrinsic control of glomerular filtration BP

A

the kidney itself can adjust the dilation or constriction of the afferent arterioles, which counteracts changes in blood pressureto protect nephrons from damage
ultimetly protects from damage and ensures significant blood flow

178
Q

explain extrinsic control of glomerular filtration BP

A

maintains systemic BP thru neural and hormonal/endocrine mechanisms, changes entire bodys BP

179
Q

what are the 3 factors in glomerular filtration

A

1 net filtration pressure.
2 total surface area available for filtration (all nephrons).
3filtration mem permeability.

180
Q

Intrinsic: myogenic mechanism

A

controls filtration by local arterioles becoming constricted reducing blood flow into nephron preventing damage.
the BF is redistributed to other nephrons

181
Q

Intrinsic: tubuloglomerular feedback

A

directed by macula densa cells that respond to the filtrate’s NaCl concentration.
when theres low NaCl and high Na levels due to high flow rate in tubules, this mechanism causes constriction of afferent arterioles to lower flow rate allowing for more time in the tubules for NaCL reabsorption

182
Q

Extrinsic neutral control of blood pressure

A

during stressful situations, we constrict afferent arterioles and decrease glomerular filter rate and increase systemic BP to redirect blood flow to other organs

183
Q

Extrinsic hormonal control of blood pressure

A

uses a sequence of hormones (renin) to constrict arterioles thru body increasing BP

184
Q

what do you check at the end of the distal convoluted tubule to see if enough things have been absorbed?

A

sodium

185
Q

when does tubular reabsorption begin?

A

when filtrate enters proximal convoluted tubule

186
Q

what are the 2 routes of tubular reabsorption

A

transcellular- solutes enter apical mem of tubules, goes thru cytosol, exits via basolateral mem, then enters blood thru caps.
paracellular- solute moves between tubule cells. water, K, Na, Ca, and Mg use this route

187
Q

what is primary active transport in active tubular reabsorption? how does secondary active transport relate to primary?

A

Na is actively transported across basal mem and then bulk flow of water sweeps it into another cap.
this pumping of the Na out of cell makes other Na want to enter, this is used to drive secondary activ trans that moves glucose and other ions (co transports them w Na)

188
Q

what is passive tubular transport of water

A

occurs down osmotic gradient created by absorption of Na.
waters reabsorbed using aquaporins

189
Q

when are aquaporins inserted in collecting ducts?

A

once antidiuretic (AHD) hormone has been detected

190
Q

where is the most reabsorption in urinary sys

A

proximal convoluted tubule

191
Q

where does tubular secretion occur (3)

A

prox convoluted tubule
collecting duct
distal convoluted tubule

192
Q

Describe the importance of tubular secretion and list several substances that are secreted. (6)

A

removes unwanted solutes from blood that were too big for glomerular filtration and eliminates unwanted reabsorbed solutes.
disposes of; drugs, urea, uric acid, K, H, and protein bound substances

193
Q

what is a main func of the kidney

A

maintain body fluid and osmotic concentration

194
Q

wha is the countercurrent mechanism

A

fluid flows in opp directions in 2 adjeacent segments of the same tube (loop of henle).
in the desc limb h2o can leave but Na cant, in the asc limb Na can leave but h2o cant
thisproduces an osmotic gradient to concentrate urine

195
Q

what is the countercurrent multiplier

A

uses gradients from the movement of ions from the ascending limb and water from the descending limb to establish a positive feedback cycle to multiply the power of the salt pumps.

196
Q

how is dilute urine formed?

A

When our bodies have excess water, we decrease ADH, which closes the aquaporins. Water is not reabsorbed from urine in the collecting duct, and we produce a larger volume of dilute urine.

197
Q

how is concentrated urine formed?

A

ADH is relased opening aquaporins allowing water to be reabsorbed. as waters removed the urine getss more concentrated

198
Q

what is renal clearance?

A

how quickly a particular substance is removed from the plasma by the kidney and excreted in urine. So something with a high renal clearance means that it will be quickly removed from the blood
inulin is used as a standard to measure glomerular filter rate bc it doesnt get reabsorbed or secreted.

