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BMSC 220 CELL BIOL > Wiley Quizzes > Flashcards

Wiley Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Polar molecules are _ nonpolar molecules are _

A

hydrophilic, hydrophobic

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2
Q

The function of a buffer is to?

A

generate slight changes in pH

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3
Q

What macromolecules contain only polymers?

A

proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides

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4
Q

Distinct regions of a protein that fold independently of one another and often function in a semi independent manner are called:

A

domains

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5
Q

Where are the polar groups on membrane lipids directed?

A

aqueous environment

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6
Q

where are the hydrophobic regions of a membrane directed towards?

A

one another

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7
Q

fusing two cells causes what to happen after a period of time?

A

uniform distribution of labels

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8
Q

saturated fatty acids:

A

have straight fatty acyl chains

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9
Q

membranes contain lipids, including:

A

cholesterol, phosphoglycerides and sphingolipids

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10
Q

What serves as a fence around portions of the membrane to restrict the distance an integral protein can travel?

A

membranes underlying cytoskeleton

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11
Q

How do Na ions enter a neuron when an AP is initiated?

A

a voltage gated Na channel

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12
Q

Observations of mitochondria within living cells have shown:

A

they can exist as a highly branched, interconnected tubular network

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13
Q

In what form does a portion of a product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?

A

Acetyl CoA

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14
Q

Types of carriers found in the ETC of the inner mitochondrial membrane include:

A

flavoproteins
- cytochromes
- iron sulfur proteins
- ubiquinone
- NOT NAD (for some reason)

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15
Q

What is the domain of the inner mitochondrial membrane that is present within the interior of the mitochondrion as a series of invaginated sheets called?

A

cristae

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16
Q

Collagen is largely produced by:

A

fibroblasts

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17
Q

Can more than one type of collagen be found in a single fiber?

A

yes

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18
Q

What are four major components of the ECM in eukaryotes?

A

collagen
fibronectin
proteoglycans
laminin

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19
Q

The addition of a peptide containing an RGD sequence would ___ the binding of cultured cells possessing surface receptors for fibronectin to a fibronectin coated dish

A

INHIBIT

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20
Q

What are four roles of integrins?

A
  • anchor cells to substrate
  • transmit signals to intracellular compartment
  • participate in inside out signalling
  • bind to a diverse array of ligands
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21
Q

Integrins:

A

are receptors found on the cell SURFACE

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22
Q

___ are members of an integral membrane glycoprotein family that bind to specific sugar arrangements in oligosaccharides that project from the surfaces of other cells

A

selectins

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23
Q

Why do cells flatten when they make contact with a surface?>

A

they send out projections that make increasingly stable attachments

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24
Q

the endocytic pathway:

A

moves materials from outside the cell to inside the cell

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25
Q

major advantage of using GFP rather than autoradiography is that:

A

it can be used in living cells

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26
Q

the smooth Er has 4 functions including -

A

storing calcium ions
- synthesizing steroid hormones
- detoxifying drugs
- oxidizing hydrophobic compounds into hydrophillic compounds

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27
Q

The endocytic pathway:

A

moves materials from outside the cell to inside the cell

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28
Q

An investigator can visualize biochemical processes within a cell by determining the location of radioactivley labelled materials by this process:

A

Autoradiography

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29
Q

The endomembrane system when homogenized is broken up into vesicles, which are heterogenous but similar in size. these vesicles can be purified and after purification often retain biological activity, these are known as:

A

microsomes

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30
Q

misfolded proteins:

A

are destroyed

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31
Q

The unfolded protein response (4)

A
  • occurs when there are too many misfolded proteins in the ER
  • is inhibited by BiP
  • involves the synthesis of more chaperones in the ER
  • inhibits enzymes involved in protein synthesis
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32
Q

What type of cytoskeletal element is characterized as a long hollow unbranched tube with walls composed of tubulin?

A

microtubules

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33
Q

Which cytoskeletal element is found in both the cytoplasm and nucleus?

