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A+ 220-801, 220-802 Q&A > Wiley Flashcards > Flashcards

Wiley Flashcards

1
Q

Computer operating systems can be open source, meaning the OS can be examined and modified by ______.

A

Anyone

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2
Q

A multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor is known as ______.

A

Cooperative multitasking

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3
Q

Because the operating system is essential for running all other programs, it is usually the first piece of software loaded during the ______.

A

Boot process

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4
Q

The ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time is known as what?

A

Multithreading

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5
Q

Can you mix 64-bit software with 32-bit hardware?

A

No

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6
Q

What is the minimum amount of memory recommended for Windows Vista Home Premium?

A

1 GB

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7
Q

What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for installing a Windows 7 32-bit version?

A

16 GB

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8
Q

In Windows, a primary mouse click is typically a single click of which mouse button?

A

Left

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9
Q

The Taskbar contains two major items, the Start menu and the ______.

A

System Tray

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10
Q

A ______ is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time.

A

Restore point

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11
Q

Which Control Panel applet is used to configure screensavers, colors, display options, and monitor devices?

A

Display

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12
Q

What is the name of the desktop interface available in Windows Vista?

A

Aero

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13
Q

The ability to support so many languages is provided through the use of the ______ standard.

A

Unicode

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14
Q

A group of computers that are tightly connected or associated and share a common domain name will have a single authority that manages security for all the computers know as the ______.

A

Domain Controller

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15
Q

In Windows 7, Vista, and XP, every user is automatically given a user ______ when they log on to the workstation that contains information about their settings and preferences.

A

Profile

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16
Q

True/False: Remote Assistance is enabled by default.

A

True

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17
Q

The ______ command indicates whether the host can be reached and how long it took for the host to send a return packet.

A

Ping

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18
Q

Which option is used with NETSTAT to display all connections and listening ports?

A

-a

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19
Q

What switch is used with IPCONFIG to obtain a new IP address from a DHCP server?

A

/renew

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20
Q

The ______ utility can be used to schedule a shutdown (complete or a restart) locally or remotely.

A

Shutdown.exe

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21
Q

With Windows 7, there are 32-bit and 64-bit versions for each of the editions you must know for the exam except ______.

A

Starter

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22
Q

What feature of WIndows 7 and Windows Vista is intended to prevent unintentional/unauthorized changes to the computer by either prompting for a permission to continue or requiring the administrator password before continuing?

A

User Account Control (UAC)

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23
Q

The ______ feature of Windows 7/Vista allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon.

A

BitLocker

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24
Q

In Windows 7, the ______ feature allows you to use free space on a removable drive to speed up a system by caching content.

A

ReadyBoost

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25
Q

Windows 7 includes the ______ antispyware program.

A

Windows Defender

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26
Q

Windows 7 has a quick way to access files you’ve been working on through their association with the application that has been using them. This feature is known as ______.

A

Jump Lists

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27
Q

A simplified way to setup a home network was added to Windows 7. It is known as ______.

A

HomeGroup

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28
Q

In Windows 7, ______ allow you to logically (as opposed to physically) group files and folders that are not in the same location and make them appear as if they are.

A

Libraries

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29
Q

Microsoft Windows ______ allows you to migrate user file settings related to the applications, desktop configuration, and accounts.

A

User State Migration Tool (USMT)

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30
Q

During the startup of Windows 7, what holds information about OSs installed on the computer, such as the location of the OS files?

A

Boot Configuration Data (BCD)

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31
Q

What is the maximum number of CPUs supported by Windows Vista Home Premium?

A

One

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32
Q

Which edition of Windows Vista supports BitLocker and is not available through the retail channel?

A

Enterprise

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33
Q

In Windows Vista, what is the name for mini programs that can be palced on the Sidebar, allowing them to run quickly and personalize the PC?

A

Gadgets

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34
Q

In Windows Vista, the ______ provides a single interface for firewall settings, automatic updating, malware protection, and other security settings.

A

Windows Security Center

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35
Q

True/False: In Windows Vista, you can turn off the UAC feature.