199
Q

explain how renal clearance works

A

if clearance value for a substance is lower than inulin than some of its been absorbed. if value is higher, substance has been secreted.
value of 0 indicated substance been completely absorbed

200
Q

why is pee yellow?

A

ceomfrom the break down of old RBC, heme catabolizes into biliverdin and bilirubin and bilirubin degrades into a yellowish colour

201
Q

why does urine smell

A

bacteria breaking down

202
Q

what is the pH of urine? is it acidic or basic?

A

pH of 6
slightly acidic
can also vary from 4.5-8 based on diet

203
Q

what is urine made from?

A

95% water and 5% solutes (nitrogen wastes, urea, uric acid, and creatine)

204
Q

how is urine moved in ureters?

A

peristalsis

205
Q

what musc and epithelium does the bladder have? why does it have it?

A

layer of detrusor musc and inner mucosa and transitional epithelium.
allows bladder to expand and fill w urine.

206
Q

whats the capacity of the bladder?

A

500-800 mL of urine

207
Q

how longs the urethra is males and females?

A

m 20 cm
f 3-4 cm

208
Q

what is micturition? what nerves stimulate and inhibit it?

A

urinating, act of emptying the bladder
parasympathetic- stimulate
sympathetic- inhibit

209
Q

explain the neutral control of urination

A

as urine accumulates, stretch is detected triggering reflexes to store urine.
once its full a reflex is initiated to urinate.
pontine storage centres in brain inhibits reflex and pontine micturition centres promote reflex.
centres dev around ages 2-3 which is why u dont have control over urinating until that age

210
Q

why do we urinate when excited?

A

high activity from limbic sys interferes w prefrontal cortex that inhibits peeing, causing you to pee when excited

211
Q

what is sympathetic stimulation?

A

inhibits detrusor musc and urethra causing paruresis or shy bladder
happens when youre stressed

212
Q

where is the pituitary gland? how is it connected to the brain? what are the 2 lobes?

A

-located below hypothalamus.
-attached by infundibulum.
-has anterior lobe (glandular epi tissue) and posterior lobe (neutral tissue)

213
Q

what is the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system?

A

a vascular connection between hypothalamus and anterior pituitary that extends thru infundibulum

214
Q

what is the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract?

A

a neutral connection between hypothalamus and posterior pituitary that extends thru infundibulum.

215
Q

what hormones does the anterior pituitary lobe produce? name the tropic (4) and non tropic hormones (2)

A

tropic:
-thyroid stimulating hormone.
-adrenocorticotropic hormone.
-follicle- stimulating hormone.
-luteinizing hormone.
non:
-growth hormone
-prolactin.

216
Q

what is a tropic hormone?

A

hormones that regulate secretion of other hormones

217
Q

what does growth hormone do

A

stimulates insulin like growth factors

218
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

promotes release of cortisol and steroid hormones from adrenal cortex as well as controls it

219
Q

Gonadotropins

A

hormones that regulate function of gonads

220
Q

follicle stimulating hormone

A

stimulates production of gametes and in females it promotes egg matuation

221
Q

luteinizing hormone

A

promotes gondal hormones like testosterone and estrogen, as well as ovulation

222
Q

what are the 2 posterior pituitary lobe hormones?

A

oxytocin and Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

223
Q

what is oxytocin

A

promotes uterine contractions, milk ejection, and sexual affection

224
Q

what is Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

promotes kidneys to absorb more water

225
Q

why is ADH also called vasopressin

A

because high concentrations of ADH cause vasoconstriction

226
Q

what do the follicular and parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland produce?

A

f- thyroglobulin.
p- calcitonin

227
Q

what 2 amine hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? what do they do?

A

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
increase metabolism and body heat

228
Q

what are the steps to synthesize thyroid hormone? (4)

A
  1. thyroglobulin synthesized and secreted to follicle lumen.
  2. iodide oxidized to iodine which gets attached to tyrosine protion of thyroglobulin.
  3. iodinated tyrosines form T3 and T4.
  4. to secrete T3 and T4, thyroglobulin transported into follicular cells where it gets removed allowing the hormone to diffuse into bloodstream.
229
Q

what is myxedema?