A

intermediate filaments

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34
Q

The substrate for kinesin motors are:

A

microtubules

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35
Q

assembly of tubulin dimers requires that __ must be bound to the tubulin subunit

A

GTP

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36
Q

The core of a cilium is called the___

A

axoneme

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37
Q

What controls the assembly and disassembly of intermediate filaments?

A

phosphorylation and dephosphorlyation

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38
Q

What motor is associated with microfilaments

A

MYOSIN is the motor, actin is the filament

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39
Q

Before incorporation into a filament, an actin monomer binds a molecule of___

A

ATP

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40
Q

The myosin motor is driven by ___

A

hydrolysis if ATP

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41
Q

What effect does the binding of the SRP to the growing polypeptide chain and the ribosome have on protein synthesis?

A

protein synthesis ceases temporarily

42
Q

The signal sequence is typically found on the _____ of a peptide designated to be inserted into the lumen of the RER

A

amino terminus

43
Q

Cells are infected with a virus carrying a temp sensitive mutant VSVG gene that encodes a protein that cannot leave the ER of infected cells grown at restricted temperatures (40C). Thus at higher temperatures:

A

The VSVG protein cannot leave the ER

44
Q

During the process of meiosis is the number of chromosomes doubled or reduced by half?

A

reduced by half

45
Q

When two genes are located on the same chromosome what can you estimate / assume?

A

that the frequency of recombination between genes allows one to estimate the distance between them

46
Q

Do telomeres play a role in recombination during meiosis?

A

no they do not

47
Q

The fact that chromosomes become shorter with each replication is known as the

A

end replication problem

48
Q

Alleles are:

A

different forms of a gene for the same trait

49
Q

When examining chromosomes in cells starting meiosis. Sutton observed the chromosomes were organized in pairs that came to be called ___ pairs; the members of each pair formed a complex called a:

A

homologous, bivalent

50
Q

What are the four parts of DNA structure proposed by Watson and crick? (4)

A
  • DNA is helical
    -Large #s of H bonds hold DNA in a stable configuration but breaking individual bonds allows the strands to separate
  • The two strands are complimentary to one another
  • Pyrimidines bind to purines
51
Q

Fluorescent in situ hybridization FISH is used to:

A

locate sequences of DNA on a chromosome

52
Q

How is DNA denaturation usually measured?

A

Absorbance of UV light by DNA increases as DNA denatures

53
Q

Transposable elements are segments of DNA that may be ____

A

mobile

54
Q

What causes unequal crossing over?

A

a pair of homologous chromosomes aligns imperfectly during meiosis followed by genetic exchange

55
Q

Constitutive heterochromatin is ____

A

permanently compacted and not transcribed

56
Q

What makes adult females genetic mosaics?

A

inactivated X chromosomes can be from either parent in each cell

57
Q

Histones are: (4)

A
  • involved with packaging eukaryotic chromatin
  • highly conserved
  • positiviley charged
  • contain high amounts of arginine and lysine
58
Q

The formation of heterochromatin: (4)

A
  • is related to the state of the histones
  • is involved in X inactivation
  • is identified by methylation of certain residues in the histones
  • results in patterns that may be transmitted to daughter cells
59
Q

Order levels of chromosomal organization from most dispersed to most condensed

A
  • nucleosomes
  • 30nm filaments
  • supercoiled loops
  • mitotic chromosomes
60
Q

Epigenetic inheritance:

A

Is not encoded by DNA

61
Q

Differences in the epigenomes of identical twins:

A

are thought to arise due to differences in environmental conditions

62
Q

How many X chromosomes are active in female and male cells?

A

1 in each

63
Q

What is the advantage of the highly condensed state of the DNA of mitotic chromosomes?

A

favours delivery of an intact package of DNA to daughter cells

64
Q

In bacterial cells, a single ___ contains a cluster of related genes that can be coordinately regulated by switching transcription of these regulated genes on and off at a site called the ___

A

operon, operator

65
Q

What kind of molecules must pass between the nucleus and the cytoplasm?