A

True; while turning UAC off is not recommended, you can do so by choosing Start > Control Panel > user Accounts and clicking Turn User Account Control On or Off

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36
Q

To what versions of Windows Vista can Windows XP Professional be upgraded?

A

Windows Vista Business and Windows Vista Ultimate

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37
Q

What file in Windows serves as the hardware abstraction layer?

A

HAL.DLL

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38
Q

Windows Firewall has been a component of Windows ever since ______.

A

Windows XP Service Pack 2

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39
Q

The default setting for Enforce Password History is 0. How high can this value go?

A

24

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40
Q

What Control Panel applet in Windows Vista can be used to configure the device on which the operating system is installed to function as a true tablet?

A

Tablet PC Settings applet

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41
Q

Setup Manager is not an unattended installation method in and of itself but is used to create ______ files.

A

Answer

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42
Q

What type of operating system installation installs the most commonly used components of the software but not all of the components?

A

Typical

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43
Q

Older Windows Server Operating Systems have a feature called Remote Installation Service (RIS), which allows you to perform several network installations at one time. Beginning with Windows Server 2003 SP2, RIS was replaced by ______.

A

Windows Deployment Service (WDS)

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44
Q

______ is the process of dividing part or all of a hard drive into sections, or partitions, for use by the computer.

A

Partitioning

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45
Q

On each hard drive, the ______ contains the partition information for the hard drive and includes the beginning and end of each partition that has been defined on the drive.

A

Master Boot Record (MBR)

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46
Q

Windows XP includes a utility known as the ______ that will transfer most of your files and individual application settings from an old computer to a new one.

A

File and Settings Transfer Wizard

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47
Q

With Windows XP, what file starts the loading of an OS on the computer?

A

NTLDR

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48
Q

With Windows XP, to access Safe Mode, you must press what key when the OS menu is displayed during the boot process?

A

F8

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49
Q

True/False: Windows XP Home edition does not have Remote Desktop, only Remote Desktop Connection.

A

True; Therefore, Windows XP Home computers can connect to other computers but cannot be connected to by other computers.

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50
Q

What Control Panel applet is unique to Windows XP and can be used to add or remove network connections?

A

Network Connections

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51
Q

Ideally, your system should have a minimum of ______ physical barriers.

A

3

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52
Q

______ is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in right behind you without needing to use a key, a card, or any other security device.

A

Tailgating

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53
Q

______ is a common physical access method that involves digging through dumpsters or recycle bins looking for more information that is highly sensitive in nature (such as passwords written down after a change and before the user has the new one memorized).

A

Dumpster diving

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54
Q

______ devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners use physical characteristics to identify the user.

A

Biometric security

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55
Q

What is the name of file or glass add-ons that are placed over a monitor and prevent the data on the screen from being readable when viewed from the sides?

A

Privacy filter

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56
Q

A firewall operating as a ______ passes or blocks traffic to specific addresses based on the type of application.

A

Packet filter

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57
Q

The concept of ______ is a simple one: When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

A

Least Privilege

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58
Q

______ is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.

A

Social engineering

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59
Q

What is a type of malicious software that acts on behalf of a third part (rather than self-replicating, like viruses and worms, it is spread to machines by users who inadvertently ask for it)?

A

Spyware

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60
Q

______ is a form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you are missing by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.

A

Phishing

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61
Q

If you’re running into a software problem on a computer, the first step (after understanding what the problem is and getting any relevant error messages written down) should always be to ______.

A

Reboot

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62
Q

True/False: When trying solutions to fix a problem, make only one change to the computer at a time.

A

True. This allows you to determine the exact cause.

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63
Q

What is BSOD?

A

Blue Screen of Death; another way of describing the blue-screen error condition that occurs when Windows fails to boot properly or quits unexpectedly.

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64
Q

When troubleshooting in Safe Mode, you can uninstall a driver you think is causing the problem. Another option is to boot into the ______ configuration.

A

last known good

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65
Q

What is the name of the file that is the Windows OS kernel?

A

NTOSKRNL.EXE

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66
Q

A RAID array was not detected during the installation of Windows 7. What is a likely reason?