A

hyposecretion of thyroid hormone in adults
symptoms- low metabolism, thick dry skin, puffy eyes, cold, slugishness

230
Q

what is a goiter

A

If hyposecretion of thyroid hormone is due to lack of iodine this develops.
lack of iodine causes thyroid to make more and more unusable thyroglobulin causing irregular growth in thyroid

231
Q

what is calcitonin

A

secreted by parafollicular cells, lowers blood calcium by inhibiting osteoblast activity.
peptide hormone that acts as antagonist to parathyroid hormone

232
Q

how many parathyroid glands do you have? where are they located?

A

4
locted posterior to thyroid

233
Q

what is paratyroid hormone?

A

causes osteoblasts to break down bone to increase calcium absorption in kidneys and activated vit D

234
Q

what is Hyperparathyroidism?

A

when you have a large amount of parathyroid hormone that causes blood calcium levels to rise by taking calcium from bones causing them to soften and deform and depress nervous function.

235
Q

what are the layers of the adrenal gland and their functions?

A

outer adrenal cortex- 3 layers of grandular tissue that secrete 24 types of corticosteriods.
inner adrenal medulla- nervous tissue that produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. and is apart of sympathetic nerv sys

236
Q

what are the layers of the adrenal cortex? super- infer

A

zona golmerulosa
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis

237
Q

what are Corticosteroids

A

steriods made from cholesterol produced in adrenal cortex.

238
Q

what hormones are produced by zona glomerulosa?

A

mineralocorticoids, mostly aldosterone.
it regulated electrolytes and raise blood sodium and lower K

239
Q

what does alsosterone do?

A

made by adernal cortex, helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidney by keeping sodium in and releasing potassium from the body,
stimulates reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of K to increase blood vol and BP

240
Q

what hormone is the opposite of aldosterone?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide which is produced by the heart to lover BP

241
Q

what does the zona fasciculata produce

A

glucocorticoids to regulate glucose.
cortisol is released to decrease stress

242
Q

what is hydrocortisone?

A

cortisol delivered as a medication as an antiinflammatory to reduce allergy

243
Q

what does the zona reticularis produce

A

gonadocorticoids to target reproductive organs and can be turned into tr=estosterone and estrogen

244
Q

what is the pancreas and what do its cells produce?

A

contains both endocrine and exocrine glands.
exocrines function is to make enzymes for digestion.
the endocrine function is to make alpha cells that produce glucagon and beta cells that produce insulin which both regulate blood sugar

245
Q

what is glucagon and insulin

A

g- promotes glycogenolysis to convert glycogen into glucose raise blood sugar
i- lowers blood sugar by glycogenesis which converts glucose into glycogen

246
Q

what are the three cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus

A

polyuria- large urine output
polydipsia- excessive thirst
polyphagia- excessive hunger

247
Q

what is diabetes mellitus? what is type 1 and 2? what is the result of diabetes?

A

group of metabolic disease characterized by prolonged high blood sugar.
1- hyposecretion of insulin
2- hypoactivity of insulin
narrow blood vess that increase risk of heart attack and stroke

248
Q

whats the result of fatty acid metabolism rates

A

results in the formation of ketone bodies that get produced faster than metabolized which can cuase ketoacidosis.

249
Q

what does placentin produce?

A

estrogen, proestrogen, and human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which influences pregnancy and is what pregnancy tests look for.

250
Q

what is the pineal gland and what does it produce?

A

small gland that hangs from roof of 3rd ventricle in brain.
produces melatonin

251
Q

what produces erythropoietin and renin?

A

kidneys
e- makes RBC
r- reg BP

252
Q
A
253
Q

what is the temp sperm is produced at?

A

3 degrees below core body temp

254
Q

what do testes produce

A

sperm and testosterone

255
Q

how many lobules do the testes have? how many seminiferous tubules?