A

DNA and RNA

66
Q

Identical alleles that display different levels of activity based upon wether they are present on the maternal chromosome or on the paternal chromosome are said to be _____

A

imprinted

67
Q

What molecule binds at the core promoter sites associated with RNA polymerase?

A

general transcription factors

68
Q

THe extent to which a given gene is transcribed presumably depends on:

A

the combination of transcription factors bound to upstream regulatory elements

69
Q

Alternate splicing measns that?

A

the same gene can encode for multiple protiens

70
Q

The miRNAs that regulated mRNA translation and stability:

A

typically bind to sites in the 3’UTR of their target mRNAs

71
Q

What are three mechanisms used as translational level control of gene expression?

A
  • localization of mRNA
  • controlled if mRNA is translated
  • controlling length of time mRNA is translated
72
Q

_____ can degrade proteins that have been targeted by the attachment of _____

A

proteasomes, polyubiquitin chain

73
Q

Eukaryotes regulate gene expression at all levels except :

A

replication

74
Q

In a cell that produces only one type of protein, what is the size relationship between hnRNA and mRNA?

A

hnRNA is always larger than mRNA

75
Q

Introns are ___ of the final mRNA

A

cut out

76
Q

are mRNAs in prokaryotes and eukaryotes similar in structure?

A

no

77
Q

Peptide bond formation is catalyzed by _____ in the ___

A

ribozymes in the large ribosomal subunit

78
Q

Prokaryotic mRNA may be _____ before ____ is complete

A

translated, transcription

79
Q

Polysomes (polyribosomes) are a group of ribosomes joined together by ____

A

a single mRNA

80
Q

The mechanical changed that ribosomes undergo is driven by energy from ____

A

GTP hydrolysis

81
Q

Chromosome regions containing rDNA are located in the ____

A

nucleoli!

82
Q

What is the origin of virtually all of the signals that regulate cellular activities?

A

cell surface

83
Q

Sometimes an enzyme is activated by a receptor and generates a second messenger. This enzyme is called ____

A

an EFFECTOR

84
Q

The Gprotein coupled receptor family contain seven ______ as a structural motif

A

transmembrane a helices

85
Q

_______ are enzymes that phosphorylate specific tyrosine residues on protein substrates

A

Protein-tyrosine kinases

86
Q

Once the kinase domain of receptor protein tyrosine kinase has been activated, what does the activated receptor PTK do?

A

each receptor subunit phosphorylates its partner on tyrosine residues found in regions adjacent to the kinase domain

87
Q

The activation of RTKs is characterized by:

A

dimerization and autophosphorylation

88
Q

Okazaki fragments are synthesized using the ____ strand in the ____ direction

A

lagging, 5-3

89
Q

The function of DNA ligase in replication is to:

A

link Okazaki fragments

90
Q

Replication is said to be _________

A

semidiscontinuous

91
Q

a replicating prokaryotic chromosome has _______ replication forks, a eukaryotic chromosome has _____

A

two,
many

92
Q

In eukaryotes, which dna polymerase is thought to be the primary DNA synthesizing enzyme during replication of the LAGGING strand?

A

DNA pol δ

93
Q

Which DNA polymerase in bacteria is mostly involved in DNA repair and removing RNA primers at the 5’ ends of Okazaki fragments?

A

DNA pol I

94
Q

If a cell in the G2 phase is fused with a cell in the M phase:::

A

the G2 nucleus will enter the M phase

95
Q

DNA synthesis occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

96
Q

When the cyclin concentration ____, CDK is activated, causing ____

A

rises, enter the M phase

97
Q

What are the two major phases in the cell cycle?

A

Mphase, interphase

98
Q

What major event occurs during anaphase?

A

sister chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite poles

99
Q

IN what phase do microtubules attach to kinetochores?

A

prometaphase

100
Q
A

BMSC 220 CELL BIOL (6 decks)

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