A

A likely possibility is that the correct drivers for the version of Windows being used is not located.

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67
Q

Device ______ are software programs that tell the operating system how to work with the hardware.

A

Drivers

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68
Q

True/False: In Windows 7/Vista, the User Account Control (UAC) feature has the sole purpose of keeping the user from running programs that could pose a potential threat by escalating privileges to that of Administrator.

A

True

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69
Q

True/False: When a file fails to open, it is often due to compatibility.

A

False. When a file fails to open, it is often due to corruption.

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70
Q

What command must you use to install the Recovery Console?

A

WINNT32 /CMDCONS

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71
Q

If all computers on the network are in the same office, then the office is a ______.

A

local area network (LAN)

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72
Q

Computers dedicated to providing resources to other computers are called ______.

A

servers

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73
Q

A network where there are no dedicated servers is called a ______ network.

A

peer-to-peer

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74
Q

A network topology where all computers are connected to a central device such as a switch is called a .

A

Star

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75
Q

Ethernet uses ______ to send information on the network.

A

CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)

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76
Q

The layer of the OSI model that manages the “look” of the data including encryption and compression is the ______ layer.

A

Presentation

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77
Q

The layer of the OSI model responsible for establishing and maintaining communications between computers is the ______ layer.

A

Session

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78
Q

The OSI layer responsible for error-checking is ______ .

A

Transport

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79
Q

The cable type with the longest range is ______.

A

fiber optic

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80
Q

As opposed to a WLAN, a Bluetooth network is referred to as a ______.

A

wireless personal area network (WPAN)

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81
Q

The network connectivity device that can connect multiple networks to each other is a ______.

A

router

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82
Q

The OSI model layer responsible for putting frames on the wire is called the ______ layer.

A

Physical

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83
Q

The seven layers of the OSI model from top down are ______.

A 
Application
Presentation
Session 
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical
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84
Q

The language of communication spoken between computers on a network is called a ______.

A

protocol

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85
Q

TCP/IP is based on the ______ model.

A

United States Department of Defense (DoD)

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86
Q

TCP is a ______ protocol that operates at the ______layer of the OSI model.

A

connection-oriented, Transport

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87
Q

Which protocol in TCP/IP is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses?

A

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

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88
Q

To communicate on a network, TCP/IP hosts must have a unique ______ and valid ______.

A

IP address, subnet mask

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89
Q

Class A IP addresses will have a first octet of between ______and ______.

A

1 and 126

90
Q

FTP uses ports ______and ______, and Telnet uses port ______.

A

20, 21, 23

91
Q

A ______ server provides IP configuration information to clients on the network.

A

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

92
Q

Class B private IP addresses are in the ______ range.

A

172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

93
Q

Class C private IP addresses are in the ______ range.

A

192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

94
Q

APIPA addresses are in the ______range with a subnet mask of ______.

A

169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255, 255.255.0.0

95
Q

The ______ protocol is used to send mail and operates on port ______.

A

SMTP, 25

96
Q

The address fe80::/10 is an example of an IPv6 ______ address.

A

link-local

97
Q

The ______ protocol is used to retrieve mail and operates on port ______.

A

IMAP, 143

POP3, 110

98
Q

A 10BaseT network uses ______ cabling and can transmit data at ______ (speed).

A

twisted-pair (or UTP), 10Mbps

99
Q

What are the four common types of broadband?

A

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line), cable, satellite, and fiber-optic

100
Q

The wireless networking standard 802.11a operates at ______ (frequency) and supports ______ (speed).

A

5GHz, 54Mbps

101
Q

The wireless networking standard 802.11n operates at ______ (frequency) and supports ______ (speed).

A

2.5 and 5GHz, up to 600 Mbps

102
Q

What is the most secure encryption protocol for 802.11?

A

WPA2

103
Q

Wireless networks use ____ to identify themselves.

A

SSIDs

104
Q

Name two examples of 4G technology.

A

WiMAX, LTE

105
Q

Firewalls filter packets based on a set of rules called ______.

A

an ACL (access control list)

106
Q

UTP cable has a maximum segment length of ______.