A

250 each w 1-4 seminiferous tubules

256
Q

what are sertoli cells

A

support cells that make sure sperm production is working properly

257
Q

how many layers of smooth musc do the testes have

A

3-5

258
Q

what is the blood-testes barrier

A

sertoli cells form this to protect sperm cells from toxins in blood

259
Q

what supplies and drains testes of blood

A

supplies- gondal arteries
drained- testicular veins

260
Q

what is pampiniform venous plexus

A

surrounds testicular artery and absorbs heat to maintain testes temp and make sure blood not too hot

261
Q

what is the spermatic cord

A

provides nerves and blood vessels to testes

262
Q

what controls the release of FSH and LH?

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

263
Q

what is follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in the testes

A

stimulates spermatogenesis by stimulating sutentocytes to release androgen building protein to allow for spermatogenesis

264
Q

what is luteinzing hormone in the testes (LH)

A

produces testosterone

265
Q

what is inhibin

A

released by sertoli cells to decrease release of sperm

266
Q

what is the rete testis

A

where all the tubes connect to go to penis

267
Q

how long does it take immature sperm to pass thru epididmis

A

2-6 days

268
Q

when is sperms “expiatory date”

A

2 weeks after produced

269
Q

what are the seminal glands

A

posterior to bladder and accounts for 70% of volume of semen

270
Q

what is the prostate gland

A

produces slightly acidic fluid that makes one third of semen and plays a role in sperm activation

271
Q

what is the bulbourethra gland

A

produces mucus prior to ejaculation to neutralize and clear out any urine before ejaculation

272
Q

what is the glans penis?

A

end of penis

272
Q
A
273
Q

what erectile tissue is in the penis

A

one corpus spongiosum (forms the glands and bulb of penis) and two corpora cavernosa (forms the crura)

274
Q

what is the purpose of erectile tissue?

A

tissues retain the blood by pinching the draining vein to retain blood and enlarge

275
Q

what is ejaculation? what is it triggered by ?

A

ejaculation if the propulsion of semen triggered by the sympathetic ner sys

276
Q
A
277
Q
A
278
Q

what hormones are secreted by the ovaries?

A

estrogen and progestrogen

279
Q

where are the female genitalia located? what is included?

A

located in the pelvic cavity
includes the ovaries and duct sys (falloopian tubes, uterus, and vagina)

280
Q

what is the vulva?

A

the female external organ

281
Q

what is the suspensory ligament that connects the ovary? what is the mesovarium?

A

ligament- broad ligament (its flexabile for pregnancy)
mesovarium- branch of ligamnets that hold onto ovary

282
Q

how many eggs are ovulated throughout a womans life?

A

300-500

283
Q

whaat is the purpose of fimbriae?

A

fimbriae are used to sweep fluids into the fallopian tube, as the tub is not fully connected to the ovaries.

284
Q

what are the 3 layers of the uterus starting superficially?

A

perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium

285
Q

what is the function of the stratum functionalis and stratum basalis?

A

func- changes in response to ovarian hormone cycles and is shed during menstruation
basal- forms new functionalis after its shed and is unresponsive to hormones

286
Q

what are the 3 layers of the vagina starting superficially?

A

adventitia
muscularis
mucosa

287
Q

whats the pH of the vagina?

A

4.5, acidic

288
Q

whats included in the vulva? whats the purpose of the mons pubis?

A

mons pubis, labia, clitoris, and vestibules
mons- acts as padding to pubic bone

289
Q

whats the labia majora

A

the lips that extend posterior from mons pubis
would develop into testes if it was a man

290
Q

what is the labia minora

A

encloses the vestibule which contains vaginal and urethral openings

291
Q

what is the skenes glands and bartholins glands?

A

s- female prostate
b- produces secretions for vulva, like the bulbourethra

292
Q

what does the clitoris contain?

A

glans (exposed part)
prepuce (hood)
and two corpa cavernosa

293
Q

what is the first type of milk thats produced called?

A

colostrum

294
Q

what is the structure of the mammary gland

A

consists of 15-25 lobes that radiate around and open at the nipple. within the lobes are alveoli that produce milk

295
Q

when do mammary glands enter final maturation

A

4th month of pregnancy

296
Q

What is the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

The phase where a follicle develops and an oocyte undergoes meiosis.