A

100 meters

107
Q

The server that translates between private nonroutable IP addresses and public IP addresses is ______.

A

Network Address Translation (NAT)

108
Q

WPA2 employs what security method?

A

AES-CCMP

109
Q

What type of laptop adapter combines functionality of PCIe and USB 2.0?

A

ExpressCard

110
Q

How thick are PCMCIA Type I cards?

A

3.3 millimeters

111
Q

If you want to plug your laptop into a power outlet in your car, what kind of power adaptor do you need?

A

DC

112
Q

Type III PC Cards are ______ thick, and the most common Type III device is a ______ .

A

10.5 millimeters, hard drive

113
Q

What kind of connector do MiniPCI Type III cards use?

A

124-pin card edge

114
Q

Where can you obtain laptop service manuals?

A

From the manufacturer’s website

115
Q

What are the three components of an LCD?

A

Inverter, screen, and backlight

116
Q

What is the part of the LCD that is responsible for providing enough light?

A

Backlight

117
Q

What is the component of a laptop’s video system that is responsible for sending the video signal?

A

Video card

118
Q

MiniPCIe cards have ______ connectors.

A

52-pin card edge

119
Q

What step of the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum?

A

Writing

120
Q

The last step in the EP print process is ______.

A

Cleaning

121
Q

Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?

A

+600VDC

122
Q

Bubble-jet and laser printers are examples of ______ because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time.

A

page printers

123
Q

Multipart forms are used with this type of printer.

A

dot-matrix

124
Q

With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to ______ VDC.

A

–100

125
Q

What is the function of the corona assembly?

A

The corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper.

126
Q

What is the first step in the EP printing process?

A

Processing

127
Q

What are the seven steps in the EP printing process, in order?

A 
Processing
Charging
Exposing
Developing
Transferring
Fusing
Cleaning
128
Q

______ are examples of print communication languages.

A

Printer Command Language (PCL), PostScript (PS), and Graphics Device Interface (GDI)

129
Q

Which component inside the computer case poses the biggest risk of electrocution?

A

The power supply

130
Q

Class ______ fire extinguishers are for flammable liquid fires.

A

B

131
Q

Class ______ fire extinguishers are for fires involving flammable metals.

A

D

132
Q

To discharge electricity from a monitor, use a ______.

A

high-voltage probe

133
Q

What is the name of the safety sheet supplied with all chemicals?

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

134
Q

What are the three common types of screws used in computers?

A

Straight-slot, Phillips, and Torx

135
Q

Computer components can be damaged with a shock of ______ volts.

A

100

136
Q

To see an electrical discharge, the transfer must be of ______ volts or more.

A

10,000

137
Q

What device uses a one megaohm resistor to slowly bleed charge away?

A

An antistatic wrist strap

138
Q

To whom must accidents at the workplace be immediately reported?

A

The employer

139
Q

When lifting computer equipment, always lift with your ______

A

legs

140
Q

You should ______ batteries to properly dispose of them.

A

recycle

141
Q

When talking about a computer problem with a customer, you should avoid using ______.

A

jargon, acronyms, and slang

142
Q

What should you do if you are going to be late to a customer appointment?

A

Contact (call) the customer

143
Q

When working on a customer’s computer, you should always ______ and ______ expectations.

A

set, meet (or exceed)

144
Q

Consistently light or faded characters on output from a dot-matrix printer likely indicates what?

A

The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced.

145
Q

Unevenly spaced characters in output from a dot-matrix or bubble-jet printer could indicate what?

A

A problem with the stepper motor.

146
Q

A paper jam in a bubble-jet printer is usually caused by what two things?

A

Worn pickup rollers or the wrong type of paper

147
Q

Pin 1 on a laser printer’s power connector should supply what voltage?

A

+5v

148
Q

What are three ways you can manually configure your laser printer’s IP address?

A

Through the control panel on the printer, using Telnet, and using management software on your computer.

149
Q

The process that a bubble-jet printer goes through after installing a new print cartridge is called ______.

A

print head alignment

150
Q

Vertical white lines on the output of a laser printer are caused by what?