297
Q

What is ovulation?

A

A process that occurs when the ovary wall ruptures and a secondary oocyte is expelled. following a peak in LH secretion

298
Q

what is the luteal phase

A

The formation of a corpus lutem. This occurs after ovulation.

299
Q

What does the corpus lutem do?

A

It secretes progesterone and some estrogens.

300
Q

How long does a corpus lutem stay intact before it is degenerated into the corpus albicans?

A

about 10 days

301
Q

What happens to the corpus lutem if there is fertilization of an egg?

A

It persists until the matured placenta takes over the hormone-producing role.
about 3 months

302
Q

What happens at puberty in regards to the hormone estrogen?

A

They hypothalamus becomes less sensitive to estrogen and begins to release GnRH in a rhythmic manner.

303
Q

What is the first menstrual cycle known as?

A

menache

304
Q

What does GnRH do?

A

It stimulates the increased production and release of FSH and LH.
causes men to make testosterone and women to make estrogen and proestrogen

305
Q

what happens if fertilization does not occur

A

LH levels fall and the corpus lutes degenerates, decreasing estrogen and progesterone until the cycle starts again.

306
Q

What is the uterine cycle?

A

A series is cyclic changes that the uterine endometrium undergoes each month in response to changing levels of ovarian hormones in the blood.

307
Q

What are the three stages of the uterine cycle?

A
  • Menstrual phase
  • Proliferating phase
  • Secretory phase
308
Q

What is the menstrual phase?

A

day 1-5 the endometrium is shed from the uterus
at the beginning of this stage ovarian hormones are at their lowest levels and gonadotropins are beginning to rise (day 1)

309
Q

What is the proliferating phase?

A

day 6-14.
the time when the endometriums functional layer is rebuilt. cervical mucous, normally thick and sticky, thins to facilitate sperm entry to uterus

310
Q

when does ovulation occur

A

at the end of the proliferative stage at day 14

311
Q

what is the secretory phase

A

days 15-28.
the phase in which the endometrium prepares for implantation of an embryo.
spiral arteries elaborate and convert the functional layer of the endometrium into a secretory mucosa that produces nutrients that could sustain a developing embryo, cervical mucous thickens forming a cervical plug that blocks entry of sperm or pathogens

312
Q

what is PCOS

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome is a common (10%) endocrine disorder defined by increased testosterone production by ovaries and forms small cysts on ovaries

313
Q

what age in females is puberty?

A

starts at 8-13

314
Q

what are ectopic pregnancies?

A

egg implants outside the uterus mostly in the fallopian tubes

315
Q

how many rounds of mitosis does it take to go from a single fertilized cell to a fully formed little human

A

41

316
Q

in 1990 we determined the SRY gene for what

A

“for sex determining region Y” on the Y chromosome.

317
Q

gender essentialism

A

is the belief than men and women are inherently, permanently different due to their biology

318
Q

in the 1960s sex verification tests were used to ensure

A

that only athletes determined biologically female could compete as a women

319
Q

what happened with sex verification tests for athletes in 1966

A

athletes competing as women must walk naked before a panel of judges and / or undergo a gynaecological exam. athletes must have typical female anatomy to compete as a women

320
Q

what happened with sex verification tests for athletes in 1968

A

in cells with two X chromosomes, one is inactivated and becomes a Barr body, visible under a microscope at the edge of the nucleus. a tissue must be positive for a visible Barr body for the athlete to compete as a women

321
Q

what happened with sex verification tests for athletes in 1992

A

a DNA test is used to detect the SRY gene on a Y chromosome. the athlete must be negative for the SRY gene to compete as a women

322
Q

what happened with sex verification tests for athletes in 2011

A

a blood test will be used to measure testosterone levels. the athlete must have less than 10 nmol of testosterone per litre of blood to compete as a women.

323
Q

since when have trans athletes been allowed to compete in the olympics in their chosen category? when did the first trans athlete preform?

A

2004
2021

a&p (4 decks)

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