A

Foreign matter (more than likely toner) caught on the transfer corona wire

151
Q

What causes image smudging from a laser printer?

A

The fuser isn’t heating the toner and fusing it into the paper.

152
Q

When Windows quits unexpectedly, you may get a ______.

A

Blue Screen of Death (BSoD)

153
Q

The diagnostic routine built into the BIOS is called the ______.

A

power-on self test (POST)

154
Q

Name the two most common types of devices used to keep computers cool.

A

Heat sinks and cooling fans

155
Q

The line of print jobs is called the ______.

A

print queue

156
Q

The service that formats jobs for the printer is called the ______.

A

print spooler

157
Q

If a laptop will not power up on battery power, what should you should?

A

Plugging it in to an AC adapter

158
Q

If the video on a laptop is not working, you should plug in what?

A

An external monitor

159
Q

To communicate on a TCP/IP network, which two things do you need?

A

A unique IP address and a valid subnet mask

160
Q

What is the command-line utility used to look at inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on your computer?

A

NETSTAT

161
Q

Which RAID level provides no fault tolerance?

A

RAID 0

162
Q

The functional components of a chipset are known as ______ and ______.

A

Northbridge, Southbridge

163
Q

ATX and ITX are examples of what?

A

Motherboard form factors

164
Q

______ is essentially software implemented in hardware.

A

Firmware

165
Q

Name two advanced methods used to keep computer components cool.

A

Possible answers include: liquid cooling, heat pipes, Peltier cooling devices, phase-change cooling, liquid nitrogen and helium, and undervolting.

166
Q

External cache is most commonly implemented using what type of memory?

A

Static RAM (SRAM)

167
Q

Which modules both have 240 pins but are distinguished by the location of their keying notch?

A

DDR2, DDR3

168
Q

What are the two socket types that require little to no force during CPU installation?

A

Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) and Land Grid Array (LGA)

169
Q

What should you apply between the CPU and heat sink to avoid overheating?

A

Thermal compound

170
Q

What type of conventional CPU cooling method is relatively quiet and affords the greatest drops in temperature?

A

Water or liquid cooling

171
Q

If the fan on the power supply is an exhaust-oriented fan, then the fan on the front fan should be ______ oriented, while the rear supplemental fan should be ______ oriented.

A

intake, exhaust

172
Q

How many devices can a 16-bit SCSI bus support?

A

16

173
Q

How many pins might you find on the data interface of a given SCSI device?

A

25, 50, 68, or 80

174
Q

What was the ATA-5 technology that first required the 80-wire ribbon cable called?

A

UltraDMA/66 or UDMA/66

175
Q

IDE and EIDE are now collectively referred to as ______ and have been superseded by ______.

A

PATA, SATA

176
Q

Name three of the available memory-card formats

A

SD, xD, MMC, CF, MS, SM, etc.

177
Q

Name one of the standard DC voltages supplied by a power supply.

A

+3.3VDC, +5VDC, -5VDC, +12VDC, or -12VDC

178
Q

What is the name given to the IDE/EIDE family of drive interfaces to differentiate them from the newer SATA specifications?

A

PATA

179
Q

How much faster is the 1X transfer rate of a DVD drive when compared to that of a CD drive?

A

Nine times faster

180
Q

Name three interfaces commonly used to attach external hard drives to a computer system.

A

USB, FireWire, and eSATA

181
Q

What is the capacity of a standard Blu-ray disc?

A

25GB

182
Q

RCA and TOSLINK connectors are used with copper and fiber, respectively, for what input/output technology family?

A

Digital audio

183
Q

Thunderbolt is a combination of which two interfaces?

A

DisplayPort and PCIe

184
Q

What should you do for a mechanical mouse that causes the cursor to move erratically on the screen?

A

Clean it.

185
Q

The e in eSATA stands for ______, but the E in EIDE stands for ______.

A

external, enhanced

186
Q

What input technology allows the touch of a finger or stylus to simultaneously move the cursor and make a selection?

A

Touchscreen

187
Q

What multimedia technology daisy-chains devices back to a host and uses a messaging protocol to communicate musical information among devices?

A

MIDI

188
Q

Which expansion bus type can share a single IRQ among two or more hardware components?

A

PCI

189
Q

A card with expansion slots on it that installs into a motherboard is known as a card.

A

riser

190
Q

______ is the preferred I/O bus architecture for high-end graphics adapters, especially among gaming enthusiasts.

A

PCI Express (PCIe)

191
Q

Which two types of expansion slot are closely related and highly limited and specialized as to what can be installed in them?

A

Audio Modem Riser (AMR), Communications and Networking Riser (CNR)

192
Q

A ______ contrast ratio indicates that an LCD monitor reduces the power to the backlight to display darker images.

A

dynamic

193
Q

What is the digital version of YPbPr called?

A

YCbCr

194
Q

Three major types of LCD screens are dual scan, passive matrix, and ______.

A

active matrix

195
Q

How many pins are on a standard (Type-A) HDMI connector?

A

19

196
Q

How many more pins does a dual-link DVI-D connector have than a single-link DVI-D connector?

A

6

197
Q

When you ______ a CRT monitor, you reduce the built-up magnetic field, improving the display quality.

A

degauss

198
Q

The three main classifications of video display devices are CRT, LCD, and ______

A

projector

199
Q

The analog-only portion of a DVI-A connector has a flat ground blade surrounded by how many pins?

A

4

200
Q

______ has a resolution of 1920 pixels by 1200 pixels.

A

WUXGA

201
Q

Adjusting the ______ rate can eliminate flickering in a monitor.

A

refresh

202
Q

Name three custom computer configurations.

A

Possible answers are graphic and CAD/CAM design workstations, audio/video editing workstations, virtualization workstations, gaming PCs, home theater PCs, thin clients, home server PCs.

203
Q

What special modifications apply to graphics and CAD/CAM workstations?

A

CPU enhancements, video enhancements, and maximized RAM

204
Q

What special modifications apply to A/V editing workstations?

A

Video enhancements, specialized audio, and specialized drives

205
Q

What special modifications apply to virtualization workstations?

A

CPU enhancements and maximized RAM

206
Q

What special modifications apply to gaming PCs?

A

CPU enhancements, video enhancements, specialized audio, and enhanced cooling

207
Q

What special modifications apply to home theater PCs?

A

Video enhancements, specialized audio, special chassis, and TV tuner

208
Q

What special modifications apply to thin clients?

A

None, but they must be able to run basic applications and the local operating system.

209
Q

What special modifications apply to home server PCs?

A

Media streaming capabilities, file sharing services, print sharing services, gigabit NIC, and RAID

210
Q

With respect to A/V editing workstations, what does NLE stand for?

A

Nonlinear editing

211
Q

Name the two most popular families of graphics APIs recommended for adapters used in A/V editing.

A

CUDA and OpenGL

212
Q

What are the terms used to describe proprietary and nonproprietary programming code?

A

Closed source/vendor specific and open source, respectively

213
Q

Which component in a mobile device can detect yaw?

A

A gyroscope

214
Q

Mobile devices that contain a magnetometer support apps that act as what kind of device?

A

A compass

215
Q

Which TCP ports are most commonly used for insecure and secure SMTP?

A

Port 25 and port 465, respectively

216
Q

What term refers to a mobile device adding geographical information to media such as photographs taken with the device?

A

Geotagging

217
Q

Capacitive touchscreens do not require _____, but resistive touchscreens do because their outer panels flex to make contact with their inner panels.

A

calibration

218
Q

Name two methods that a mobile device can use to detect its current location.

A

Possible answers are cellular network, WiFi network, GPS.

219
Q

What technology allows pairing of mobile devices and, on occasion, the ability to transfer files between them?

A

Bluetooth

220
Q

When configuring an Internet email account on a mobile device, what are the standard pieces of information required?

A

Username and password, outbound mail server and port (often based on secure SMTP), and inbound mail server and port (often based on secure POP3 or secure IMAP4)

221
Q

What feature available on almost all mobile devices can ensure that, after a configurable amount of time, a security challenge must be met in order to access the device?

A

Passcode lock

A+ 220-801, 220-802 Q&A (22 decks)

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